Lab Practical 2 Flashcards

1
Q

The _____ is a series of highly branched passage ways that conduct air to the structures for gas exchange.

A

Respiratory tract

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2
Q

The _____ respiratory tract goes from the nose to the pharynx.

A

upper

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3
Q

The ____ respiratory tract runs from the larynx to the alveoli.

A

lower

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4
Q

The _____ of the lungs rest on the diaphragm.

A

base

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5
Q

The ____ of the lungs is sightly superior and posterior to the clavicles.

A

apex

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6
Q

The ____ of the lungs is on the mediastinal surface where bronchi, pulmonary vessels, and nerves enter.

A

hilum

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7
Q

The ____ are organs composed of tiny air sacs (alveoli) where gas exchange occurs.

A

lungs

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8
Q

Which lung is larger?

A

the right lung

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9
Q

_____ pleura is the outer layer of the pleural membrane and lines the interior of the thoracic cavity and superior surface of the diaphragm.

A

Parietal

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10
Q

____ pleura is the inner layer of pleural membrane that adheres to the lungs.

A

visceral

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11
Q

_____ is the space between parietal and visceral membranes and is filled with serous fluid.

A

pleural cavity

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12
Q

_____ is the air filled space within the skull that filters, warms, and moistens inhaled air.

A

nasal cavity

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13
Q

______ is the bony processes that curl into the nasal cavity from the lateral walls creating passage ways _____ through the nasal cavity.

A

Nasal conchae

meatuses

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14
Q

______ membrane line most of the respiratory tract.

A

mucous

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15
Q

The mucous membrane is composed of what 5 things.

A
mucous
epithelium
basement membrane
goblet cells
lamina propria
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16
Q

Lamina propria is composed of _____ connective tissue.

A

areolar CT

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17
Q

Goblet cells secrete ______.

A

mucous

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18
Q

_________ are air filled cavities within the skull bones surrounding the nasal cavity

A

paranasal sinueses

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19
Q

______ is the passageway between the nasal cavity and larynx.

A

pharynx

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20
Q

The three parts of the pharynx.

A

nasopharynx
oropharynx
laryngopharynx

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21
Q

Oropharynx and laryngopharynx are lined with ______.

A

stratified squamous

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22
Q

_____ is the cartilage framed enlargement at the top of the trachea which houses the vocal cords.

A

larynx

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23
Q

The _____ is a flap like structure that closes when swallowing.

A

epiglottis

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24
Q

The _____ within the larynx supports the vocal chords.

A

arytenoid cartilage

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25
Q

All larynx cartilages are ______ except the epiglottis which is made of ______ cartilage.

A

hyaline

elastic

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26
Q

False vocal cords (________) are the upper folds that do not produce sound.

A

vestibular folds

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27
Q

True vocal cords (_______) are the lower folds that produce sound.

A

vocal folds

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28
Q

The ______ is the opening between the vocal folds.

A

rima glottidis

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29
Q

The _____ extends from the larynx downward, anterior to the esophagus, into the thoracic cavity.

A

trachea

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30
Q

The trachea branches into the _____.

A

right and left main bronchi

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31
Q

The trachea contains approximately 20 C shaped rings of _____.

A

hyaline cartilage

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32
Q

_____ contains pseudostratified columnar epithelium

A

mucosa

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33
Q

The _____ contains areolar tissue, blood vessels, nerve endings, serous and mucous glands, lymphatic tissue and cartilage.

A

submucosa

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34
Q

Adventitia is composed of _____.

A

elastic connective tissue

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35
Q

The ____ bronchioles are the smallest of air conducting tubes.

A

terminal

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36
Q

The ____ bronchioles are small branches off of terminal bronchioles that have alveoli in their walls.

A

respiratory

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37
Q

_____ are part of the respiratory bronchioles made only of alveoli.

A

alveoloar ducts

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38
Q

The _____ are teh terminal structures of respiratory tract where gases are exchanged with blood.

A

alveoli

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39
Q

Alveoli consist of _____ epithelium.

A

simple squamous

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40
Q

The epithelium gets progressively ____ moving from nose to alveoli.

A

thinner

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41
Q

Nasal cavity, sinuses, nasopharynx, inferior portion of larynx, main bronchi and lobar bronchi are lined with ______.

A

pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

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42
Q

Segmental bronchi, smaller bronchi, and large bronchioles

are lined with ______.

A

simple ciliated columnar

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43
Q

Terminal and respiratory bronchioles are lined with ______.

A

simple ciliated cuboidal epithelium

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44
Q

Alveolar ducts and alveoli are made of _____.

