Chapter 18 Flashcards

1
Q

Within our bodies is a connective tissue, ________, so valuable that donating a portion of it to someone else can save that person’s life.

A

blood

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2
Q

____ is regenerated continuously and is responsible for transporting the gases, nutrients, and hormones our bodies need for proper functioning.

A

blood

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3
Q

Blood is considered a ____ because it contains formed elements (red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets) and dissolved proteins in a liquid ground substance called ____.

A

fluid connective tissue

plasma

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4
Q

__ to ___ liters of this blood is continuously pumped through our blood vessels.

A

4 to 6 liters

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5
Q

Blood is the specialized fluid that is transported through the ______, which is composed of the heart and blood vessels.

A

cardiovascular system

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6
Q

Blood vessels form a circuit away from the heart and back to the heart that includes arteries, ____, and veins.

A

capillaries

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7
Q

_____ transport blood away from the heart, whereas ____ transport blood toward the heart.

A

arteries

veins

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8
Q

____ are permeable, microscopic vessels between arteries and veins. They serve as the sites of exchange between the _____ and ___.

A

capillaries

blood and body tissues

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9
Q

It is from our capillaries that oxygen and nutrients ___ the blood, and carbon dioxide and cellular wastes ___ the blood.

A

exit

enter

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10
Q

Blood is composed of ____ and plasma.

A

formed elements

leukocytes, erythrocytes and platelets

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11
Q

___ function to transport respiratory gases in the blood.

A

Erythrocytes (red blood cells)

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12
Q

____ contribute to defending the body against pathogens.

A

Leukocytes (white blood cells)

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13
Q

____ help clot the blood and prevent blood loss from damaged vessels.

A

Platelets

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14
Q

_____ is the fluid portion of blood containing plasma proteins and dissolved solutes.

A

plasma

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15
Q

The three functions of blood.

A

transportation
regulation
protection

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16
Q

Blood transports formed elements and dissolved molecules and ____ throughout the body.

A

ions

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17
Q

The ____ that serves as the “delivery system” for the body.

A

blood

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18
Q

Blood vessels carry oxygen from and carbon dioxide to the lungs, nutrients absorbed from the GI tract, hormones released by ______, and heat and waste products from the _____.

A

endocrine glands

systemic cells

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19
Q

Even when you take a medication, the ____ delivers it to the cells in the body.

A

blood

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20
Q

Blood participates in the regulation of body temperature, body pH, and ____.

A

fluid balance

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21
Q

Blood helps regulation body temperature. This is possible because blood absorbs ____ from body cells, especially skeletal muscle, as it passes through blood vessels of body tissues. ______ is then released from blood at the body surface as blood is transported through blood vessels of the ____.

A

heat
heat
skin

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22
Q

Blood, because it absorbs acid and base from ____, helps maintain the pH of cells. Blood contains chemical ____ that bind and release hydrogen ions to maintain blood pH until the excess is eliminated from the body.

A

body cells

buffers

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23
Q

Water is added to the blood from the ____ and lost in numerous ways (urine, sweat, and respired air). There is a constant exchange of fluid between the blood plasma in the capillaries and the interstitial fluid surround the cells of the body’s tissues.

A

gastrointestinal tract

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24
Q

Blood contains proteins and ions that exert _____ to pull fluid back into the capillaries to help maintain normal fluid balance.

A

osmotic pressure

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25
Q

Blood contains leukocytes, plasma proteins and various molecules that help ___ the body against potentially harmful substances.

A

protect

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26
Q

Components of blood, including platelets and plasma proteins, also protect the body against _____.

A

blood loss

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27
Q

Physical characteristics of blood (6)

A
color
volume
viscosity
plasma concentration
temperature
blood pH
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28
Q

The ____ of blood depends upon whether it is oxygen-rich or oxygen-poor.

A

color

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29
Q

Oxygen-rich blood is _____ or almost ____.

A

bright red or almost scarlet

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30
Q

Oxygen-poor blood is not blue, rather, a ____.

A

dark red.

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31
Q

The bluish appearance of our veins can be attributed to both the fact that we can see the blood traveling through the _____ veins in the skin and how ___ is reflected back to the eye from different colors. Lower-energy light wavelengths, like red, are absorbed by the skin and not reflected back tot eh eye, but higher energy wavelengths like blue are reflected back.

A

superficial

light

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32
Q

The average volume of blood in an adult is ___ liters (L).

A

5

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33
Q

Males tend to have, on average blood volume, ___ to ___ liters (L). The greater amount of blood in males is due to their larger average size.

A

5 to 6

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34
Q

Females tend to have, on average blood volume, ___ to ___ liters (L).

A

4 to 5

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35
Q

Sustaining a normal blood volume is essential in maintaining ____.

A

blood pressure

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36
Q

Blood is about __ to ___ times more viscous than water, meaning is is thicker.

A

4 to 5

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37
Q

Viscosity of blood depends upon the amount of _____ in the blood relative to the amount of fluid.

A

dissolved substances

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38
Q

Viscosity is increased if the amount of substances - primarily _____ - increases, or the amount of fluid decreases or both.

A

erythrocytes

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39
Q

_____ is the relative concentration of solutes in plasma.

A

plasma concentration

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40
Q

The plasma concentration is normally a ___ % concentration, and it determines whether fluids move into or out of the plasma by ____ as blood is transported through capillaries.

A

0.09%

osmosis

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41
Q

The plasma concentration is used to determine _____ concentrations, which are usually isotonic to plasma.

A

intravenous plasma concentrations (IV)

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42
Q

If an individual is dehydrated, the plasma becomes ____, and fluid moves into the plasma from the surrounding tissues.

A

hypertonic

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43
Q

The temperature of blood is about ___C higher than measured body temperature.

A

1 degree C

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44
Q

Body temperature is 37C (98.6F), your blood temp is about ____C ( F), therefore blood warms areas through which it travels.

A

38C

100.4F

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45
Q

Blood plasma is slightly ____, with a pH between ____ and ____.

A

alkaline

7.35 and 7.45

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46
Q

Plasma proteins, like all proteins of the body have a three dimensional shape that is dependent upon ___ concentration.

A

H+

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47
Q

if the pH is altered from the normal range, plasma proteins become ____ and are unable to carry out their functions.

A

denatured

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48
Q

_____ is both plasma and formed elements, can be separated into its liquid and cellular components by using a _____.

A

whole blood

centrifuge

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49
Q

A device that spins the sample of blood in a tube so that heavier components collect at the bottom is called a _____.

A

centrifuge

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50
Q

When using a centrifuge blood separates into three components. Name them from the superior part of the test tube to the inferior portion.

A

Plasma
buffy coat
Erythrocytes

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51
Q

____ form the lower layer of the centrifuged blood. They typically make up about ____ of a blood sample.

A

Erythrocytes

44%

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52
Q

A thin ___ makes up the middle layer of centrifuged whole blood. It is a slightly gray-white layer composed of both ___ and _____. This makes up less than ___ of a blood sample.

A

buffy coat
leukocytes and platelets
1%

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53
Q

Plasma is a straw-colored liquid that rises to the top in the test tube and makes up about ___ of blood.

