Joint Pathology I Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three different types of joints?

A
  • Fibrous
  • Cartilaginous
  • Synovial
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2
Q

What is a fibrous joint?

A

Bones are united by fibrous tissue

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3
Q

What is syndesmoses?

A

Adjacent bones are united by an interosseouss ligament or membrane

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4
Q

What are gomphoses?

A

Joints between the teeth to the mandible/ maxilla

fibrous joint

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5
Q

What are fontanelles?

A

spaces between the bones of the skull where bone formation is not complete

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6
Q

What is synostosis?

A

Early fusion of two or more bones of the skull

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7
Q

What is a cartilaginous joint?

A

Union between bones by hyaline or fibrocartilage

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8
Q

What are the two locations of sympheses?

cartilaginous joint

A
  1. Intervertebral discs
  2. Pubic Sympheses
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9
Q

What makes up a synovial joint?

A

Bone ends are covered in hyaline and articular cartilage

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10
Q

Why do superficial lacerations not heal properly?

A

no haemorrhage/ inflammation means it doesn’t heal

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11
Q

How do full depth articular cartilage injuries heal?

A
  1. Presence of haemorrhage, inflammatory cells and mesenchymal cells
  2. Mesenchymal cells start having features of chondrocytes and produce matrix rich proteoglycans
  3. The defect fills with fibrocartilage

fibrocartilage does not perform as well under mechanical stress

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12
Q

What do large articular cartilage defects progress to?

A

They progress to degeneration

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13
Q

What is osteochondrosis?

A
  • Focal failure of endochondral ossification
  • failure of blood supply of growing cartilage
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14
Q

What are the three forms of osteochondrosis?

A
  • latens
  • manifesta
  • dissecans
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15
Q

What is latens osteochondrosis?

A

ischemic cartilage necrosis of growth cartilage, but not articular

failure in vascularisation

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16
Q

What is manifesta osteochondrosis?

A

retention of necrotic cartilage- failure of endochobdral ossification

devascularised area fails to ossify

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17
Q

What is dissecans osteochondrosis?

A

cartilage necrosis forms a cleft

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18
Q

Name four potential causes of osteochondrosis

A
  1. Genetics
  2. Trauma
  3. Nutrition
  4. Growth rate/ Exercise
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19
Q

What is hip dysplasia?

A

lack of conformity between femoral head and the acetabulum

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20
Q

What causes hip dysplasia?

A

Excessive joint laxity + degenerative joint disease

21
Q

What is the most common skeletal disease of large/ giant breeds of dog

A

Hip dysplasia

22
Q

What causes cervical vertebral malformation?

A

Spinal compression

23
Q

What are atlantoaxial subluxations?

A
  • Failure of fusion of the odontoid process
  • very common in arabian foals
24
Q

What is arthrogyroposis?

A

Overextension/ over flexion

25
What causes arthrogyroposis?
* Lesions of the nervous system in-utero * Fixations of the joints in a flexed position
26
What is primary osteoarthrosis?
When there is no apparant predisposing cause (usually in older animals)
27
What is secondary osteoarthritis?
Underlying abnormality in the joint/ the supporting strcutures
28
What is fibrillation?
roughening of articular cartilage in weight bearing areas
29
What is Eburnation?
Articular cartilage is completely absent Bone then rubs with bone
30
What is spondylosis?
Formation of osteophytes at ventral and lateral margins of vertebral bodies adjacent to intervertebral bodies
31
What is fibrinous arthritis commonly associated with?
associated with increased permeability of blood vessels
32
What is purulent arthritis and what is it commonly associated with?
* Large number of neutrophils in synovial fluid * Commonly associated with sepsis
33
What does caprine arthritis look like?
* Carpal hygroma * Articular cartilage degeneration * Lymphoplasmacytic arthritis
34
What is diskospondylitis?
* inflammation of intervertebral disk and adjacent vertebrae
35
What is articular gout?
Deposition of monosodium urate crystals in joints therefore leading to granulomatous inflammation
36
What is pseudogout?
Articular and pararticular deposition of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate * goes on to cause granulomatous inflammation
37
What are the two forms of immune mediated polyarthritis?
Erosive and Non-Erosive
38
Name 5 developmental diseases of joints
1. Osteochondrosis 2. Hip Dysplasia 3. Cervical vertebral malformation-malarticulation 4. Luxations and subluxations 5. Abnormal positioning
39
What is a Chondrodystrophic breed and what is the meaning?
1. Higher % of collagen rather than proteoglycans in the nucleus pulposus 2. Degeneration of the nucleus pulposus early in life 3. also secondary degeneration of the annulus fibrosus 4. Predisposes to hansen type I intervertebral disc formation
40
What is the nucleus pulposus?
the soft, gelatinous central portion of the intervertebral disk that moves within the disk with changes in posture
41
What is a non-chondrodystrophic breed?
* Degeneration of the nucleus pulposus with age * Hansen type II herniation
42
What does the Maedi-Visna virus in sheep cause?
Lymphoplasmacytic synovitis
43
What is Bursitis?
painful condition that affects the bursae that cushion the bones, tendons and muscles
44
What are there high numbers of in Immune-mediated Polyarthritis?
High numbers of neutrophils in synovial fluid
45
What is a synovial chondromatosis associated with?
In association with degenerative joint disease
46
What is a synovial cyst?
Periarticular synovium-lined structure filled with synovial fluid (decreased intra-articular pressure)
47
Where does synovial pad proliferation occur?
Fetlock joint of racing horses
48
What part of the spine is wobblers syndrome most likely to affect?
The neck | In dogs and horses
49
Where is bursitis in horses most likely to be found?
The neck, (cranial and nuchal)