A

simple squamous epithelium

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45
Q

______ are lined with simple cuboidal epithelium and contain smooth muscle.

A

bronchioles

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46
Q

_____ is the movement of air into the lungs.

A

inspiration

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47
Q

_____ and diaphragm muscles contract causing the expansion of the lungs. Air is pulled into the lungs

A

external intercostals

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48
Q

____ inspiration requires five musches.

A

forced

i.e. pectoralis minor

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49
Q

____ is movement of air out of the lungs.

A

expiration

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50
Q

_____ and diaphragm relax allowing the lungs to recoil due to elastic fibers. Air is forced out of the lungs.

A

external intercostals

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51
Q

____ expiration requires five other muscles, which includes: internal intercostals, external obliques.

A

forced

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52
Q

_____ volumes measure volume of air exchanged with each inhalation and expiration

A

Respiratory volumes

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53
Q

_____ is a normal inhalation or exhalation. Normal for men and women?

A

Tidal volume
Male = 500 ml
Female 500 ml

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54
Q

______ is the amount of air forcibly inhaled after a normal tidal inhalation. Normal for men and women?

A

Inspiratory Reserve Volume
Male = 3000 ml
Female = 1900 ml

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55
Q

_____ is the amount of air forcibly exhaled after a normal tidal exhalation. Normal for men and women?

A

Expiratory Reserve Volume
Male = 1200 ml
Female 700 ml

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56
Q

____ is the amount of air still left in the lungs after the expiratory reserve volume is forced out. Normal for men and womens?

A

Residual Volume
Male = 1200 ml
Female = 1100 ml

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57
Q

_____ is the sum of two or more respiratory volumes.

A

respiratory capacties

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58
Q

Tidal Volume + Inspiratory Reserve Volume =

A

Inspiratory Capacity
Male = 3600 ml
Female 2400 ml

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59
Q

_____ is the max amount of air inhaled after a tidal exhalation.

A

inspiratory capacity

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60
Q

Expiratory Reserve Volume + Residual Volume =

A

Functional residual volume
Male = 2400 ml
Female = 1800 ml

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61
Q

______ is the volume of air remaining in lungs after a tidal exhalation.

A

Functional Residual Capacity

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62
Q

Inspiratory Reserve Volume + Expiratory Reserve Volume + Tidal Volume =

A

Vital Capacity
Male 4800 ml
Female 3100 ml

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63
Q

_____ is the total amount of exchangeable air with pulmonary ventilation.

A

vital capacity

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64
Q

Inspiratory Reserve Volume + Expiratory Reserve Volume + Tidal Volume + Residual Volume =

A

Total lung capacity
Male = 6000 ml
Female = 4200 ml

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65
Q

____ is the total amount of exchangeable air with pulmonary ventilation plus the air still remaining in the lungs after maximum exhalation.

A

total lung capacity

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66
Q

_____ filter blood of waste.

A

kidneys

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67
Q

____ transports liquid waste from kidneys to bladder (10 inches long)

A

ureters

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68
Q

____ is the muscular sac that stores up to 1 liter of urine.

A

urinary bladder

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69
Q

____ is how urine leaves the bladder and body.

A

urethra

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70
Q

____ are two symmetrical, bean shaped, reddish-brown organs

A

kidneys

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71
Q

The right kidney is about ___ lower than the left due to the liver.

A

2 cm

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72
Q

The kidney has a _____ made of dense irregular connective tissue.

A

fibrous capsule

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73
Q

In the kidney, the ___ is the concave medial border, where the renal aretery and vein, nerves and ureters connect to kidney.

A

hilum

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74
Q

The superior ends of the ureters expand to form a funnel shaped sac within the hilum called the ____.

A

renal pelvis

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75
Q

The renal pelvis branches into a few larger tubes called ____.

A

major calyces

singular calyx

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76
Q

The major calyces branch into the smaller tubes called ____.

A

minor calyces

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77
Q

The two regions of the kidney.

A

renal medulla

renal cortex

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78
Q

The nephrons are found in the ____.

A

renal cortex

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79
Q

The functional filtration units of the kidneys are called ____.

A

nephrons

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80
Q

Nephrons contain renal corpuscle and ___.

A

renal tubule

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81
Q

Urine formation starts in the ____.

A

glomerulus (renal corpuscle)

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82
Q

Blood enter the glomerulus through the _____ arteriole and exits through the ____ arteriole.

A

afferent arteriole

efferent arteriole

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83
Q

Water and certain substances are filtered out of the glomerulus and into the ______.

