January Flashcards
Which of the following statements best reflects the essence of CBDR-RC in this context?
Countries with higher economic capabilities should bear the primary responsibility for addressing climate change, while considering the varying capacities of different nations.
Explanation :
As the world’s third-largest emitter of greenhouse gases, India is a crucial player in the global fight against climate change.
India has, in the last few years, become increasingly proactive at the annual climate change conference, also known as the Conference of Parties (COP).
India had hosted one of these conferences — COP8, way back in 2008.
The principle of Common But Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities (CBDR-RC) recognizes that all countries share a common responsibility to address global issues like climate change.
However, it acknowledges that countries have different levels of economic development and capacities.
According to CBDR-RC, developed countries, with higher economic capabilities, should take on a greater responsibility in addressing environmental challenges, while considering the varying capacities of less developed nations.
This principle seeks to balance the shared global responsibility with an understanding of the different circumstances of individual countries.
Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC):
- UNFCCC was adopted at the Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992.
- The ultimate objective of UNFCCC is to stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous anthropogenic interference with the climate system.
- The Kyoto Protocol is a legally binding treaty that operates under the UNFCCC.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All three
Explanation :
1992 Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit gave rise to the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).So, statement 1 is correct.
The ultimate objective of the UNFCCC, as stated in Article 2, is to stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous anthropogenic interference with the climate system.So, statement 2 is correct.
The Kyoto Protocol is a legally binding treaty that operates under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). It was adopted in December 1997 and aims to reduce greenhouse gases and carbon dioxide emissions. So, statement 3 is correct.
In the aftermath of a severe cyclone, Country X, a developing nation, has experienced extensive damage to its infrastructure, loss of agricultural productivity, and displacement of communities. Country X seeks assistance from the Loss and Damage Fund established under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
Which of the following best describes the purpose and function of the Loss and Damage Fund in this context?
The fund will help developing countries that are vulnerable to the consequences of climate change.
Explanation :
On the opening day of the COP28 climate conference in Dubai, a loss and damage fund to help vulnerable countries cope with the impact of climate change has been officially launched.
The loss and damage fund was first announced during COP27 in Sharm el-Sheikh, Egypt, last year.
The initial funding is estimated to be $475 million:
host UAE pledged $100 million,
the European Union promised $275 million,
$17.5 million from the US, and
$10 million from Japan.
The Loss and Damage (L&D) fund is a financial mechanism that helps countries deal with the irreversible consequences of climate change.
The fund provides financial assistance to poorer nations as they deal with the negative consequences of climate change. These consequences include rising sea levels, extreme heat waves, desertification, forest fires, and crop failures.
The Loss and Damage Fund was first announced at COP27 in Sharm el-Sheikh, Egypt in 2022. The fund was adopted by consensus at COP28 in Dubai, with several countries pledging around $700 million.
It should be noted that Loss and damage means different things to different groups and there is no agreed upon definition within the UNFCCC.
Consider the following statements regarding the tropical cyclones:
- These are large-scale weather systems characterized by low-pressure centers and strong winds circulating in a counter-clockwise direction in the Northern Hemisphere.
- They typically form over tropical and subtropical waters, fueled by warm ocean temperatures and high humidity.
- The Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Wind Scale is commonly used to categorize tropical cyclones based on their wind speeds and potential for damage.
- The strongest winds and heaviest rainfall in a tropical cyclone are typically found in the outer bands or spiral rainbands surrounding the eye.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All Four
Explanation :
The India Meteorological Department (IMD) has forecast a cyclonic storm, Cyclone Michaung, over the southwest Bay of Bengal on December 3.
Cyclone Michaung is the fourth tropical cyclone of the year over the Bay of Bengal.
Tropical cyclones are large-scale weather systems characterized by low-pressure centres and strong winds circulating in a counterclockwise direction in the Northern Hemisphere. In the Southern Hemisphere, they circulate in a clockwise direction. So, statement 1 is correct.
Tropical cyclones typically form over tropical and subtropical waters, where the ocean temperatures are warm and there is high humidity. These warm oceanic conditions provide the energy necessary for their formation and intensification.So, statement 2 is correct.
The Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Wind Scale is commonly used to categorize tropical cyclones based on their wind speeds and potential for damage. It classifies hurricanes into five categories based on sustained wind speeds, ranging from Category 1 (weakest) to Category 5 (strongest).So, statement 3 is correct.
The strongest winds and heaviest rainfall in a tropical cyclone are typically found in the outer bands or spiral rainbands surrounding the eye. These bands extend outward from the center and contribute to the overall size and impact of the cyclone. So, statement 5 is correct.
Which of the following best describes the purpose and significance of the Global Stocktake in the context of climate action?
The Global Stocktake is a periodic review that assesses the collective progress of countries in achieving the long-term goals of the Paris Agreement, including limiting global temperature rise.
Explanation :
The first-ever global stocktake was concluded at the UN Climate Change Conference (COP28) held in Dubai.
The Global Stocktake happened for the first time, since the Paris Agreement in 2015.
The global stocktake is a process for countries and stakeholders to see where they are collectively making progress towards meeting the goals of the Paris Climate Change Agreement – and where they are not.
Basically, the global stocktake is like taking inventory.
It means looking at everything related to where the world stands on climate action and support, identifying the gaps, and working together to chart a better course forward to accelerate climate action.
The stocktake takes place every five years, with the first-ever stocktake set to conclude at COP28.
Consider the following statements regarding the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB):
- It has been set up under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- It functions as the National storehouse of fingerprint records of convicted persons.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) released its annual report on crime in India for the year 2022.
The report is a compilation of data on reported crime from across the country, and provides the big picture of broad trends in crime registration.
NCRB was set-up in 1986 under the administrative control of Ministry of Home Affairs.So, statement 1 is correct.
It is responsible for collecting and analysing crime data as defined by the Indian Penal Code and Special and Local Laws. NCRB is headquartered in New Delhi.