A

55%

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54
Q

The percentage of the volume of all formed elements in the blood is called the ______.

A

hematocrit

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55
Q

Hematocrit values vary somewhat and are dependent upon the ____ and ____ of the individual.

A

age and sex

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56
Q

A very young child’s hematocrit may vary from ___ to ___, and that range will narrow to ___ to ___ as the child becomes older.

A

30% to 60%

35% to 50%

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57
Q

Adult males tend to have a hematocrits ranging between ___% and ___%, whereas adult females hematocrits range from ___% to ___%.

A

42% to 56%

38% to 46%

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58
Q

Males typically have a higher hematocrit because _______ stimulates the kidney to produce the hormone erythropoietin (EPO) which promotes erythrocyte production.

A

testosterone

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59
Q

An elevated hematocrit may indicate that the patient is either ____ or participating in _____, whereas a lowered hematocrit often suggest the patient is suffering from anemia.

A

dehydrated

blood doping

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60
Q

All of the components of the formed elements can be viewed by preparing a ____.

A

blood smear

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61
Q

Not only does the blood contain buffers to help maintain the body’s pH, but the ____ system and ___ system also help to maintain pH.

A

urinary system

respiratory system

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62
Q

___ are the most numerous of the formed elements.

A

Erythrocytes

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63
Q

These are anucleate cells and appear as pink or pale purple, bioconcave discs.

A

erythrocytes

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64
Q

Leukocytes are larger than _____.

A

erythrocytes

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65
Q

The nucleus is very noticeable in ____.

A

leukocytes

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66
Q

Platelets appear as small _____ of cells.

A

fragments

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67
Q

Plasma is composed primarily of water, about ___% of its volume), plasma proteins, and other solutes including electrolytes, nutrients, respiratory gases, and wastes.

A

92%

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68
Q

Plasma is an ____ because it is fluid found outside of cells.

A

extracellular fluid (ECF)

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69
Q

Plasma is similar to interstitial fluid, in that both have similar concentrations of electrolytes, nutrients and waste products. however of the most significant differences is that _____ is higher in plasma than in the interstitial fluid.

A

protein concentration

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70
Q

Blood is considered a ___ because it contains proteins in the plasma.

A

colloid

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71
Q

Plasma proteins include albumin, globulins, ____ and other clotting proteins, and regulatory proteins such as enzymes and some _____.

A

fibrinogen

hormones

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72
Q

____, alpha and beta globulins, and both fibrinogen and other proteins involved in clotting are produced in the ___.

A

albumin

liver

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73
Q

Plasma proteins such as ____-globulins and regulatory proteins, are produced by _____ and other organs, respectively.

A

gamma

leukocytes

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74
Q

Collectively, these plasma proteins exert osmotic pressure and present the loss of fluid from the blood as it moves through the _____.

A

capillaries

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75
Q

Osmotic pressure exerted by plasma proteins is called _____.

A

colloid osmotic pressure

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76
Q

The ____ is responsible for drawing fluids into the blood and preventing excess fluid loss from blood capillaries into the ICF, thus helping to maintain blood volume and consequently _____.

A

osmotic pressure

blood pressure

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77
Q

If plasma protein levels _____, such as might occur due to liver disease (resulting in decreased production of ______) or kidney damage (resulting in increased elimination of plasma proteins, colloid osmotic pressure also ____. This decrease results in fluid loss from the blood and fluid retention in the interstitial space.

A

decrease
plasma proteins
decreases

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78
Q

____ are the smallest and most abundant of the plasma proteins, making up approximately ____ of plasma proteins.

A

Albumins

58%

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79
Q

Because albumin is the most abundant type of plasma protein, it exerts the greatest _____ to maintain blood volume and blood pressure.

A

colloid osmotic pressure

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80
Q

Albumins act as transport proteins that carry ions, hormones, and some ____ in the blood.

A

lipids

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81
Q

_____ are the second largest group of plasma proteins, forming about ___% of all plasma proteins.

A

Globulins

37%

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82
Q

The smaller ____ and the larger ____ primarily bind and transport certain water-insoluble molecules and hormones, some metal, and ions.

A

alpha-globulins

beta-globulins

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83
Q

____ are also called immunoglobulins, or ____, which play a part in the body’s defenses.

A

Gamma-globulins

antibodies

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84
Q

_____ makes up about 4% of all plasma proteins.

A

Fibrinogen

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85
Q

Fibrinogen as well as other clotting proteins are responsible for ____ formation.

A

blood clot

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86
Q

Following trauma to the walls of blood vessels, fibrinogen is converted into long, insoluble strands of fibrin, which help form a _____.

A

blood clot

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87
Q

When the clotting proteins are removed from plasma, the remaining fluid is termed _____.

A

serum

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88
Q

____ proteins form a very minor class of plasma proteins (less than 1% of total plasma proteins).

A

regulatory

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89
Q

Regulatory proteins include both ____ to accelerate chemical reactions in the blood and ______ being transported throughout the body to target cells.

A

enzymes

hormones

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90
Q

Blood is also considered a ____ because it contains dissolved ions as well as organic and inorganic molecules

A

solution

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91
Q

The organic and inorganic molecules in the blood include ___, nutrients, gases, and waste products.

A

electroylytes

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92
Q

Common molecules found in blood plasma.

A

glucose
amino acids
lactate
lipids

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93
Q

Electrolytes in arterial plasma

A
sodium
potassium
calcium
hydrogen
chloride
bicarbonate
phosphate
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94
Q

normal ranges for sodium in arterial plasma

A

35-145 milliequivalents per liter

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95
Q

normal ranges of potassium in arterial plasma

A

3.5-5.0 mEq/L

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96
Q

normal ranges of calcium in arterial plasma

A

8.4 - 10.2 mg/dL

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97
Q

normal ranges of hydrogen in arterial plasma

A

pH 7.35-7.45

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98
Q

normal ranges of chloride in arterial plasma

A

96-106 mEq/L

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99
Q

normal ranges of bicarbonate in arterial plasma

A

23.1 - 26.7 mEq/L

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100
Q

normal ranges of phosphate in arterial plasma

A

2.5-4.1 mEq/L

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101
Q

function of sodium in arterial plasma

A

neuron and muscle function; fluid balance; contransporter

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102
Q

function of potassium in arterial plasma

A

neuron and muscle function

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103
Q

function of calcium in arterial plasma

A

hardens bone, release of neurotransmitter, muscle contraction, blood clotting, second messenger

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104
Q

function of hydrogen in arterial plasma

A

pH Balance

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105
Q

normal range of glucose in blood plasma

A

fasting 70 -100 mg/dL; 2 hours after a meal :