A

glomerular capsule

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84
Q

The ____ is the visceral layer of the glomerular capsule is composed of ______ (octopus like cell that wraps around the glomerular capillaries)

A

glomerulus

podocytes

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85
Q

Thin _____ allow filtrate leaving the capillary through the _____ into the capsular space.

A

filtration slits

fenestrations

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86
Q

The juxtaglomerular apparatus is important to _____ regulation and filtrate formation.

A

blood pressure

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87
Q

The juxtaglomerular apparatus contains ____ cells and macula densa.

A

granular cell

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88
Q

____ cells are modified smooth muscle cells of the afferent arteriole.

A

granular cells

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89
Q

____ is modified epithelial cells in the DCT where it contacts the granular cells.

A

Macula densa

90
Q

Filtrate travels through the _____ and into the nephron loop

A

proximal convoluted tubule

91
Q

The ____ contains a descending and ascending limb

A

nephron loop

92
Q

The nephron loop flows into the ______, which carries the urine to the collecting duct.

A

distal convoluted tubule

93
Q

____ nephrons are renal corpuscles near the peripheral edge with a short nephron loop barely enters medulla.

A

cortical

94
Q

____ nephrons are renal corpuscles near medullary border of cortex with a long nephron loop extending deep into the medulla.

A

juxtamedullary

95
Q

The ureters have three tunics

A

mucosa
muscularis
adventitia

96
Q

Muscularis is made of ___.

A

smooth muscle

97
Q

The _____ of the ureter is formed by transitional epithelium and lamina propria.

A

mucosa

98
Q

The four tunics of the urinary bladder.

A

mucosa
submucosa
muscularis
adventitia

99
Q

In the urinary bladder the mucosa is made of ____.

A

transitional tissue

100
Q

The submucosa of the urinary bladder is made of _____.

A

dense irregular CT

101
Q

The muscularis of the urinary bladder is the ____ muscle.

A

detrusor

102
Q

The urinary bladder contains a triangular area called the ____.

A

trigone

103
Q

In the urinary bladder each corner of the trigone has openings; two where the ____ enter the bladder and one that extends down into the ___.

A

ureters

urethra

104
Q

The internal urethral sphincter is ____, smooth muscle.

A

involuntary

105
Q

The external urethral sphincter is ____, skeletal muscle.

A

voluntary

106
Q

The female urethra is ___ cm long and the male urethra is 19 cm long.

A

4cm

107
Q

Urine is composed of ___% water and 5% solutes.

A

95%

108
Q

The average daily volume of urine is ____ L, minimum of 0.5 L.

A

1-2 L

109
Q

The pH of urine ranges from _____ and the average is a pH of 6.0

A

4.5 - 8.0

110
Q

Normal specific gravity (density) of urine is ______.

A

1.003-1.035

111
Q

A specific gravity below 1.010 indicates ____.

A

hydrated

112
Q

A specific gravity above 1.020 indicates _____.

A

dehydrated

113
Q

The color of urine can range from clear to dark yellow, dependent upon concentration of _____.

A

urobilin

114
Q

____ of urine is due to bacteria, cellular material and proteins, crystalizations of salts, and vaginal secretions.

A

turbidity

115
Q

Urinoid is the ___ of urine, ammonia smell if bacteria present, fruity if ketones from fatty acid metabolism present.

A

normal smell

116
Q

A ____ is a rapid and simple assay that can reveal significant physiological problems.

A

urinalysis

117
Q

A high pH could result in a person who has been vomiting excessively, a person with a urinary tract infection, or _____.

A

kidney failure

118
Q

A low pH could result from diarrhea, ketoacidosis or ___.

A

starvation.

119
Q

____ in the urine is not a normal occurrence and could indicate an infection, renal trauma, cancer, kidney stones, or be the result of several other causes.

A

blood

120
Q

______ are not normally found in urine, and are generally associated with UTI

A

leukocytes

121
Q

____ in urine is a good indicator that the patient has a UTI.

A

nitrates

122
Q

____ is normally found in urine in low concentrations. Persistent higher concentrations of protein in urine can indicate kidney failure or other serious disease, but can also be caused by menstruation and vigorous exerices.

A

protein

123
Q

____ is not a normal constituent of urine, as it is normally metabolized by the liver. Therefore the appearance in the urine can be an indicator of liver disease or bile duct obstruction.

A

billirubin

124
Q

_____ are not normal constituents of urine, but can occur in patients who have experienced frequent vomiting, diarrhea, pregnancy, or have digestive distrubances. High levels are a good indicator of diabetic ketoacidosis.