It also functions as the National storehouse of fingerprint (FP) records of convicted persons including FP records of foreign criminals.So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following pairs: Volcano - Place
- Mont Etna - Italy
- Mt. Marapi - Malaysia
- Mauna Loa - Hawaii, USA
How many of the pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
Only two
Explanation :
The death toll from a volcanic eruption in Indonesia has gone up to 22, after rescuers found nine more bodies. This eruption of Mt. Marapi was the deadliest since 1979, when an eruption killed 60 people.
Frequent volcanic eruptions in Marapi have hampered rescue efforts for days.
Mount Etna is located in Sicily, Italy.
Mount Merapi is a volcanic mountain peak located near the centre of the island of Java, Indonesia.
Mauna Loa is located in the United States, on the island of Hawaii. It’s part of Hawaii Volcanoes National Park and is the largest active volcano on Earth by mass and volume.
Consider the following statements regarding the World Meteorological Organization (WMO):
- It is a specialized agency of the United Nations.
- The Secretariat of WMO is headquartered at New York.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Only 1
Explanation :
“The Global Climate 2011-2020: A Decade of Acceleration” is a report published by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO).
Established by the ratification of the WMO Convention on 23 March 1950, WMO became the specialised agency of the UN. So, statement 1 is correct.
It is responsible for promoting international cooperation on -
Meteorology (weather and climate),
Operational hydrology and
Related geophysical sciences.
The Secretariat, headquartered in Geneva, is headed by the Secretary-General and its supreme body is the World Meteorological Congress. So, statement 2 is not correct.
WMO publishes - Greenhouse Gas Bulletin, Status of Global Climate, etc., reports
Consider the following statements:
- Critical minerals are essential for economic development and national security.
- The government of India, in July 2023, released a list of 20 critical minerals for India.
- In order to maintain resilience supply chain for critical minerals, India is planning to join Mineral Security Partnership (MSP).
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
Twenty blocks of critical minerals are currently on auction for commercial mining by the private sector.
The bidding process began on November 29, and bids can be submitted until January 22 next year.
A mineral is critical when the risk of supply shortage and associated impact on the economy is (relatively) higher than other raw materials.
These minerals are essential for economic development and national security, and their lack of availability/ the concentration of extraction/ processing in a few geographical locations could potentially lead to supply chain vulnerabilities. So, statement 1 is correct.
In July 2023, government of India released a list of 30 critical minerals for India. So, statement 2 is not correct.
These minerals are Antimony, Beryllium, Bismuth, Cobalt, Copper, Gallium, Germanium, Graphite, Hafnium, Indium, Lithium, Molybdenum, Niobium, Nickel, PGE, Phosphorous, Potash, REE, Rhenium, Silicon, Strontium, Tantalum, Tellurium, Tin, Titanium, Tungsten, Vanadium, Zirconium, Selenium and Cadmium.
India has recently been inducted into MSP. So, statement 3 is not correct.
MSP is a US-led collaboration of 14 countries that aims to catalyse public and private investment in critical mineral supply chains globally.
Consider the following statements regarding Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:
- PVTGs are identified based solely on their economic status and income levels.
- Currently, there are 75 PVTGs in India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Only 2
Explanation :
PVTGs are more vulnerable among the tribal groups.
Due to this factor, more developed and assertive tribal groups take a major chunk of the tribal development funds, because of which PVTGs need more funds directed for their development.
In this context, in 1975, the Government of India declared 52 tribal groups as PVTGs on the recommendation of Dhebar commission.
Currently, there are 75 PVTGs out of 705 Scheduled Tribes.So, statement 2 is correct.
The PVTGs are spread over 18 states and one Union Territory (UT), in the country (2011 census).
Odisha has the highest number (more than 2.5 lakh) of PVTGs.
Characteristics of PVTGs:
Population – stagnant/declining
Technology – pre-agricultural
Literacy Level – extremely low
Economy – Subsistence level
So, statement 1 is not correct.
Who are Sammakka and Sarakka in the context of Indian cultural and religious traditions?
Folk deities revered by the Koya tribe in the Indian state of Telangana.
Explanation :
The Lok Sabha took up the Central Universities (Amendment) Bill, 2023 for consideration and passing.
The Bill seeks to establish a Central Tribal University in Telangana which will be named ‘Sammakka Sarakka Central Tribal University’.
Sammakka and Sarakka are revered as folk deities among the Koya tribe in the Indian state of Telangana. They are worshipped during the biennial Sammakka Saralamma Jatara, one of the largest tribal festivals in Asia.
The festival is dedicated to these tribal goddesses and attracts a large number of devotees from various tribal communities.
What is Pompe Disease?
A rare genetic disorder that results in the buildup of glycogen in the body’s cells, particularly in muscles, leading to muscle weakness and other complications.
Explanation :
Nidhi Shirol, India’s first Pompe disease patient, passed away at the age of 24 years after battling the disease.
She spent the last six years in a semi-comatose state.
Pompe Disease is a rare genetic disorder caused by a deficiency of the enzyme acid alpha-glucosidase (GAA). This deficiency leads to the accumulation of glycogen in various tissues, particularly in muscles.
The disease primarily affects the muscles and can result in progressive muscle weakness, respiratory issues, and other complications.
Consider the following statements regarding the Article 99 of the UN Charter:
- It is a special political tool that allows the UN Secretary-General to call a meeting of the Security Council.
- It is the only independent political tool given to the Secretary-General in the UN Charter.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
UN Secretary-General Antonio Guterres used a rarely used power to warn the Security Council of a humanitarian catastrophe in Gaza.
He urged the members to demand an immediate humanitarian cease-fire.
In this context, Guterres invoked Article 99 of the UN Charter, a diplomatic tool that allows the UN head to raise issues that may threaten international peace and security.
Article 99 of the UN Charter is a special political tool that allows the UN Secretary-General to call a meeting of the Security Council. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Secretary-General can use this tool to bring to the Security Council’s attention any matter that they believe may threaten international peace and security.