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106
Q

normal range of lactate

A

4.5 - 14.4 mg/dL

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107
Q

normal range of cholesterol

A

100 - 200 mg/dL

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108
Q

normal range of HDL

A

40-80 mg/dL

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109
Q

normal range of VLDL/LDL

A

10-100 mg/dL

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110
Q

normal range of Triglycerides

A

30-149 mg/dL

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111
Q

normal range of phopholipids

A

6-12 mg/dL

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112
Q

function of chloride in arterial plasma

A

anion bound to sodium; component of gastric acid (HCl); chloride shift

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113
Q

function of bicarbonate in blood plasma

A

pH balance

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114
Q

function of phosphate in blood plasma

A

binds with calcium and deposited in bone

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115
Q

fuel molecule for cellular respiration (primary energy source for nervous tissue); tightly regulated by a number of hormones, including insulin and glucagon

A

glucose found in blood plasma

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116
Q

monomers for synthesizing protein; also regulated by some of the same hormones as glucose

A

amino acids in blood plasma

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117
Q

by product of glycolysis

A

lactate

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118
Q

molecules that generally do not dissolve in water

A

lipids

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119
Q

plasma membrane component; synthesis of steroid hormones; bile salts

A

cholesterol

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120
Q

transport lipids to the liver

A

HDL

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121
Q

transport lipids from the liver

A

VLDL/LDL

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122
Q

fuel molecules

A

triglycerides

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123
Q

molecules that form plasma membrane bilayer

A

phospholipids

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124
Q

Formed elements have a relatively short life span; new ones are continually produced by the process of _____, also called _______.

A

hemopoiesis, hematopoiesis

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125
Q

The red bone marrow (____ tissue) is responsible for hemopoiesis.

A

myeloid

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126
Q

Hemopoiesis occurs in most bones in young children, but as an individual reaches adulthood, hemopoiesis is _____to selected bones primarily in the axial skeleton.

A

restricted

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127
Q

The process of hemopoiesis starts with hemopoietic stem cells called _____.

A

hemocytoblasts

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128
Q

Hemocytoblasts are considered ___ cells, meaning that they can differentiate and develop into many different kinds of cells.

A

pluripotent

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129
Q

Hemocytoblasts produce two different lines for blood cell development: 1) the ___ line forms erythrocytes, all leukocytes except lympohcytes, and megakaryoctes. 2) the ____ line forms only lymphocytes.

A

myeloid

lymphoid

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130
Q

The maturation and division of hemopoietic stem cells is influenced by ________, or colony-forming units (CFUs).

A

colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)

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131
Q

CSFs or CFUs are molecules that are all growth factors, except for _____, which is a hormone.

A

erythropoietin

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132
Q

Erythocytes make up more than ____% of formed elements with a concentration between 4.2 and 6.2 million per cubic millimeter.

A

99%

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133
Q

The process of erythrocyte production is called ______.

A

erythropoiesis

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134
Q

Normally, erythrocytes are produced at the rate of about _____ per second.

A

3 million

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135
Q

The hormone erythropoietin (EPO) controls the rate of production by _____ the rate of erythorocytes formation.

A

increasing

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136
Q

Dietary requirements for normal erythropoiesis include iron, ____, and amino acids.

A

vitamin b

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137
Q

The process of erythropoiesis begins with a ______, which under the influence of multi-CSF forms a progenitor cell.

A

myeloid stem cell

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138
Q

The progenitor cell forms a _______, which is a large, nucleated cell.

A

proerythroblast

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139
Q

The proerythroblast becomes an ____, which is a slightly smaller cell that is producing hemoglobin in its cytosol.

A

erythroblast

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140
Q

The next stage of erythropoiesis is called a ____, is a still smaller cell with more hemoglobin the cytosol; its nucleus has been ejected.

A

normoblast

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141
Q

A cell called a ______ eventually is formed which has lost all organelles except some ribosomes, so it can continue to produce hemoglobin (through protein synthesis).

A

reticulocyte

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142
Q

The transformation from myeloid stem cell to reticulocyte takes about ___ days.

A

5 days

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143
Q

Some reticulocytes finish maturation while circulating in blood vessels and in normal circumstances, make up 0.5 - 2% of the ______.

A

circulating blood.

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144
Q

One to two days after entering the circulation, the reticulocyte degenerate, and the reticulocyte becomes a ______.

A

mature erythrocyte

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145
Q

Without a nucleus and cellular organelles, the mature erythrocyte is essentially a plasma membrane “bag” containing ____.

A

hemoglobin

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146
Q

Leukocytes make up less than _____ of formed elements with a concentration between 4500 and 11,000 per cubic meter.

A

0.01%

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147
Q

The production of leukocytes is called ______.

A

leukopoiesis

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148
Q

Leukopoiesis involves three different types of maturation processes: granulocyte maturation, monocyte maturation, and _____ maturation

A

lymphocyte

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149
Q

All three types of granulocytes (_____, _____, _____) are derived from a myeloid stem cell.

A

neutrophils
basophils
eosinophils

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150
Q

A myeloid stem cell is stimulated by multi-CSF and GM-CSF to form a ____ cell.

A

progenitor

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151
Q

The granulocyte line develops when the progenitor cell forms a _____ under the influence of G-CSF.

A

myeloblast

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152
Q

The myeloblast ultimately differentiates into one of the three types of ____.

A

granulocytes

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153
Q

Like granulocytes, monocytes are also derived from a _____.

A

myeloid stem cell

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154
Q

The myeloid stem cell differentiates into a ____ cell and under the influence of M-CSF this cell forms a _____. This is the monocyte line.

A

progenitor cell

monoblasts

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155
Q

Eventually, the monoblast forms a promonocyte that differentiates and matures into a _____.

A

monocyte

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156
Q

Lymphocytes are derived from a lymphoid stem cell through the _______.

A

lymphoid line

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157
Q

The lymphoid stem cell differentiates into ______ and _______.

A

B-lymphoblasts

T-lymphoblasts

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158
Q

B-lymphoblasts mature into B-lymphocytes, whereas T-lymphoblasts mature into _______.

A

T-lymphocytes

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159
Q

Some lymphoid stem cells differentiate directly into a natural killer (_____) cells.

A

NK

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160
Q

Platelets are also called ___.

A

thrombocytes

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161
Q

Thrombocytes make up less than ___% of formed elements with a concentration between 150,000 and 400,000 per cubic millimeter.

A

1%

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162
Q

The production of platelets is called _____.

A

thrombopoiesis

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163
Q

During thrombopoiesis, the myeloid stem cell, a committed cell called a ______ is produced.

A

megakaryoblast

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164
Q

Megakaryoblasts matures under the influence of thrombopoietin to form a _______.

A

megakaryocyte

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165
Q

Megakaryocytes are easily distinguished both by their large size and their ____, _____ nucleus. Each megakaryocyte then produces _____ of thrombocytes.

A

dense, multilobed

thousands

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166
Q

The process of how megakaryoctes produce thrombocytes was in question until 2007. Researchers reported that megakaryoctes produce _____ from themselves called proplatelets. While still attached to the megakaryoctye, these proplatelets extreough the blood vessel wall in the ____. The force from the blood flow “___” these proplatelets into the fragments we know as platelets (thrombocytes)

A

long extension
red bone marrow
slices

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167
Q

____ are very small, flexible cells, with a diameter of approximately 7.5 um.

A

erythrocytes

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168
Q

Although, erythrocytes are commonly referred to as red blood cells or RBCs, the term “red blood cell” is a misnomer because a mature erythrocyte lacks a ____ and ____.

