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VMS 2004 > Joint Pathology I > Flashcards

Joint Pathology I Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three different types of joints?

A
  • Fibrous
  • Cartilaginous
  • Synovial
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2
Q

What is a fibrous joint?

A

Bones are united by fibrous tissue

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3
Q

What is syndesmoses?

A

Adjacent bones are united by an interosseouss ligament or membrane

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4
Q

What are gomphoses?

A

Joints between the teeth to the mandible/ maxilla

fibrous joint

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5
Q

What are fontanelles?

A

spaces between the bones of the skull where bone formation is not complete

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6
Q

What is synostosis?

A

Early fusion of two or more bones of the skull

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7
Q

What is a cartilaginous joint?

A

Union between bones by hyaline or fibrocartilage

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8
Q

What are the two locations of sympheses?

cartilaginous joint

A
  1. Intervertebral discs
  2. Pubic Sympheses
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9
Q

What makes up a synovial joint?

A

Bone ends are covered in hyaline and articular cartilage

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10
Q

Why do superficial lacerations not heal properly?

A

no haemorrhage/ inflammation means it doesn’t heal

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11
Q

How do full depth articular cartilage injuries heal?

A
  1. Presence of haemorrhage, inflammatory cells and mesenchymal cells
  2. Mesenchymal cells start having features of chondrocytes and produce matrix rich proteoglycans
  3. The defect fills with fibrocartilage

fibrocartilage does not perform as well under mechanical stress

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12
Q

What do large articular cartilage defects progress to?

A

They progress to degeneration

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13
Q

What is osteochondrosis?

A
  • Focal failure of endochondral ossification
  • failure of blood supply of growing cartilage
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14
Q

What are the three forms of osteochondrosis?

A
  • latens
  • manifesta
  • dissecans
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15
Q

What is latens osteochondrosis?

A

ischemic cartilage necrosis of growth cartilage, but not articular

failure in vascularisation

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16
Q

What is manifesta osteochondrosis?

A

retention of necrotic cartilage- failure of endochobdral ossification

devascularised area fails to ossify

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17
Q

What is dissecans osteochondrosis?

A

cartilage necrosis forms a cleft

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18
Q

Name four potential causes of osteochondrosis

A
  1. Genetics
  2. Trauma
  3. Nutrition
  4. Growth rate/ Exercise
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19
Q

What is hip dysplasia?

A

lack of conformity between femoral head and the acetabulum

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20
Q

What causes hip dysplasia?

A

Excessive joint laxity + degenerative joint disease

21
Q

What is the most common skeletal disease of large/ giant breeds of dog

A

Hip dysplasia

22
Q

What causes cervical vertebral malformation?

A

Spinal compression

23
Q

What are atlantoaxial subluxations?

A
  • Failure of fusion of the odontoid process
  • very common in arabian foals
24
Q

What is arthrogyroposis?

A

Overextension/ over flexion

25
Q

What causes arthrogyroposis?

A
  • Lesions of the nervous system in-utero
  • Fixations of the joints in a flexed position
26
Q

What is primary osteoarthrosis?

A

When there is no apparant predisposing cause (usually in older animals)

27
Q

What is secondary osteoarthritis?

A

Underlying abnormality in the joint/ the supporting strcutures

28
Q

What is fibrillation?

A

roughening of articular cartilage in weight bearing areas

29
Q

What is Eburnation?

A

Articular cartilage is completely absent
Bone then rubs with bone

30
Q

What is spondylosis?

A

Formation of osteophytes at ventral and lateral margins of vertebral bodies adjacent to intervertebral bodies

31
Q

What is fibrinous arthritis commonly associated with?

A

associated with increased permeability of blood vessels

32
Q

What is purulent arthritis and what is it commonly associated with?

A
  • Large number of neutrophils in synovial fluid
  • Commonly associated with sepsis
33
Q

What does caprine arthritis look like?

A
  • Carpal hygroma
  • Articular cartilage degeneration
  • Lymphoplasmacytic arthritis
34
Q

What is diskospondylitis?

A
  • inflammation of intervertebral disk and adjacent vertebrae
35
Q

What is articular gout?

A

Deposition of monosodium urate crystals in joints
therefore leading to granulomatous inflammation

36
Q

What is pseudogout?

A

Articular and pararticular deposition of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate
* goes on to cause granulomatous inflammation

37
Q

What are the two forms of immune mediated polyarthritis?

A

Erosive and Non-Erosive

38
Q

Name 5 developmental diseases of joints

A
  1. Osteochondrosis
  2. Hip Dysplasia
  3. Cervical vertebral malformation-malarticulation
  4. Luxations and subluxations
  5. Abnormal positioning
39
Q

What is a Chondrodystrophic breed and what is the meaning?

A
  1. Higher % of collagen rather than proteoglycans in the nucleus pulposus
  2. Degeneration of the nucleus pulposus early in life
  3. also secondary degeneration of the annulus fibrosus
  4. Predisposes to hansen type I intervertebral disc formation
40
Q

What is the nucleus pulposus?

A

the soft, gelatinous central portion of the intervertebral disk that moves within the disk with changes in posture

41
Q

What is a non-chondrodystrophic breed?

A
  • Degeneration of the nucleus pulposus with age
  • Hansen type II herniation
42
Q

What does the Maedi-Visna virus in sheep cause?

A

Lymphoplasmacytic synovitis

43
Q

What is Bursitis?

A

painful condition that affects the bursae that cushion the bones, tendons and muscles

44
Q

What are there high numbers of in Immune-mediated Polyarthritis?

A

High numbers of neutrophils in synovial fluid

45
Q

What is a synovial chondromatosis associated with?

A

In association with degenerative joint disease

46
Q

What is a synovial cyst?

A

Periarticular synovium-lined structure filled with synovial fluid (decreased intra-articular pressure)

47
Q

Where does synovial pad proliferation occur?

A

Fetlock joint of racing horses

48
Q

What part of the spine is wobblers syndrome most likely to affect?

A

The neck

In dogs and horses

49
Q

Where is bursitis in horses most likely to be found?

A

The neck, (cranial and nuchal)

VMS 2004 (34 decks)

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