Article 99 is the only independent political tool given to the Secretary-General in the UN Charter.It is seen as a discretionary power.So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statement regarding the Lok Sabha Ethics Committee:
- The committee has 20 members.
- The members of the Ethics Committee are appointed by the President.
- Members of the Committee are appointed for a period of two year.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
None of the above
Explanation :
The Lok Sabha expelled Trinamool Congress member Mahua Moitra over the “cash-for-query” allegation through a voice vote amid chaos.
Union Parliamentary Affairs Minister had moved the motion to expel Ms. Moitra as per the recommendation of Ethics Committee report.
The report found her guilty of sharing her credentials with others, accepted gifts for favours from a businessman.
Appointment of members in Lok Sabha Ethics Committee:
The committee should not contain more than 15 members. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The members of the Ethics Committee are appointed by the Speaker for a period of one year. So, statements 2 and 3 are not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Digital Lending:
- Digital lending refers to the use of online platforms and technology to connect borrowers with lenders without the involvement of traditional financial institutions.
- Digital lending platforms often use alternative data sources, such as social media profiles and transaction history, for credit assessment and decision-making.
- Regulatory oversight of digital lending practices is consistent globally, ensuring uniform standards for consumer protection.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) kept the repo rate unchanged for the fifth time in a row at 6.5 per cent.
While announcing various steps, RBI also said that it will lay down guidelines for web aggregators of loan products to bring more transparency to digital lending.
Digital lending involves the use of online platforms and technology to connect borrowers with lenders, often bypassing traditional banking channels.So, statement 1 is correct.
Digital lending platforms frequently leverage alternative data sources beyond traditional credit scores, including social media activity and transaction history, to assess the creditworthiness of borrowers.So, statement 2 is correct.
Regulatory oversight of digital lending practices varies across countries, and there is no consistent global framework. Regulatory approaches differ, and some regions may have more robust consumer protection measures than others.So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI):
- CCPI is a scoring system that measures the climate protection performance of countries.
- The CCPI uses a standardized framework to compare the climate performance of 63 countries and the EU.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2024 was released on the sidelines of the ongoing COP28 at Dubai.
India ranked 7th in this year’s Climate Change Performance Index, up one spot from the previous one.
About
CCPI is a scoring system that measures the climate protection performance of countries. It was first published in 2005.So, statement 1 is correct.
It is designed to improve transparency in international climate politics.
It also allows for the comparison of climate protection efforts and progress made by individual countries.
Function
The CCPI uses a standardized framework to compare the climate performance of 63 countries and the EU, which together account for over 90% of global greenhouse gas emissions. So, statement 2 is correct.
The climate protection performance is assessed in four categories: GHG Emissions, Renewable Energy, Energy Use and Climate Policy.
The analysis also reports on the extent to which each country is taking actions in the areas of emissions, renewable energy and energy use in order to achieve the climate goals set in Paris.
Ranking
Rankings are based on each country’s overall score. No country performs well enough in all index categories to achieve an overall very high rating.
Published by
Germanwatch, the New Climate Institute and the Climate Action Network publish the index annually.
Consider the following statements regarding the Marine Commandos (MARCOS):
- It is a special operations force of the Indian Army that conducts operations in air, water, and land.
- MARCOS are also trained to conduct swift and stealthy response in denied territories.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Only 2
Explanation :
The Indian Navy is planning to acquire indigenously-made swimmer delivery vehicles — also known as underwater chariots and midget submarines.
This is part of efforts to modernise and strengthen the capabilities of its Marine Commandos (MARCOS) for special undersea operations.
About
MARCOS stands for Marine Commandos. It is a special operations force of the Indian Navy that conducts operations in air, water, and land. So, statement 1 is not correct.
MARCOS was founded in February 1987 and is also known as the Marine Commando Force (MCF).
MARCOS are modelled after the US Navy SEALs and the Royal Marines.
Function
MARCOS are trained to conduct the following operations:
Maritime and amphibious warfare
Counter-terrorism
Unconventional warfare
Rescue missions
Reconnaissance
Raids
Swift and stealthy response in denied territories. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR):
- On 10 December 1948, the UN General Assembly approved the Universal Declaration of Human Rights at a meeting in Paris.
- The declaration consists of a preamble and 30 articles setting out fundamental rights and freedoms.
- UDHR articulates a broad range of civil, political, economic, social, and cultural rights.
- The UDHR is not legally binding on the member states of the United Nations.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All four
Explanation :
December 10, 2023 marked the 75th anniversary of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR).
UDHR is the landmark document enshrining human rights and fundamental freedoms for all individuals.
On 10 December 1948, the UN General Assembly approved the Universal Declaration of Human Rights at a meeting in Paris.So, statement 1 is correct.
A relatively compact document, the declaration consists of a preamble and 30 articles setting out fundamental rights and freedoms.So, statement 2 is correct.
These 30 articles articulate a broad range of civil, political, economic, social, and cultural rights. So, statement 3 is correct.
These rights are considered universal, meaning they apply to all people regardless of nationality, ethnicity, gender, religion, or any other status.
It is not a legally binding treaty, but it has served as a source of inspiration for the development of international human rights law.So, statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Zonal Council of India:
- It is a non-constitutional, non-statutory body.
- There are five zonal councils in India.
- North Eastern Council is one of the zonal councils which looks after the special problems of North Eastern region.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation Shri Amit Shah chaired the 26th meeting of the Eastern Zonal Council in Patna, Bihar.
Zonal Councils are the statutory and not the constitutional bodies. It was set up under the States Re-organisation Act, 1956.So, statement 1 is not correct.
The five councils are: The Northern Zonal Council; The Central Zonal Council; The Eastern Zonal Council; The Western Zonal Council; The Southern Zonal Council. So, statement 2 is correct.
The North Eastern States are not included in the Zonal Councils. Their special problems are looked after by the North Eastern Council, set up under the North Eastern Council Act, 1972.So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the New Pension Scheme (NPS):
- It offers pensions to government employees on the basis of their last drawn salary.