A

nucleus and cellular organelles

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169
Q

A more appropriate name for red blood cells is a _____.

A

formed element

170
Q

An erythrocyte has a unique _____ structure.

A

bioconcave disc

171
Q

Erythrocytes are composed of a plasma membrane within which are house about ___ million hemoglobin molecules.

A

280 million

172
Q

_____ transport oxygen and carbon dioxide between the tissues and the lungs.

A

erythrocytes

173
Q

The fact that erythrocytes lack a nucleus and organelles enables them to carry ____ more efficiently.

A

respiratory gases

174
Q

The bioconcave shape and flexibility of erythrocytes allow them to stack and line up in single file, termed a ____, as they pass through capillaries.

A

rouleau

175
Q

A latticework of spectrin protein supports the plasma membrane of the erythrocyte on its internal surface and provides _____ to the erythrocyte as it moves through the capillaries.

A

flexibility

176
Q

_____ is a red-pigmented protein that transports oxygen and carbon dioxide.

A

hemoglobin

177
Q

When blood is maximally loaded with oxygen, it is termed _____ and appears ____.

A

oxygenated

bright red

178
Q

When some oxygen is lost and carbon dioxide is gained during systemic cellular gas exchange, blood is called _____ and appears _____.

A

deoxygenated and appears dark red

179
Q

Each hemoglobin molecule consists of four protein molecules called ____.

A

globins

180
Q

Two of these globins are called _____ and the other two, which are slightly different, are called _____.

A

alpha chains

beta chains

181
Q

All globin chains contain a ___ group, which is composed of a porphyrin (organic compound) ring, with an _____ in its center.

A

heme group

iron ion

182
Q

Oxygen binds to the _____ in heme groups for transport in the blood.

A

Iron

183
Q

Because each molecule of hemoglobin has four heme groups, it has ___ iron and is capable of binding ____ molecules of oxygen.

A

4

4

184
Q

The oxygen binding is fairly weak; this allows rapid attachment of oxygen with hemoglobin when erythrocytes pas through the _____ of the lungs, and _____ when erythrocytes pass through the systemic capillaries of body tissues.

A

blood capillaries

rapid detachment

185
Q

Carbon dioxide and the globin molecule (not ___) have a similar weak attachment relationship for the transport of _____ molecules.

A

not Fe+

carbon dioxide

186
Q

Carbon dioxide binds to the globin protein molecule as blood moves through ___ capillaries and is released as blood moves through the capillaries of the lungs.

A

systemic

187
Q

Erythropoiesis is controlled by the hormone _____.

A

erythropoietin (EPO)

188
Q

The kidneys are the primary produces of EPO, although the liver also secretes a small amount of _____ as well.

A

erythropoietin (EPO)

189
Q

The EPO is released due to the initial stimulus is a decrease in ______ levels. This decrease may be caused by the continuous removal of aged erythrocytes, blood loss, or ________.

A

blood oxygen

exposure to high altitudes

190
Q

_____ within the kidney detect low blood oxygen levels as the blood travels through blood vessels within the kidney. As a result, certain cells in the kidney release the hormone EPO into the ____.

A

chemoreceptors

blood

191
Q

EPO is transported through the blood and reaches the ______. There, EPO stimulates _____ in the red bone marrow to increase the rate of erythrocyte production. Additional erythrocytes are released into circulation ( a process that takes a ___), so more oxygen can be transported from the lungs and delivered to the cells. Blood oxygen levels ____ as a result. Increased oxygen levels inhibit release of EPO from kidney cells through negative feedback.

A

red bone marrow
myeloid cells
a few days
increase

192
Q

The ____ gland secretes small amounts of testosterone in ____, and the testes secrete large amounts of testosterone in males.

A

adrenal gland

both sexes

193
Q

Testosterone stimulates the ___ to produce more EPO. Because males have higher levels of testosterone, they also usually have a higher erythrocyte count and a higher ____.

A

kidneys

hematocrit

194
Q

Environmental factors such as ____, can affect EPO release and ultimately affect the hematocrit.

A

altitude

195
Q

The absence of both a nucleus and cellular organelles comes at a cost to the erythrocyte and affects its _____.

A

longevity

196
Q

A mature erythrocyte cannot synthesize proteins either to ____ itself or to _____ damaged membrane regions.

A

repair

replace

197
Q

______ and the wear-and-tear of circulation through blood vessels cause erythrocytes to become more fragile and less flexible.

A

aging

198
Q

The erythrocyte has a finite maximum life span of about ____ days. Every day, about __% of the oldest ciruculating erythrocytes are removed from circulation. These old erythrocytes are ______ in both the spleen and liver by cells called _____.

A

120 days
1%
phagocytized
macrophages

199
Q

Three molecular components must be accounted for in the destruction of hemoglobin: the globin protein, the iron ion, and the _____.

A

heme group

200
Q

When hemoglobin is deconstructed two of the components are processed for recycling; the other component is metabolically _____ and then excreted from the body.

A

altered

201
Q

______ are broken down into free amino acids, most of which are used by the body for protein synthesis to make new erythrocytes or other body proteins.

A

globin proteins

202
Q

The _____ component in hemoglobin is removed and transported by a globulin protein called ______ to the liver or spleen where the Iron then is bound to storage proteins called _____ and _____.

A

iron
transferrin
ferritin
hemosiderin

203
Q

_______ is a large water-soluble protein that serves as the primary storage mechanism for iron.

A

Ferritin

204
Q

Iron is stored mainly in the ____ and ____, and it is transported by transferrin to the red bone marrow as needed for erythrocyte production.

A

liver and spleen

205
Q

Small amounts of iron, approximately 0.9 mg, are lost daily in sweat, urine, and ____. In females, additional iron is ___ in those who have a monthly menstrual flow.

A

feces

lost

206
Q

The heme group released from hemoglobin is converted within macrophages first into a green pigment called _____.

A

biliverdin

207
Q

____ is any condition in which either the percentage of erythrocytes is lower than normal or the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is reduced (such as may occur if the hemoglobin is abnormal).

A

anemia

208
Q

Biliverdin is eventually converted into a yellowish pigment called ____ which is transported by albumin to the liver.

A

bilirubin

209
Q

Bilibrubin is a component of a digestive secretion called ____, which is produced by the liver and released into the _____.

A

bile

small intestines

210
Q

Symptoms of anemia include lethargy, shortness of breath, pallor of the skin, and ______, fatigue, and heart palpitations.

A

mucous membranes

211
Q

Those suffering from anemia have a decreased oxygen delivery to body tissues and consequently, the ___ must work harder to supply oxygen to the body.

A

heart

212
Q

____ anemia is characterized by significantly decreased formation of both erthrocytes and hemoglobin. This condition results from defective red bone marrow, perhaps as a result of poisons, toxins, or radiation exposure.

A

aplastic

213
Q

______ anemia occurs when destruction of erthrocytes is more rapid than normal. It is usually due to a genetic defect, which results in the production of abnormal membrane proteins that make the erythrocyte plasma membrane very fragile.