A

ketones

125
Q

_____ is not a normal constituent of urine and high levels indicate diabetes.

A

glucose

126
Q

____ is normal up to 1 mg/dl, but elevated levers of urobilin can indicate liver disease or bile duct obstruction, but can be associated with UTIs.

A

urobilinogen

127
Q

The ____ canal is a muscular tube about 30 feet in length that digests and absorbs food.

A

alimentary canal

128
Q

_____ organs aid in the digestive functions.

A

accessory organs

129
Q

GI tract wall is composed of 4 layers.

A

mucosa
submucosa
muscularis
serosa

130
Q

The GI tract wall muscularis is composed of two layers of ___.

A

smooth muscle

131
Q

The submuscosa of the GI tract wall is composed of areolar and ____.

A

dense irregular ct

132
Q

The serosa is composed of ____.

A

areolar ct

133
Q

The ____ initiates chemical and mechanical digestion.

A

oral cavity

134
Q

The ____ is the area between the teeth/gums and lips

A

vestibule

135
Q

The ___ is the roof of the mouth.

A

palate

136
Q

The ___ is made of enamel and projects beyond the gums.

A

crown

137
Q

The gums are called the ____.

A

gingiva

138
Q

the ___ anchors the tooth to the jaw.

A

root

139
Q

The tooth is held to jaw bones by ______.

A

periodontal ligaments

140
Q

___ forms mass of tooth, similar to bone

A

dentin

141
Q

____ is the connective tissue in the center of tooth.

A

pulp

142
Q

The ___ gland is anterior/inferior to each ear and secretes amylase.

A

parotid

143
Q

The ____ gland is on the floor of the mouth, inferior to tongue and secretes mucus.

A

sublingual

144
Q

The parotid gland is made of ____ cells.

A

serous

145
Q

The sublingual gland is made of ____ cells.

A

mucous

146
Q

The _____ gland is on the floor of the mouth, inside the surface of lower jaw.

A

submandibular

147
Q

The submandibular gland secretes ______ and is made of both serous and mucous cells.

A

salivary amylase

mucous

148
Q

The ______ is a ring of smooth muscle between pharynx and esophagus.

A

superior esophageal sphincter

149
Q

_____ is a ring of smooth muscle between esophagus and stomach.

A

inferior esophageal sphincter

150
Q

The mucosa of the esophageal walls is made of _____.

A

stratified squamous

151
Q

The order of the small intestines in order from stomach to large intestines.

A

duodenum
jejunum
ileum

152
Q

Largest part of small intestines

A

ileum

153
Q

Smallest part of small intestines

A

duodenum

154
Q

The ____ is the fan shaped folds of perioteneum that suspends jejunum and ileum from posterior abdominal wall.

A

messentery proper

155
Q

_____ is a layer of fat that covers most of the abdominal organs.

A

Greater omentum

156
Q

____ produces bile to emulsify fats.

A

liver

157
Q

____ stores bile.

A

gallbladder

158
Q

The _____ extends horizontally across the posterior abdominal wall (behind the stomach).

A

pancreas

159
Q

The ____ secretes pancreatic juices for digestion and hormones to aide in endocrine function.

A

pancreas

160
Q

The ____ lies next to sacrum and follows its curvature past the coccyx.

A

rectum

161
Q

The ____ forms the last 2.5 - 4 cm of large intestines.

A

anal canal

162
Q

The ____ is the opening of the anal canal , contains the internal (________) and external (_______) sphincters.

A

anus
involuntary
voluntary

163
Q

The somatic cells contain ___ of chromosomes.

A

23 pairs = 46 chromosomes

164
Q

There are __ pairs of autosomes.

A

22

165
Q

____ contain genes that code for cellular functions as well as human characteristics (eye color, hair color, height).

A

autosomes

166
Q

Chromosomes that contain the same genes are _____.

A

homologous

167
Q

1 pair of _____ chromosomes. Girls are XX and boys are ____.

A

sex

XY

168
Q

Within each pair of chromosomes their is one chromosome from the ____ and 1 chromosome from the _____.

A

mother and father

169
Q

Somatic cells replicate and divide through _____.