- In NPS, contributions are defined, but benefits depend on the market.
- Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) is the nodal agency responsible for the implementation of NPS.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only 2
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has released the report “State Finances: A Study of Budgets of 2023-24”.
In this report, the RBI said that the return to the Old Pension Scheme (OPS) by a few states would put a huge burden on their finances.
This will restrict them from undertaking capital expenditure to drive the growth.
As a substitute of OPS, the NPS was introduced by the Central government in April, 2004.
This pension programme is open to employees from the public, private and even the unorganised sectors except those from the armed forces.
The scheme encourages people to invest in a pension account at regular intervals during the course of their employment.
After retirement, the subscribers can take out a certain percentage of the corpus.
The beneficiary receives the remaining amount as a monthly pension, post retirement.
Hence, pension is not determined on the basis of last drawn salary. So, statement 1 is not correct.
NPS doesn’t guarantee fix returns as it is subjected to market volatility. In NPS, contributions are defined, but benefits depend on the market. So, statement 2 is correct.
Nodal agency: Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA). So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
A windfall tax is:
None of the above
Explanation :
A windfall tax is imposed on companies that have seen their profits extraordinarily not because of any clever investment decision or an increase in efficiency or innovation, but simply because of favourable market conditions.
Consider the following provisions:
- Article 102(1) of the constitution
- Article 191(1) of the constitution
- Tenth Schedule of the Constitution
- Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951
How many of the above provision(s) deal(s) with the disqualification of MPs/MLAs?
All four
Explanation :
Disqualification of a lawmaker is prescribed in three situations.
First is through the Articles 102(1) and 191(1) for disqualification of a member of Parliament and a member of the Legislative Assembly respectively.
The grounds here include holding an office of profit, being of unsound mind or insolvent or not having valid citizenship.
The second prescription of disqualification is in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution.
This provides for the disqualification of the members on grounds of defection.
The third prescription is under The Representation of The People Act (RPA), 1951.
This law provides for disqualification for conviction in criminal cases.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- Rule Number 373 of Lok Sabha empowers presiding officers to direct an MP to withdraw from the House for any disorderly conduct.
- Rule 255 of Rajya Sabha empowers the Chairman of Rajya Sabha to direct any Member to withdraw immediately from the House for any disorderly conduct.
- Rajya Sabha can not suspend its members without passing a motion for the same.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Fourteen opposition MPs (13 from the Lok Sabha and one from the Rajya Sabha) were suspended after they protested against a security breach in the parliament.
For Lok Sabha
Rule Number 373 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business
It empowers presiding officers to direct an MP to withdraw from the House for any disorderly conduct.So, statement 1 is correct.
This rule says that any Member so ordered to withdraw shall remain absent during the remainder of the day’s sitting.
Rules 374 and 374A-
Rule 374 empowers the Presiding officers to name the legislators if the MP continues disrupting the House even after repeated warnings.
After that, the House can move a motion to suspend the MP for a period not exceeding the remainder of the session
Rule 374A was incorporated in the Rule Book in December 2001.The intention was to circumvent the necessity of adopting a motion for suspension.
Under this rule, the Speaker can name an MP, who shall then automatically stand suspended for five days or the remaining part of the session.
For Rajya Sabha
Rule 255 of the Rule Book of Rajya Sabha
It empowers the Chairman of Rajya Sabha to direct any Member to withdraw immediately from the House for any disorderly conduct.So, statement 2 is correct.
Rule 256
This rule empowers the Chairman to name the members who persistently disregards the authority of the Chair or abuses the rules of the Council.
After that, the House may adopt a motion suspending the Member for a period not exceeding the remainder of the session.
It should be noted that, unlike Lok Sabha (under rule 374A), Rajya Sabha can not suspend its members without passing a motion for the same. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the impeachment of a US President:
- Under the US Constitution, the President can be removed from office for treason, bribery, or other high crimes and misdemeanors.
- Criminal charges can be brought against a sitting President.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Only 1
Explanation :
The US House has approved an impeachment inquiry into United States President Joe Biden and his family.
This was after Republicans raised allegations against his son Hunter Biden for profiting in business dealings with foreign entities.
Impeachment is a process that involves a legislative body or tribunal charging a public official with misconduct.
Under the US Constitution, the president can be removed from office for “treason, bribery, or other high crimes and misdemeanors.” However, these terms have not been defined.So, statement 1 is correct.
Criminal charges cannot be brought against a sitting President.So, statement 2 is not correct.
However, the Constitution does allow for separate criminal charges once a president is removed.
It is a process that involves both political and legal elements.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which of the following oceanic features is not located near the Maldives?
Java Trench
Explanation :
The Maldives government has decided to not renew an agreement with India that allowed India to conduct hydrographic surveys in Maldivian waters.
The agreement was signed in 2019 during PM Modi’s visit to the islands, when President Ibrahim Solih was in power.
The Java Trench is located in the eastern Indian Ocean, to the southeast of the Indian subcontinent.
It is not in proximity to the Maldives, which is situated in the central-western part of the Indian Ocean. The other options, Chagos-Laccadive Ridge, Addu Atoll, and Nine-Degree Channel, are geographically closer to or associated with the Maldives region.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
The Northern Sea Route (NSR) has gained geopolitical and economic significance in recent years. Which of the following statements regarding the NSR is correct?
The NSR is a navigable Arctic shipping route that runs along the Russian Arctic coast.
Explanation :
The National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration’s (NOAA) annual Arctic Report Card has been released.
As per this report, the 2023 summer was the warmest on record in the Arctic, which, due to climate change, has warmed nearly four times faster than the globe since 1979.
The study indicates Arctic amplification is taking place at a very fast rate.
Arctic amplification is the increasingly ramped-up warming that is taking place in the area of the world north of 67 degrees N latitude.
India has been showing greater interest regarding the NSR for a variety of reasons.
The Northern Sea Route (NSR), the shortest shipping route for freight transportation between Europe and countries of the Asia-Pacific region, straddles four seas of the Arctic Ocean.