A

congenital hemolytic anemia

214
Q

____ anemia is characterized by the presence of large number of immature, nucleated cells (calle erythroblasts and normoblasts) in the circulating blood. An accelerated pace of cell maturation causes immature cells to be present in the blood. These cells cannot function normally and thus anemia results.

A

Erythroblastic

215
Q

____ anemia results from heavy blood loss. The hemorrhage may be caused, for example, by chronic ulcers of by heavy or prolonged menstrual flow.

A

hemorrhagic

216
Q

____ anemia is a chronic progressive anemia of adults caused by failure of the body to absorb vitamin B12. This vitamin is found in fish and meat, so most individuals receive enough B12 in their diet, unless they are vegans or strict vegetarians.

A

pernicious

217
Q

A defect in the production of _____, a glycoprotein secreted by stomach lining cells to protect B12 in the stomach and enhance B12 absorption in the small intestine, leads to pernicious anemia. Individuals who have pernicious anemia due to defective intrinsic factor production must receive B12 intramuscular or subcutaneous injections, since they are unable to absorb oral B12.

A

intrinsic factor

218
Q

___ disease is an autosomal recessive anemia that occurs when a person inherits two copies of the sickle-cell gene. Erythrocytes become sickle-shaped at lower blood oxygen concentrations, making the unable to flow efficiently through the blood vessels to body tissues and more prone to destruction (called hemolysis).

A

Sickel - cell disease

219
Q

Most anemias are treated by letting the patient’s own ____ replace the erythrocytes.. This process may be facilitated through the use of pharmaceutical EPO. However, anemia is often a symptom of another disease or problem.

A

bone marrow

220
Q

A _____ is the transfer of blood or blood components from a donor to a recipient.

A

tranfusion

221
Q

The plasma membrane of an erythrocyte has numerous molecules called ____ or ______ which project from the surface.

A

surface antigens or agglutinogens

222
Q

Surface antigens have significant implications for blood transfusion, and some cases, ____.

A

pregnancy

223
Q

There are two groups of surface antigens that determine a person’s blood type: ___ blood group and the ___ protein.

A

ABO blood group and the Rh protein

224
Q

The best known antigens are those that form the ___ blood group.

A

ABO

225
Q

The ABO blood group consists of two surface antigens, which are glycoproteins called ___ and ____.

A

A and B

226
Q

The presence of absence of the A antigen, the B antigen, or both is the criterion that determines your ______.

A

ABO blood type

227
Q

Type A blood has erythrocytes with surface antigen ____ only.

A

A

228
Q

Type B blood has erythrocytes with surface antigen ___ only.

A

B

229
Q

Type AB blood has erythrocytes with surface antigen ____.

A

A and B

230
Q

Type O blood has erythrocytes with _____ surface antigen A or B.

A

neither

231
Q

The ABO surface antigens on erythrocytes are accompanied by specific ____ or ____ within the blood plasma.

A

antibodies or agglutinins

232
Q

In general, an antibody is a ___ shaped protein that binds to a specific antigen that is perceived as foreign to the body.

A

Y shaped

233
Q

The ABO blood group has both ____ and ____ antibodies that react with the surface antigen A and the surface antigen B, respectively.

A

anti-A and anti-B

234
Q

Type A blood has ___ antibodies within its plasma.

A

anti-B

235
Q

Type B blood has ____ antibodies within its plasma.

A

anti-A

236
Q

Type AB blood has ___ antibodies within its plasma.

A

neither anti-B and anti-A

237
Q

Type O blood has ___ antibodies within its plasma.

A

both anti-B and anti-A

238
Q

Another common surface antigen on erythrocyte plasma membranes determines the ___ blood type.

A

Rh

239
Q

The Rh blood type is determined by the presence or absence of the Rh surface antigen, often called either Rh factor or _______.

A

surface antigen D

240
Q

When the Rh factor is present, the individual is said to be ____. When an individual is termed ____ when the surface antigen is lacking.

A

Rh positive Rh+

Rh negative Rh-

241
Q

Antibodies to the Rh factor (termed ____) appear in the blood only when an Rh negative individual is exposed to Rh positive blood. This most often occurs as a result of an inappropriate blood transfusion.

A

anti-D antibodies

242
Q

Individuals who are Rh positive never exhibit anti-D antibodies, because they possess the Rh antigen on their ____.

A

erythrocyes

243
Q

Only individuals who are ____ can exhibit anti-D antibodies, and that can occur only after ____ to Rh antigens.

A

anti-D antibodies

exposure

244
Q

The ____ and ___ blood types are independent of each other, and neither of them interacts with or influences the presence or activities of the other group.

A

Rh and ABO

245
Q

Blood types become clinically important when a patient needs a blood ___.

A

transfusion

246
Q

Compatibility between donor and recipient must be ascertained prior to blood transfusions. If a person is transfused with blood of an incompatible types, ___ in the plasma bind to surface antigens of the transfused erythrocytes and clumps of erythrocytes bind together in a process termed ______.

A

antibodies

agglutination

247
Q

Agglutination causes clumped erythrocytes which can block blood vessels and prevent ____.

A

normal circulation of blood

248
Q

Eventually, some or all of the clumped erythrocytes may rupture, a process called ____. The release of erythrocyte contents and fragments into the blood often causes further hemolytic reactions and ultimately may damage _____. Therefore, compatibility between donor and recipient mus be determined prior to blood donations and transfusions using an agglutination test.

A

hemolysis

organs

249
Q

Universal donor

A

O-

250
Q

Universal recipient

A

AB+

251
Q

The potential presence of anti-D antibodies is especially important in pregnant women who are _____ and have an ___ fetus.

A

Rh-

Rh+

252
Q

An Rh incompatibility may result during pregnancy if the mother has been previously exposed to Rh positive blood. As a result of the prior exposure, the mother has anti-D antibodies that may cross the placenta and ____ the fetal erythrocytes, resulting in severe illness or death.

A

destroy

253
Q

The illness that occurs in the newborn due to Rh incompatibility is called ____ or erythroblastosis fetalis.

A

hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)

254
Q

Leukocytes help defend the body against ___.

A

pathogens

255
Q

Leukocytes differ from erythrocytes in that they are about __ to ___ times larger in diameter, contain a nucleus and cellular organelles and do not contain ___.

A

1.5 to 3

hemoglobin

256
Q

Leukocytes are ____ and remarkably flexible.

A

motile (capable of movement within interstitial fluid

257
Q

Most leukocytes are found within ___, as opposed to in the blood.

A

body tissues

258
Q

Leukocytes enter the tissues from blood vessels by a process called ____, whereby they squeeze between the endothelial cells of the blood vessel walls.

A

diapedesis

259
Q

____ is a process in which leukocytes are attracted to a site of infection by the presence of molecules released by damaged cells, dead cells, or invading pathogens.

A

chemotaxis

260
Q

The five types of leukocytes are divided into two distinguishable classes ___ and ___ based upon the visible presence or absence of secretory vesicles in the cytosol termed specific ____.

