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NYCC Physiopathology > Lab Final Review > Flashcards

Lab Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

Which is the underlying cause of arteriosclerosis which can result in deposition of new elastin layers on the internal lamina and connective tissue?

A: Chronic congestion
B: Cholesterol plaque accumulation
C: Chronic hypertension
D: Congestive heart failure

A

C: Chronic hypertension (weakens walls over time)

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2
Q

Name 3 factors that influence the clinical significance of hemorrhage

A

Rate of blood loss, Volume of blood loss, Location of the bleed

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3
Q

Atherosclerosis is always categorized as what pattern of inflammation?

A: Chronic
B: Liquefactive
C: Acute
D: Coagulative

A

A: Chronic

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4
Q

Which term refers to a larger superficial hemorrhage in the skin, “bruises”, usually a result of trauma?

A: Petechiae
B: Thromboembolism
C: Transudate edema
D: Ecchymosis
E: Passive hyperemia

A

D: Ecchymosis

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5
Q

What is the most common etiology of nutmeg liver?

A: Left sided-heart failure
B: Right sided-heart failure
C: Pulmonary embolism
D: Kidney failure

A

B: Right sided-heart failure

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6
Q

Which of the following is NOT a potential clinical consequence/complication of atherosclerosis?

A: Arterial stenosis
B: Mural thrombus formation
C: Thromboembolism resulting in acute myocardial infarction
D: Arterial rupture
E: Air embolism

A

E: Air embolism

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7
Q

Which types of cells can act as foam cells?

A: Smooth muscle cells and macrophages
B: T-lymphocytes and macrophages
C: Endothelial cells and macrophages
D: Smooth muscle cells and natural killer cells
E: Macrophages and gitter cells

A

A: Smooth muscle cells and macrophages

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8
Q

Histiocytes which are phagocytosing degenerating myelin and appear as fat-laden macrophages with a foamy appearance to the cytoplasm are called ____

A: Lymphocytes
B: Foam cells
C: Myelinophagocytes
D: Gitter cells

A

D: Gitter cells

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9
Q

Which of the following may be a likely diagnosis of a patient presenting with non-orthopaedic low back pain if a fracture is ruled out?

A: Aortic aneurysm
B: Pulmonary infarct
C: Saphenous vein thromboembolism
D: Aortic stenosis
E: Pulmonary embolism

A

A: Aortic aneurysm

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10
Q

Which of the following would most likely cause ischemic infarct of the kidney?
A: Thrombus in the renal vein
B: Thromboembolism in the renal artery
C: Stenosis of the abdominal aorta
D: Abdominal aortic aneurysm

A

B: Thromboembolism in the renal artery

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11
Q

What are the components of Virchow’s Triad?

A

Endothelial damage
Hypercoagulability
Change in blood flow

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12
Q

Which of the following is NOT associated with pulmonary edema?

A: Mitral valve heart defect
B: Aortic stenosis
C: Left-sided heart failure
D: Lower extremity cellulitis

A

D: Lower extremity cellulitis
(LSHF is most common cause)

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13
Q

A lesion that does not rupture the entire vessel wall, but damages endothelium and allows blood to enter the layers of the vessel wall, separating these layers as it dissects a path along the length of the vessel is called ____

A: Vasculitis
B: Cellulitis
C: Thromboembolism
D: Dissecting aneurysm

A

D: Dissecting aneurysm

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14
Q

What term describes impaired exit of blood from organs and tissues through venous pathways?

A: Passive hyperemia
B: Aneurysm
C: Stenosis
D: Pulmonary edema

A

A: Passive hyperemia (AKA congestion)

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15
Q

A) What outcome of thrombosis can cause blockages in other small arteries and veins?
B) Name 3 other possible outcomes of thrombosis.

A

A) thromboembolism
B) lysis/dissolution, organization & recanalization, propagation

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16
Q

Which complication are we most concerned about with deep vein thrombosis of the lower extremities?

A: Portal hypertension
B: Pulmonary embolism
C: Myocardial infarction
D: Aortic aneurysm

A

B: Pulmonary embolism

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17
Q

Your patient Karen has recently been diagnosed with a thrombus in her left common carotid artery. What clinical consequence would you be most concerned about for Karen as a result of the thrombus?

A: Fat embolism
B: Renal infarct
C: Coronary artery disease
D: Cerebral infarct

A

D: Cerebral infarct

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18
Q

Which type of edema is seen in pitting edema and pulmonary edema?

A: Transudate edema
B: Exudate edema
C: Hematoma
D: Petechiae

A

A: Transudate edema

19
Q

What type of stroke would NOT benefit from anti- coagulation therapy?

A: Ischemic
B: Hemorrhagic
C: Stenotic
D: Hematomic

A

B: Hemorrhagic (rupture/leakage of blood vessel)

20
Q

What pathology is fibrinoid necrosis typically associated with in small muscular arteries?

A: Atherosclerosis
B: Pulmonary edema
C: Malignant Hypertension
D: Thromboembolism

A

C: Malignant Hypertension

21
Q

What is the most common form of systemic vasculitis in adults, causing headaches and visual symptoms?