It is a navigable Arctic shipping route that follows the Russian Arctic coastline, providing a shorter route between Europe and Asia via the Arctic Ocean.
Running to 5,600 km, the Route begins at the boundary between the Barents and the Kara seas (Kara Strait) and ends in the Bering Strait.
As per one research paper, distance savings along the NSR can be as high as 50% compared to the currently used shipping lanes via Suez or Panama.
What is the Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium (INSACOG)?
A research consortium focused on studying the genomic variations of the SARS-CoV-2 virus in India.
Explanation :
A case of JN.1, a sub-variant of COVID-19 that’s currently spreading in the US and China, has been found in Kerala.
It was found as part of the ongoing routine surveillance by INSACOG (Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium).
INSACOG is a national multi-agency consortium of Genome Sequencing Laboratories laboratories.
It was established by the Government of India in December 2020 for genomic surveillance of SARS-CoV-2 in India.
Presently, there are 28 laboratories under this Consortium which monitor the genomic variations in SARS-CoV-2.
Which of the following is not an objective of Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra?
To raise awareness about and track the implementation of flagship central schemes
Reach out to the vulnerable who are eligible under various schemes but have not availed benefit
Neither a nor b
Explanation :
PM Modi is on a two-day visit to Varanasi where he addressed a Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra event.
About
The Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra is a government initiative being undertaken across the country, to raise awareness about and track the implementation of flagship central schemes.So, option (a) is correct.
These schemes include programmes like Ayushman Bharat, Ujjwala Yojana, PM Surkasha Bima, PM SVANidhi, etc.
Aims
Reach out to the vulnerable who are eligible under various schemes but have not availed benefit so far; So, option (b) is correct.
Dissemination of information and generating awareness about schemes;
Interaction with beneficiaries of government schemes through their personal stories/ experience sharing; and
Enrolment of potential beneficiaries through details ascertained during the Yatra.
Consider the following statements regarding Assam Rifles:
- Besides maintaining law and order in the Northeast, the Assam Rifles also guards the border with Myanmar and Bangladesh in the region.
- Assam Rifles comes under the full control of Ministry of Home Affairs.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The Assam Rifles is planning critical operational changes so that it can be deployed for conventional roles along the Line of Actual Control (LAC) in contingencies.
At the same time, it will continue to perform its traditional counter-insurgency duties in the Northeast and guarding the India-Myanmar border.
Besides maintaining law and order in the Northeast (a task it performs together with the Army), the Assam Rifles also guards the border with Myanmar in the region.So, statement 1 is not correct.
BSF guards the border with Bangladesh.
Assam Rifles is the only paramilitary force with a dual control structure:
The administrative control of the force is with the MHA.
Its operational control is with the Indian Army, which is under the Ministry of Defence (MoD).
So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements about telecom spectrum auction:
- Telecom spectrum auction is a process through which government assigns rights to use radio frequencies to telecom operators.
- The auctioning of spectrum helps in determining its market value and ensures efficient utilization by telecom service providers.
- Spectrum auction in India is conducted by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI).
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Telecommunications Bill, 2023 was introduced in the Lok Sabha by Union minister for Communications, Electronics & Information Technology.
Among its many significant provisions is one on national security, which allows the government to temporarily take control of telecom services in case of an emergency.
Telecom spectrum auction is a process through which the government allocates radio frequencies, but it’s more about assigning rights to use these frequencies rather than direct allocation. So, statement 1 is correct.
Telecom spectrum auctions help determine the market value of spectrum by letting telecom operators bid for the rights. This process ensures that the spectrum is efficiently allocated to those who value it the most. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Department of Telecommunications (DoT) conducts spectrum auctions in India. The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) provides recommendations to the government on spectrum auctions. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the India’s involvement in Arctic:
- The Himadri research station, located in Ny Alesund, Svalbard in Norway, was started by India in July 2008.
- India is also a member of Arctic Council.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Only 1
Explanation :
Raman Research Institute (RRI) will participate in the first winter Indian expedition to the Arctic region.
RRI is an autonomous research institute engaged in research in basic sciences.
This will be for the first time that researchers will examine the characterisation of the radio frequency environment in the Svalbard region of the Arctic.
The Himadri research station, located in Ny Alesund, Svalbard in Norway, was started in July 2008. So, statement 1 is correct.
In 2014, India deployed IndArc, a multisensory observatory in Kongsfjorden.
In 2016, India’s northernmost atmospheric laboratory was established at Gruvebadet.
India is Observer to the Arctic Council since 2013. Its membership as an observer was renewed in 2019 for another five years. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The Council is the leading intergovernmental forum promoting cooperation on common Arctic issues.
Established by the eight Arctic States — the countries whose territories fall in the Arctic region — through the Ottawa Declaration of 1996.
Member Nations of the Council - Canada, the Kingdom of Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, the Russian Federation, Sweden and United States.
Consider the following statements regarding Lumpy Skin Disease:
- It is a contagious viral disease primarily affecting humans.
- The causative agent of Lumpy Skin Disease belongs to the Poxviridae family.
- It poses a significant threat to cattle and can have economic implications for the livestock industry.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
only 2
Explanation :
A Parliamentary Standing Committee has raised concerns about the accuracy of information regarding cattle deaths due to Lumpy Skin Disease (LSD).
The committee pointed out a discrepancy between the data provided by the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying (DAHD) and the actual situation on the ground, suggesting that the reported numbers may not align with reality.
LSD is caused by the lumpy skin disease virus (LSDV), which is a virus of the capripoxvirus genus in the poxviridae family. So, statement 2 is correct.
Sheeppox virus and goatpox virus are the other members of the genus capripoxvirus.
The LSDV mainly affects cattle — cow and its progeny, and the Asian water buffaloes.So, statement 1 is not correct.
Lumpy Skin Disease is a significant threat to cattle, causing nodules and lesions on the skin. It can lead to economic implications for the livestock industry due to reduced milk production, weight loss, and mortality in severe cases.So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the geographical location of the Red Sea:
- It is narrow strip of water extending south-eastward from Suez, Egypt, to the Bab el-Mandeb Strait.