A

granulocytes and agranulocytes

granules

261
Q

Leukocytes with a nucleus that is multilobed ( as many as 5)

A

neutrophils

262
Q

The most abundant leukocyte is ___.

A

neutrophils

263
Q

Neutrophils ____ pathogens, especially bacteria.

A

phagocytize

264
Q

1% to 4% of total leukocytes is made up of ____.

A

Eosinophils

265
Q

Eosinophils have a ___ nucleus.

A

bilobed

266
Q

The cytosol of eosinophils have a ___ or ____ specific granules when stained.

A

reddish or pink-orange

267
Q

These leukocytes phagocytize antigen-antibody complexes and allergens.

A

eosinophils

268
Q

These leukocytes release chemical mediators to destroy parasitic worms.

A

eosinophils

269
Q

These leukocytes release enzymes that target pathogens.

A

neutrophils

270
Q

Make up 50% - 70% of total leukocytes

A

neutrophils

271
Q

Basophils have a ___ nucleus and their cytosol contains ____ specific granules when stained.

A

bilobed

deep blue-violet

272
Q

These leukocytes release histamine (vasodilator and increases capillary permeability) and heparin (anticoagulant) during inflammatory reactions.

A

basophils

273
Q

These leukocytes make up 0.5% - 1% of total leukocytes.

A

basophils

274
Q

The three types of granulocytes.

A

neutrophils
eosinophils
basophils

275
Q

The two types of agranulocytes

A

lymphocytes

monocytes

276
Q

These leukocytes coordinate immune cell activity.

A

lymphocytes

277
Q

These leukocytes produce antibodies.

A

lymphocytes

278
Q

A lymphocytes nucleus is ___ or ___.

A

round or slightly indented

279
Q

A think rim of cytosol surrounds nucleus and the nucleus is usually stained dark in this leukocyte. Nucleus almost takes up the entire cell.

A

lymphocytes

280
Q

Monocytes have a ____ or ___ nucleus which generally stains pale.

A

kidney shaped or c shaped

281
Q

Monocytes have an ___ amount of cytosol around the nucleus.

A

abudnant

282
Q

These leukocytes attack pathogens and abnormal and infected cells.

A

lymphocytes

283
Q

These leukocytes exit blood vessels and become macrophages.

A

monocytes

284
Q

These leukocytes make up 20% to 40% of total leukocytes.

A

lymphocytes

285
Q

These leukocytes make up 2-8% of total leukocytes.

A

monocytes

286
Q

These leukocytes phagocytize pathogens, cellular fragments, dead cells, and debris.

A

monocytes

287
Q

____ have specific granules in their cytosol that are clearly visible when viewed with a microscope.

A

granulocytes

288
Q

Granulocytes get their names for the granules’ affinities for certain ____.

A

stains

289
Q

Neutrophils usually remain in circulation for about ___ to ___ hours before they exit the blood vessels and enter the tissue spaces, where they phagocytize infectious pathogens, especially ____.

A

10 to 12 hours

bacteria

290
Q

The number of neutrophils in a person’s blood rises dramatically in the presence of a chronic ____.

A

bacterial infection

291
Q

A neutrophil is about __ times larger in diameter than an erythrocyte.

A

1.5

292
Q

An eosinophil is about ___ times larger in diameter than an erythrocyte.

A

1.5

293
Q

Basophils are about ___ times larger than erythrocytes.

A

1.5

294
Q

The least numerous of the granulocytes.

A

basophils

295
Q

The primary components of basophil granules is ___ and ___.

A

histamine and heparin

296
Q

The release of heparin from basophils inhibits ____.

A

blood clotting

297
Q

Leukocytes in order of their relative abundance

A
Never Let Monkeys Eat Bananas
Neutrophils
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Eosinophils
Basophils
298
Q

____ are leukocytes that have such small specific granules in their cytosol that they are not clearly visible under the light microscope.

A

agranulocytes

299
Q

Most lymphocytes reside in __ organs and structures.

A

lymphatic organs

300
Q

A lymphocytes is usually about the same size as a ___.

A

erythrocytes

301
Q

When activated, lymphoctes grow ___ and have proportionally more cytosol.

A

larger

302
Q

Smaller, nonactivated lymphoctes have a diameter less than that of an erthrocytes, whereas activated lymphocytes may be ___ times the diameter of an erythrocytes.

A

2

303
Q

There are three categories of lymphocytes; ___ manage and direct an immune response; some directly attack foreign cells and virus-infected cells.

A

T-lymphocytes (t-cells)

304
Q

____ are stimulated to become plasma cells and produce antibodies.

A

B-lympocytes (b-cells)

305
Q

___ attack abnormal and infected tissue cells.

A

NK cells or natural killer cells

306
Q

A reduced number of leukocytes causes a serious disorder called ____.

A

leukopenia

307
Q

The decreased number of leukocytes may increase the risk of a person ____ an infection or decrease their ability to fight infection effectively.

A

developing

308
Q

____ results from a slightly elevated leukocyte count and may be caused by a variety of factors, such as a recent infection or stress.

A

leukocytosis

309
Q

The term, ____, or white blood cell differential count, measures the amount of each type of leukocyte in your blood and determines whether any of the circulating leukocytes are immature.

A

differential count

310
Q

Infection, tissue necrosis, bone marrow failure, cancers, or some other stresses to the body can affect the total ranges or percentages of a specific type of ____, so differential counts are useful for diagnosing ailments.

A

leukocytes

311
Q

Acute bacterial infections, acute stress, and tissue necrosis typically are associated with an increase in ____, called ____.

A

neutrophils

neutrophilia

312
Q

Increased presence of immature neutrophils is referred to as ____.

A

left-shifted differential

313
Q

Decreased neutrophil count, called ____, may occur with certain anemias, drug or raditon therapy, and from other causes.

A

neutropenia

314
Q

Leukemia is a malignancy (cancer) in the ____ forming cells.

A

leukocytes

315
Q

There are several categories of leukemia, but all are marked by abnormal development and proliferation of ____, both in the bone marrow and the circulating blood.

A

leukocytes

316
Q

____ leukemia progresses rapidly, and death typically occurs within a few months after the onset of symptoms. They tend to occur in children and young adults.

A

acute leukemia

317
Q

___ leukemia progresses more slowly; survival usually exceeds 1 years form the onset of symptoms. This form of leukemia usually occur in middle-aged and older individuals.

A

chronic

318
Q

Viral infections such as mumps, rubella, or mononucleosis, typically produce an increased number of ___.

A

lymphocytes

319
Q

Lymphoctes values can increase to ___ in extreme cases.

A

20,000

320
Q

Conditions that can cause lymphocytosis include chronic bacterial infections, some leukemias, multiple ____ (cancer of the plasma cells), which are derived from B-lymphocytes.

A

myeloma

321
Q

Decreased lymphocyte counts can occur with ____, other leukemias, and sepsis, which is the presence of a pathogenic organism or substance in the blood.

A

HIV infection

322
Q

Eosinophil numbers can increase in response to allergic reactions, parasitic infections, or some ___ diseases.

A

autoimmune

323
Q

Monocyte number may increase with chronic inflammatory disorders or _____, and may decrease due to prolonged prednisone drug therapy.