A: Temporal arteritis
B: Temporal atherosclerosis
C: Temporal infarct
D: Temporal aneurysm

A

A: Temporal (giant cell) arteritis

22
Q

Which of the following is a NOT risk factor for varicose veins?

A: Long periods of standing
B: Pregnancy
C: Familial tendency
D: Pulmonary edema

A

D: Pulmonary edema

23
Q

Which of the following is usually due to local thrombus or embolization?

A: Hemorrhagic stroke
B: Carotid artery aneurysm
C: Ischemic stroke
D: Subclinical atherosclerosis

A

C: Ischemic stroke (cerebral strokes)

24
Q

Which layer of the vessel wall is affected by atherosclerosis?

A

Tunica intima

25
Q

What is the process by which a new smaller blood channels are formed through a thrombus?

A: Development of a thromboembolism
B: Thrombus propagation
C: Thrombus dissolution
D: Recanalization

A

D: Recanalization

26
Q

Which component of an atheroma is closest to and in contact with the lumen of the vessel?
A: Cholesterol cleft
B: Fibrous cap
C: Necrotic core
D: Fatty streak

A

B: Fibrous cap

27
Q

What term describes any detached intravascular mass?

A: Embolism
B: Hemorrhage
C: Thrombus
D: Atherosclerosis
E: Edema

A

A: Embolism

28
Q

Which cells are characterized by the presence of lipid-filled macrophages?

A: Lymphocytes
B: HDL cells
C: Foam cells
D: Cholesterol clefts

A

C: Foam cells

29
Q

What is the single most important factor of Virchow’s Triad?

A: Endothelial damage
B: Increased turbulence
C: Increased stasis
D: Decreased anticoagulant proteins

A

A: Endothelial damage

30
Q

Which term describes the process of narrowing and hardening of a blood vessel?

A: Thrombus formation
B: Stenosis
C: Aneurysm
D: Infarction

A

B: Stenosis
(clinical consequence of atherosclerosis)

31
Q

Where would you see deposition of lipid material as cholesterol clefts within the center of an atheroma?

A: Superficial fibrous cap
B: Tunica media
C: Necrotic core
D: Tunica adventitia

A

C: Necrotic core

32
Q

Which condition is characterized by abnormally high levels of lipids and lipoproteins in the blood?

A: Hyperlipidemia
B: Malignant hypertension
C: Hypolipidemia
D: Obesity

A

A: Hyperlipidemia

33
Q

Which of the following is a primary clinical consequence/complication of atherosclerosis?

A: Cellulitis
B: Dilation and thinning of the arterial wall
C: Complete dissolution
D: Organization and recanalization

A

B: Dilation and thinning of the arterial wall
(aneurysm)

34
Q

What is the #1 cause of mortality in the US?

A: Myocardial infarction
B: Cerebral hemorrhage
C: Lung Cancer
D: Ischemic stroke

A

A: Myocardial infarction
(CVD)

35
Q

A normal function of ACE2 is to modulate what molecule?

A: IL-3
B: Angiotensin II
C: ACE I
D: Ig-E

A

B: Angiotensin II

36
Q

which of the following is a consequence of atherosclerosis involving the occlusion of a vessel, with the potential for embolization?

A: Thrombus
B: Aneurysm
C: Stenosis
D: Edema

A

A: Thrombus

37
Q

Which of the following is a part of the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis which aids in the visualization of atherosclerosis and aneurysm formation on x-rays?

A: Thrombosis
B: Hyperlipidemia
C: Metastatic calcification
D: Dystrophic calcification
E: Foam cell lipid phagocytosis

A

D: Dystrophic calcification

38
Q

What is the term for increased blood supply due to arterial dilation caused by increased functional demand?

A: Congestion
B: Active hyperemia
C: Petechiae
D: Pulmonary edema

A

B: Active hyperemia

39
Q

Which treatment is used for an ischemic stroke to dissolve blood clots?

A: Hemoglobin factors
B: Vitamin K
C: Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)
D: Vitamin D

A

C: Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)

40
Q

Which of the following is a risk factor for pulmonary embolism?

A: Immobility
B: Left-sided heart failure
C: Hemorrhagic stroke
D: Nutmeg liver

A

A: Immobility

41
Q

Which condition is most commonly associated with causing fluid buildup in the lungs, known as pulmonary edema?

A: Right-sided heart failure
B: Left-sided heart failure
C: Pulmonary embolism
D: Nutmeg liver

A

B: Left-sided heart failure

42
Q

What type of exudate is typically associated with cellulitis?

A: Purulent exudate
B: Transudate edema
C: Transudative exudate
D: Serous exudate

A

A: Purulent exudate

43
Q

What term describes small, pinpoint hemorrhages (1-2mm)?

A: Hematoma
B: Petechiae
C: Purpura
D: Ecchymosis

A

B: Petechiae

NYCC Physiopathology (28 decks)

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