- It is a narrow inland sea between the Arabian Peninsula and Africa.
- It separates the coasts of Egypt, Sudan, and Eritrea from those of Saudi Arabia and Yemen.
- Red Sea contains some of the world’s hottest and saltiest seawater.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All four
Explanation :
U.S. Defense Secretary had announced the creation of a multinational operation to safeguard commerce in the Red Sea.
This was following a series of missile and drone attacks by Yemen’s Iran-aligned Houthis.
Red Sea is narrow strip of water extending southeastward from Suez, Egypt, to the Bab el-Mandeb Strait. So, statement 1 is correct.
Basically, it is a narrow inland sea between the Arabian Peninsula and Africa.So, statement 2 is correct.
The Red Sea separates the coasts of Egypt, Sudan, and Eritrea from those of Saudi Arabia and Yemen. So, statement 3 is correct.
The Red Sea contains some of the world’s hottest and saltiest seawater. So, statement 4 is correct.
It is one of the most heavily travelled waterways in the world, carrying maritime traffic between Europe and Asia.
What does the 14th Amendment of the United States Constitution primarily address?
Equal protection under the law and citizenship rights
Explanation :
The top court in the US state of Colorado ordered former US President Donald Trump to be taken off the ballot in the state for the Presidential elections next year.
The Supreme Court in Colorado ruled that Trump stands “disqualified from holding the office of President under Section Three of the Fourteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution.
The 14th Amendment of the United States Constitution, ratified in 1868, primarily addresses issues of equal protection under the law and citizenship rights.
It includes the Equal Protection Clause and the Citizenship Clause, which grants citizenship to “all persons born or naturalized in the United States” and guarantees them equal protection of the laws.
Consider the following statements regarding the Northeast Monsoon:
- It is also known as the winter monsoon in the Indian subcontinent.
- It is characterized by the reversal of wind direction, with winds blowing from land to sea.
- The Northeast Monsoon brings significant rainfall to the eastern coastal regions of southern India.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Tamil Nadu has battled heavy rainfall throughout December.
In the beginning of the month, parts of Chennai and its neighbourhood experienced massive flooding because of Cyclone Michaung.
The northeast monsoon is also known as the winter monsoon in the Indian subcontinent. So, the statement 1 is correct.
The northeast monsoon is characterized by winds blowing from land to sea. It is also known as the retreating monsoon. So, statement 2 is correct.
It marks the end of the southwest monsoon and is a transition from the hot rainy season to dry winter conditions.
The northeast monsoon brings cold, dry air from the northeast direction, leading to dry and cool weather in the region.
The Northeast Monsoon brings significant rainfall mainly to the eastern coastal regions of southern India, including Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and parts of Karnataka. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements about the Pir Panjal Range:
- It is a sub-range of the Himalayas.
- The famous Banihal Pass is located in this Range.
- It separates the Kashmir Valley from the Chenab Valley.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Four Army personnel were killed and three injured when their vehicles were ambushed by militants in in Rajouri district of Jammu and Kashmir.
Areas in the Pir Panjal range and to its south are also easier to access.
Any militant crossing over from the lower heights of Jammu have to traverse through multiple high ranges like Pir Panjal before they reach Kashmir Valley.
This challenges their logistical preparations and motivation.
Hence shorter and intense contacts have become the norm in the Jammu region
Pir Panjal is a sub-range of the Himalayas. So, statement 1 is correct.
The famous Banihal Pass is located in the Pir Panjal Range.So, statement 2 is correct.
Pir Panjal Range separates the Kashmir Valley from the Chenab Valley. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF):
- It works under the administrative control of Cabinet Committee of Security.
- CISF is not mandated to provide protection to the VIP protectees.
- It does not provide security to private / joint venture industrial undertakings.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
None of the above
xplanation :
Days after the Parliament security breach, the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has asked the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) to carry out a survey of the Parliament premises for regular deployment.
CISF works under the administrative control of Ministry of Home Affairs. So, statement 1 is not correct.
CISF has also been mandated to provide protection to the VIP protectees of Z+, Z, Y and X category across the country. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The CISF Act was amended to enable the Force to provide security, on payment basis, to private / joint venture industrial undertakings, which are vital for the security and economy of the country. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
What is the Information Fusion Centre-Indian Ocean Region (IFC-IOR)?
A regional center that facilitates information sharing and enhances maritime domain awareness in the Indian Ocean.
Explanation :
As per two maritime agencies, a drone strike damaged a merchant ship off the coast of India on December 23 but caused no casualties.
Indian Navy’s Information Fusion Centre for Indian Ocean Region (IFC-IOR) is coordinating the communication between the Navy and shipping company.
In December 2018, Indian launched the IFC-IOR, at Information Management and Analysis Centre (IMAC) Gurugram.
It was established for regional collaboration on maritime security issues such as:
maritime terrorism, illegal unregulated and unreported fishing (IUUF), piracy, armed robbery on the high seas, and human and contraband trafficking.
The IFC-IOR aims to engage with partner nations and multi-national maritime constructs.
The idea is to develop comprehensive maritime domain awareness and share information on vessels of interest (i.e., information on white shipping).
White shipping information refers to exchange of advance information on the identity and movement of commercial non-military merchant vessels.
Consider the following statements regarding the Wrestling Federation of India (WFI):
- Wrestling Federation of India (WFI) is a governing body of wrestling in India.
- It follows the rules and regulations set by the International Olympic Committee (IOC) and United World Wrestling (UWW).
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Sports Ministry have requested the Indian Olympic Association to constitute ad-hoc committee to manage and control affairs of the federation.
Earlier, the ministry had suspended the newly elected Wrestling Federation of India (WFI) body.
About
Wrestling Federation of India (WFI) is a governing body of wrestling. So, statement 1 is correct.
It was founded in 1958 and is based in New Delhi.