A

tuberculosis

324
Q

Basophil counts can increase due to myeloproliferative disorders which result from an overproduction of some formed elements in the bone marrow and can ____ due to acute allergic and stress reactions.

A

decrease

325
Q

______ are irregular-shaped, membrane-enclosed cellular fragments that are about 2 um in diameter (less than 1/4 the size of erythrocytes).

A

platelets or thrombocytes

326
Q

Thrombocytes are ___ fragments and unlike erthrocytes, they never had a nucleus.

A

cell

327
Q

The concentration of platelets in an adult ranges from ____ to about 400,000 per cubic millimeter of blood, although the count may rise further during times of stress.

A

150,000

328
Q

Platelets can circulate in the blood for ___ to ___ days, unless they are needed earlier for hemostasis. Thereafter, they are broken down, and their contents are recycled.

A

8 to 10 days

329
Q

____% of thrombocytes are stored in the spleen.

A

30%

330
Q

If there is damage to a blood vessel, hemostasis is initiated. Hemostasis is a stoppage of ___.

A

bleeding

331
Q

There are __ sequential phases of hemostasis; vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, and ______ phase.

A

three

coagulation

332
Q

When a blood vessel is injured, the first phase in hemostasis to occur is a _____, whereby the blood vessel constricts suddenly and in so doing, limits the amount of blood that can leak form this damaged vessel.

A

vascular spasm

333
Q

The vascular spasm continues during the next phase, as both platelets and the endothelial cells of the blood vessel wall release an array of ____ to further stimulate the vascular spasm.

A

chemicals

334
Q

The ____ usually lasts from a few to many minutes. The more extensive the vessel and tissue damage, the greater the degree of _____.

A

vascular spasm phase

vasoconstriction

335
Q

The second phase in hemostasis is the formation of a _____.

A

platelet plug

336
Q

Normally, the endothelial wall (inner lining of a blood vessel) is smooth and is coated with an eicosanoid called, _____ which activates a pathway in both platelets and endothelial cells that involves production of cAMP to ultimately inhibit platelet activation.

A

prostacyclin

337
Q

The end result is that prostacyclin serves as a platelet ____.

A

repellent

338
Q

Once a blood vessel is damaged, however, the collagen fibers within the connective tissue beneath the endothelial cells in the vessel wall become ____.

A

exposed

339
Q

Platelets adhere to the collagen fibers with the assistance of plasma protein called ______, which serves as a bridge between platelets and collagen fibers.

A

von Willlebrand factor

340
Q

As the platelets start to stick to the vessel wall, their morphology changes dramatically; they develop _________ that further adhere to the blood vessel wall.

A

long processes

341
Q

As more and more platelets aggregate to the site, a ____ develops to close off the injury.

A

platelet plug

342
Q

The platelet plug phage is less than a ____ minutes for a small to medium sized injury, but this is a temporary measure to block the flow of blood through the vessel where it is ____.

A

few minutes

damaged

343
Q

Platelets undergo this morphologic change and become activated: Their cytosol ____, releasing chemicals to assist with hemostasis.

A

degranulates

344
Q

Once the platelets release chemicals the following process occurs .

A

prolonged vascular spasms
attraction of other platelets
stimulation of coagulation
repair of the blood vessel

345
Q

Prologned vascular spasms with the release of _______ and thomboxane A2 (an eicosanoid) is a rxn to the release of chemicals by the platelets.

A

serotonin

346
Q

Attraction of other platelets with the release of adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and thomboxane A2, which facilitates the _____ and release of these chemicals in other platelets.

A

degranulation

347
Q

Stimulation of coagulation with the release of procoagulants that _____ blood clotting (the third phase) in rxn to platelets releasing chemicals.

A

enhance

348
Q

Repair of the blood vessel as platelets secrete substances to stimulate epithelial tissue, smooth muscle, and ______ to replicate result from the platelets undergoing a morphologic change.

A

fibroblasts (cells to of connective tissue)

349
Q

Platelets are not only involved in the second phase of platelet plug formation, but they also increase events of the ___ and ___ phases.

A

1st and 3rd phases

vascular spasms and stimulation of coagulation

350
Q

Through the release of specific substances, platelets increase all three processes of _____.

A

homostasis

351
Q

Decreased homeostasis becomes a concern in individuals with a low platelet count, known as _____.

A

thombrocytopenia

352
Q

The formation of the platelet plug is an example of positive feedback and typically is formed within ___ minuted.

A

1

353
Q

The healthy endothelial cells near the site of injury are still releasing their prostacyclin, so the plug ______.

A

does not grow to large

354
Q

The most important and complex component of hemostasis is ____ or blood clotting.

A

coagulation

355
Q

A blood clot has an insoluble protein network composed of ____, which is derived from soluble fibrinogen. This meshwork of protein traps other elements of the blood, including erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets, and plasma proteins, to form ___.

A

fibrin

the clot

356
Q

Blood coagulation is a process that requires numerous substances, including calcium, clotting factors, platelets, and ______.

A

vitamin K

357
Q

The clotting factor number are in order of their ____, and not their position in the clotting pathway.

A

discovery

358
Q

Most clotting factors are inactive enzymes, and most of these are produced by the _____.

A

liver

359
Q

The initiation of blood clotting can occur by two separate mechanisms: The intrinsic pathway (also known as the contact activation pathway) or the _____ pathway.

A

extrinsic (or tissue factor pathways)

360
Q

The ____ pathway is triggered b damage to the inside of the vessel wall and is initiated by _____.

A

intrinsic pathway

platelets

361
Q

The intrinsic pathway typically takes approximately ___ to ___ minutes.

A

3 to 6

362
Q

Steps of the intrinsic pathway

A
  1. platelets adhering to a damaged vessel wall release factor XII (Hageman factor)
  2. Factor XII converts the inactive factor XI to the active factor XI (Antihemophilic factor C)
  3. Factor XI converts inactive factor IX to active factor IX (Antihemophilic factor B (christmas factor)
  4. Factor IX binds with Ca2+ and platelet factor 3 to form a complex that converts inactive factor VIII to active factor VIII (Antimhemophilic factor A)
  5. Factor VIII converts inactive factor X to active factor X (thrombokinase)

Factor X, activated by either the intrinsic or extrinsic pathway, is the first step of the common pathway.

363
Q

Steps of the common pathway

A
  1. Active factor X (Thombokinase) combines with factors II (Prothrombin) and factor V (Proaccerlerin), Ca2+, and platelet factor 3 (PF3) to form prothrombin activator
  2. Prothrombin activator activates prothrombin to thrombin
  3. Thrombin converts soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin
  4. In the presence of Ca2+, factor XIII (Fibring-stablizing factor) cross-links and stabilizes teh fibrin monomers into a fibrin polymer that serves as the framework of the clot.
364
Q

The _____ pathway is initiated by damage to the tissue that is outside of the vessel, and this pathway usually takes approximately ___ seconds. This pathways occurs more quickly because there are fewer steps required.