A

mitosis

170
Q

____ cells have 23 pairs of chromosomes.

A

diploid cells

171
Q

Phases of mitosis

A
interphase
prophase
metaphase
anaphase
telophase
2 identical daughter cells
172
Q

Two nuclei reform poles

A

telophase

173
Q

chromosomes align with their centromeres on the equator and attach to the spindle

A

metaphase

174
Q

chromatids of each chromosome separate into daughter chromosomes and move to opposite poles

A

anaphase

175
Q

dna replication

A

interphase

176
Q

Sex cells replicate and divide through ____

A

meiosis

177
Q

___ divides teh cells only once.

A

mitosis

178
Q

___ divides teh cells twice.

A

meiosis

179
Q

_____ produces 2 daughter cells that are genetically identical.

A

mitosis

180
Q

_____ produces 4 daughter cells that are genetically different.

A

meiosis

181
Q

_____ produces daughter cells that are diploid.

A

mitosis

182
Q

_____ produces daughter cells that are haploid (contains 23 chromosomes)

A

meiosis

183
Q

____ includes a process called crossing over where genetic material is exchanged between homologous chromosomes.

A

meiosis

184
Q

In ___ the nucleus dissolves and replicated DNA condenses.

A

prophase

185
Q

Chromosomes form a double line on either side of the equator instead of lining up on the equator in ____ during metaphase

A

meiosis

186
Q

_____ is the random alignment of homologous chromosomes.

A

independent assortment

187
Q

____ of meiosis II does not contain crossing over.

A

prophase

188
Q

____ sister chromatids separated.

A

anaphase

189
Q

_____ is the maturation of primary oocyte to a secondary oocyte.

A

oogenesis

190
Q

Of the four daughter cells produced, only ___ fully matures.

A

one

191
Q

______ production of sperm.

A

spermatogenesis

192
Q

_____ is the transmission of genetic characteristics from parent to child.

A

heredity

193
Q

_____ are discrete units of DNA that provide the instructions for the production of specific proteins.

A

genes

194
Q

___ is the location of the gene on a strand of DNA

A

locus

195
Q

____ are variants of one gene (you inherit a combination of two from your parents)

A

alleles

196
Q

____ alleles are expressed while recessive alleles are masked.

A

dominant

197
Q

____ alleles are only expressed if present on both homologous chromosomes.

A

recessive

198
Q

If alleles are identical the individual is said to be ______.

A

homozygous

199
Q

If alleles are not identical (a person contains both a dominant and a recessive allele for the same gene) the individual is said to be _____.

A

heterozygous

200
Q

_____ is the box used to sort out the inheritance patterns.

A

punnet squares

201
Q

If either the father of mother contains both dominant alleles there is a ____% chance the children will have brown eyes.

A

100%

202
Q

______ is the genetic make up of an individual.

A

genotype

203
Q

_____ is the physical expression of the genotype.

A

pheontype

204
Q

______ is when the dominant allele is always expressed in the phenotype, regardless of whether the individual is homozygous or heterozygous for that trait. Not all inherited traits follow this simple pattern but instead involve the interaction of multiple genes

A

strict dominant recessive inheritance

205
Q

_____ is when the phenotype of heterozygous alleles is intermediate between the homozygous dominant or recessive allele

A

incomplete dominance

206
Q

_____ is when two or more alleles appear to be equally dominant.

A

codominant

207
Q

______ is when a ~ phenotype of heterozygous alleles is intermediate between the homozygous dominant or recessive allele. It can have three phenotypes.

A

incomplete dominance
homozygous dominant
homozygous recessive
heterozygous

208
Q

Sickle cell is an ____ dominant trait.

A

incomplete

209
Q

Normal hemoglobin is represented by ____. Abnormal hemoglobin is represented by ___.

A
A
a
AA - normal erythrocytes
Aa - sickle cell carrier
aa - exhibit sickle cell anemia
210
Q

____ is when two or more alleles appear to be equally dominant.

A

codominant

211
Q

Blood types A and B are ____.

A

codominant

212
Q

Blood type O is ____.

A

recessive

213
Q

______ is when multiple genes interact to produce a phenotypic trait. Genes could be on same chromosome or on different chromosomes.

A

polygenic inheritance

214
Q

_____ traits are expressed by genes on the X or Y chromosomes.

A

sex linked

215
Q

X chromosomes contain ____ genes, most not involved in sex determination.

A

900-1400

216
Q

Y chromosome contains ____ genes, most code for male specific development.

A

70-200

217
Q

____ recessive traits always expressed in males, only expressed by females if recessive allele found on both X chromosomes. Females tend to be carriers if they have only one recessive allele.

A

x linked

218
Q

sex linked trait punnet square

A

??

219
Q

The environment can influence genetic traits, especially during _____ and _____ development.

A

embryonic and fetal

220
Q

Radiation, drugs, virsuses or alcohol and potential cause harm to the fetus and interfere with its normal _____.

A

phenotypic development

221
Q

______ is characterized by mental retardation and distinctive facial features.

A

fetal alcohol syndrome

222
Q

Poor nutrition may also affect brain development and _____ after birth.

A

growth patterns.