It promotes wrestling players for the Olympics, Asian Games, National Wrestling Championships, and World Wrestling Championships.
Affiliation
The Wrestling Federation of India is affiliated with the Indian Olympic Association (IOA).
It follows the rules and regulations set by the International Olympic Committee (IOC) and United World Wrestling (UWW).So, statement 2 is correct.
UWW is the international governing body for the sport of wrestling.
Its duties include overseeing wrestling at the World Championships and Olympics.
Consider the following statements regarding the Sub-Mission on Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM):
- The aim of this mission is to increase the reach of farm mechanization to small and marginal farmers.
- Purchase of drones have not been included under this mission.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Only 1
Explanation :
The aim of this mission is to increase the reach of farm mechanization to small and marginal farmers and to the regions & difficult area where farm power availability is low. So, statement 1 is correct.
The new guideline, published by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, has provisions related to subsidy for purchase/hiring of agricultural drone to make drone technology affordable to the stakeholders of this sector. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements:
- National Academy of Indian Railways (NAIR) is a training institute for Indian Railways (IR) officers.
- Gati Shakti Vishwavidyalaya (GSV) is sponsored by the Ministry of Railways.
- Indian Railways Institute of Disaster Management (IRIDM) is a national institute in Bengaluru that offers disaster management courses and training.
- Commissioner of Railway Safety (CRS) is a statutory body which is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Civil Aviation.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All four
Explanation :
The Ministry of Railways has made training in disaster management mandatory for railway officers.
The National Academy of Indian Railways (NAIR), Vadodara, and the Indian Railway Institute of Disaster Management (IRIDM), Bengaluru, would work together in imparting the comprehensive training programme.
The National Academy of Indian Railways (NAIR) is a training institute for Indian Railways (IR) officers. So, statement 1 is correct.
It was established in 1930 as the Railway Staff College and moved to its current location in Vadodara, Gujarat in 1952.
Gati Shakti Vishwavidyalaya (GSV) is a central university in Vadodara, Gujarat, India.
It was established in 2018 as the National Rail and Transportation Institute (NRTI) and upgraded to a central university in 2022.
The university is sponsored by the Ministry of Railways and is mandated to work across railways, shipping, ports, highways, roads, waterways, and aviation.So, statement 2 is correct.
IRIDM is a national institute in Bengaluru that offers disaster management courses and training. So, statement 3 is correct.
IRIDM envisioned in High Level Committee (HLC) on Disaster Management in Indian Railways, was Commissioned in the year 2019.
The Commissioner of Railway Safety (CRS) is a statutory body. It is headed by the Chief Commissioner of Railway Safety.
The CRS does not report to the Ministry of Railways of the Railway Board.
It is, in fact, under the administrative control of the Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA). So, statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements:
- The Department of Investments and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) under Ministry of Disinvestment is the nodal department for disinvestment.
- Disinvestment means sale or liquidation of assets by the government, usually Central and state public sector enterprises, projects, or other fixed assets.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2 only
Explanation :
As the upcoming general elections approach, the government is slowing down its push for privatization.
As a result, the disinvestment target for current fiscal year is again likely to be missed.
Disinvestment means sale or liquidation of assets by the government, usually Central and state public sector enterprises, projects, or other fixed assets. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Department of Investments and Public Asset Management (DIPAM), under Ministry of Finance, is the nodal department for disinvestment. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Application Supported by Blocked Amount (ASBA)-like facility:
- It allows investors to buy and sell shares in the secondary market without having to pay for the shares upfront.
- Under this facility, the investor’s bank account is only debited for the amount equivalent to the shares that have been allotted to them after the trading session is completed.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
ASBA is a facility introduced by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) that allows investors to buy and sell shares in the secondary market without having to pay for the shares upfront. So, statement 1 is correct
ASBA is a unique system that allows investors to apply for shares in an Initial Public Offering (IPO) without having to pay upfront. Under this facility, the investor’s bank account is only debited for the amount equivalent to the shares that have been allotted to them after the trading session is completed. So, statement 2 is correct.
This facility helps investors avoid the hassle of transferring funds to their trading account before buying or selling shares and reduces the risk of failed transactions.
Which of the following is NOT associated with the Guru Gobind Singh?
A. Institutionalization of Khalsa
B.Five items to be worn by Sikhs all the time
C.Compilation of Sikh scripture by the name of Adi Granth
D.Sikh scripture Ādi Granth made as the perpetual Sikh guru
Compilation of Sikh scripture by the name of Adi Granth
Explanation :
Recently, PM Modi said India is now coming out of the mindset of slavery and has full faith in its people, their abilities and heritage.
He made those remarks while speaking at a ‘Veer Bal Diwas’ event to commemorate the martyrdom of two sons of Guru Gobind Singh.
This was the second celebration of the Veer Bal Diwas.
The fifth Sikh Guru, Guru Arjan compiled Sikh scripture by the name of Adi Granth. It contained the hymns of the previous Gurus and may saints.
Consider the following statements regarding Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA):
- The UAPA in its current form cannot designate individuals as terrorists.
- No court can initiate legal proceedings for any offense under the UAPA without prior sanction from the central or state government.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
only 2
Explanation :
Israel has listed Lashkar-e-Taiba (LeT) as a terror organisation to symbolise the marking of 15th year of commemoration of the 26/11 Mumbai attacks.
The listing has been done by Israel on its own, without any request from India.
India has a zero-tolerance policy towards terrorism. It designates a group as a terrorist organisation under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA).
The UAPA was amended in 2019 to include the provision of designating an individual as a terrorist. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Section 45(1) of the UAPA says no court shall take cognizance of any offence under the Act without the previous sanction of the central or state government or any officer authorised by them. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following Indian States/UT:
1.Jammu and Kashmir
2.Himachal Pradesh
3.Uttarakhand
4.Sikkim
5.Arunachal Pradesh
Which of the above Indian States/UT share boundary with China?