A

extrinsic

15 seconds

365
Q

Steps of the extrinsic pathway

A
  1. Tissue factor (thomboplastin; Factor III) released from damaged tissues combines with factor VII and Ca2+ to form a complex
  2. This complex converts inactive factor X to active factor X
366
Q

Clotting Factor I

A

Fibrinogen
Activated to fibrin
Both pathways

367
Q

If Clotting Factor I is deficient

A

Afibrinogemia - during pregnancy can cause premature separation of placenta.

368
Q

Clotting Factor II

A

Prothrombin
Protease; activated to thrombin
Both pathways

369
Q

If Clotting Factor II is deficient

A

Hypoprothrombinemia - decreased syntehsis in liver generally due to insufficient vitamin K

370
Q

Clotting Factor III

A

Tissue factor ( thromboplastin)
cofactor; activates factor VII
extrinsic

371
Q

Clotting Factor IV

A

Calcium
Ion essential to both pathways
both pathways

372
Q

Clotting Factor V

A

Proaccelerin
Cofactor; activates factor VII; combines with factor X to form prothrombin activator
Both pathways

373
Q

Clotting Factor VI

A

Accelerin
Redundant to activated factor V
Both pathways

374
Q

If Clotting Factor V is deficient

A

Parahemophilia

375
Q

Clotting Factor VII

A

Proconvertin
Protease; activates factor X
Extrinsic

376
Q

If Clotting Factor VII is deficient

A

Hypoconvertinemia

377
Q

Clotting Factor VIII

A

Antihemophilic factor A
Cofactor; activates factor X
Intrinsic pathways

378
Q

If Clotting Factor VIII is deficient

A

Hemophilia A - classical hemophilia

379
Q

Clotting Factor IX

A

Antihemophilic factor B (Christmas factor)
Protease; activates factor VIII
Intrinsic Pathway

380
Q

If Clotting Factor IX deficient

A

Hemophilia B - Christmas disease

381
Q

Clotting Factor X

A

Thrombokinase
Protease; combines with factor V to form prothrombin activator
Both

382
Q

If Clotting Factor X deficient

A

Stuart-Power factor deficiency

383
Q

Clotting Factor XI

A

Antihemophilic factor C
Protease; activates factor IX
Intrinsic pathway

384
Q

If Clotting Factor XI deficient

A

Hemophilia C

385
Q

Clotting Factor XII

A

Hageman factor
protease; activates factor XI and plasmin; converts prekallikrein to kallikrein
Intrinsic pathway

386
Q

Clotting Factor XIII

A

Fibrin-stabilizing facotr
cross-links fibrin
both pathways

387
Q

_____ disorders can be caused by several different conditions including hemophilia, a vitamin k deficiency, thrombocytopenia, or intake of various drugs.

A

bleeding

388
Q

a group of bleeding disorders caused by specific genetic mutations.

A

hemophilia

389
Q

Females are typically the carriers of the gene for hemophilia but may not experience symptoms because they have two X chromosomes, and one of the two X chromosomes may be ___.

A

normal

390
Q

1 in 5000 males in the united states has ____.

A

hemophilia A

391
Q

1 in 250000 males in the united states has ___

A

hemophilia B

392
Q

_____ deficiency is more common in newborns than adults and in individuals with ____ or bilary diseases or chronic problems with fat abosrption.

A

Vitamin K

liver

393
Q

A deficiency in platelet count

A

thrombocytopenia

394
Q

increased tendency to clot blood

A

hyperocagulation

395
Q

a clot within a blood vessel that travels within the blood

A

embolus

396
Q

a clot within the blood vessel

A

thrombus

397
Q

occurs in the pulmonary circulation of the lungs and can lead to breathing problems and perhaps death if not treated.

A

pulmonary embolism

398
Q

Treatment for a thrombus or ___ typically is with ____ medication.

A

blood thinning

399
Q

A mutation of the gene for the synthesis of factor V is the most common genetic cause of hypercoagulation. Present in 3% of the population.

A

Leiden mutation

400
Q

Like platelet plug formation, the ________ is regulated by positive feedback.

A

clotting cascade

401
Q

When over 10% of the blood volume has been lost, a ____ response is initiated.

A

survival

402
Q

As blood volume decrease, blood pressure _____.

A

decreases

403
Q

If greater than 10% of the blood volume is lost from the blood vessels, the ____ division of the autonomic nervous system is activated bringing about increases vasoconstriction of blood vessels, increased ______, and increased ____ of heart contraction in an attempt to maintain blood pressure.

A

sympathetic
heart rate
force

404
Q

If greater than 10% of the blood volume is lost blood flow is ______ to the heart and the brain to keep these vital structures functioning.

A

resdistrbuted.

405
Q

These survival responses are effective in maintaining blood pressure until approximately ___% of the blood is lost.

A

40%

406
Q

Blood loss greater than 40% results in insufficient blood volume within the blood vessels and blood pressure ______ to levels unable to support life.

A

decreases

407
Q

A blood clot is a temporary measure to stop blood loss through damaged ____.

A

vessel wall

408
Q

To return to normal, the blood vessel wall must be repaired and the clot ____. Elimination of the blood clot includes both clot retraction and ____.

A

fibrinolysis

409
Q

______ occurs as the clot is forming when actinomyosin, a contractile protein within platelets, contracts and squeezes the serum out of the developing clot. This makes the clot smaller as the sides of the vessel wall are ___.

A

clot retraction

pulled closer together

410
Q

To destroy the fibrin framework of the clot, _____ degrades the fibrin strands through fibrinolysis.

A

plasmin

411
Q

Fibrinolysis begins within ___ days of the clot formation and occurs slowly over a ___ of days.

A

2 days

number

412
Q

A damaged blood vessel, impaired blood flow, atherosclerosis, or _____ of the blood vessels can all potentially initiate blood clotting

A

inflammation

413
Q

Certain nutrients and vitamins must be present and available for blood clotting to occur ___.

A

normally

414
Q

The first primitive hemopoietic stem cells develop in the sac wall of the ___ by the 3rd week of development.

A

embryo

415
Q

The primitive ____ stem cells go on to colonize other organs, such as the liver, spleen, and thymus.

A

hemopoietic

416
Q

In these organs, very primitive stem cells develop into the ____ that produce all of the formed elements.

A

hemocytoblasts

417
Q

Later in fetal development (perhaps beginning at 10 weeks), the hemocytoblasts begin to colonize ____, although the liver doesn’t completely cease its blood cell production until close to birth.

A

red bone marrow

418
Q

Hemopoiesis occurs in most bones in _____, but as an individual reaches adulthood, hemopoiesis is restricted to selected bones in the ____ skeleton.

A

young children

axial

419
Q

Older individuals have relatively less red bone marrow and may be more prone to developing ____, which is a decrease in the number of circulating erythrocytes.

A

anemia

420
Q

Older red bone marrow may be less able to meet any demands for an increased number of ___.

A

leukocytes

421
Q

The leukocytes in the elderly may be less efficient and active than those in younger individuals, and the elderly may have decreased number of ____.

A

leukocytes

422
Q

Certain types of leukemias also are more prevalent among the elderly, probably due to the _____ being less efficient.

A

immune systems