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Explanation :
India shares 3488 km of border with China that runs along the states/UT of Jammu and Kashmir (1597 km), Himachal Pradesh (200 km), Sikkim (220 km), Uttarakhand (345 km) and Arunachal Pradesh (1126 km).
Which of the following does not represent a method by which Pegasus Spyware can infect a phone?
A.Zero click attack
B.Malicious link
C.Wireless transmitter
D.None of the above
None of the above
Explanation :
The Washington Post and Amnesty International report claims that Pegasus spyware targeted journalists in India.
The intrusion was detected in October 2023 after Apple warned users, including MPs, of potential ‘state-sponsored attacks’ on their iPhones.
Consider the following statements regarding the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India:
- Reserve Bank of India is the nodal agency responsible for policies related to FDI in India.
- In India, FDI limit, through automatic route, in insurance sector is 74%.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
only 2
Explanation :
Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade is the nodal institution responsible for policy formulation regarding the FDI in India. So, statement 1 is not correct.
In August 2021, the government allowed the 74% FDI limit in the insurance sector. So, statement 2 is correct.
With reference to UN Refugee Convention 1951, consider the following statements:
- The 1951 convention was initially limited to protecting European refugees after the World War II.
- The convention does not consider war criminals as refugees.
- India is not a signatory to the convention.
How many of the statement(s) given above is/are not correct?
None
Explanation :
UN Refugee Convention, 1951 is a United Nations multilateral treaty that defines who is a refugee, and sets out the rights of individuals who are granted asylum and the responsibilities of nations that grant asylum.
The Convention was initially limited to protecting European refugees after the World War II. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The 1967 protocol removes these geographical as well as temporal limits that were part of the 1951 Convention.
The Convention sets out which people do not qualify as refugees. e.g., war criminals. So, Statement 2 is correct.
India is not a signatory to the UN Refugee Convention, 1951.So, Statement 3 is correct.
With reference to Securities & Exchange Board of India (SEBI), consider the following statements:
- It is a statutory body.
- It functions under the jurisdiction of Ministry of Finance.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
SEBI is a statutory body established under the provisions of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992.So, Statement 1 is correct.
Securities and Exchange Board of India is an autonomous organization that works under overall administrative supervision of the Union Finance Ministry and is accountable to the Parliament. So, Statement 2 is correct.
With reference to National Cyclone Risk Mitigation Project (NCRMP), consider the following statements:
- NCRMP is an initiative of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
- National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is the implementing agency of the project.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The objective of the National Cyclone Risk Mitigation Project (NCRMP) is to undertake suitable structural and non-structural measures to mitigate the effects of cyclones in the coastal states and UTs of India. The project is assisted by the World Bank.
The Project has identified 13 cyclone prone States and Union Territories (UTs), with varying levels of vulnerability.
Category I – High Vulnerability States:
Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Odisha, Tamil Nadu and West Bengal.
Category II – Low Vulnerability States:
Maharashtra, Karnataka, Kerala, Goa, Pondicherry, Lakshadweep, Daman and Diu, Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
National Cyclone Risk Mitigation Project is an initiative of the Ministry of Home Affairs. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
NCRMP is implemented by the National Disaster Management Authority along with coordination from the respective state governments and the National Institute for Disaster Management (NIDM).So, Statement 2 is correct.
Which of the following chemical elements are found in e-waste material?
1.Lead
2.Mercury
3.Cadmium
4.Barium
5.Polyvinyl chloride
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Explanation :
Electronic waste (e-waste) encompasses a wide range of discarded electronic devices such as computers, mp3 players, televisions and cell phones.
Used electronics which are destined for refurbishment, reuse, resale, recycling through material recovery, or disposal are also considered e-waste.
E-waste contains chemicals such as lead, mercury, cadmium, barium, lithium, brominated flame retardants (BFRs) and polyvinyl chloride (PVC).
With reference to Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC), consider the following statements:
- OIC is the second-largest inter-governmental organisation in the world.
- India has the status of an Observer State in the OIC.
- Secretariat of OIC is located in Jeddah, Saudi Arabia.
How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
After United Nations General Assembly, OIC is the second-largest inter-governmental organisation in the world. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Currently, OIC has 57 member states.
India does not have the status of observes state in the OIC. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
However, in 2019, India’s Minister of External Affairs was invited as a ‘Guest of Honour’ at the Council of Foreign Ministers of the OIC.
Jeddah in Saudi Arabia serves as the secretariat of the OIC. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Eurozone:
- It consists of all the European Union (EU) countries that have fully incorporated the euro as their national currency.
- The member countries have the sole authority to set the monetary policy for their respective jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The eurozone economy is set for only modest growth next year, despite wages rising faster than inflation for the first time in three years, according to a recent poll of economists.
About Eurozone:
The eurozone, officially known as the euro area, is a geographic and economic region that consists of all the European Union countries that have fully incorporated the euro as their national currency.
As of January 2023, the eurozone consists of 20 countries in the European Union (EU):
Austria, Belgium, Croatia, Cyprus, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Ireland, Italy, Latvia, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, Netherlands, Portugal, Slovakia, Slovenia, and Spain.
Not all European Union nations participate in the eurozone; some opt to use their own currency and maintain their financial independence.
The European Central Bank (ECB) exercises the sole power to set the monetary policy for the Eurozone countries.
The ECB exercises the sole authority to decide the printing and minting of euro notes and coins. It also decides the interest rate for the Eurozone.
The ECBs is headed by a president and a board, comprising the heads of the central banks of the participating nations.
How do countries join Eurozone?
In order to join the euro area, EU member states are required to fulfil so-called ‘convergence criteria’ which consists of price stability, sound public finances, the durability of convergence, and exchange rate stability.
These binding economic and legal conditions were agreed upon in the Maastricht Treaty in 1992 and are also known as ‘Maastricht criteria’.
All EU Member States, except Denmark, are required to adopt the euro and join the euro area once they are ready to fulfill them.
The Treaty does not specify a particular timetable for joining the euro area but leaves it to member states to develop their own strategies for meeting the condition for euro adoption.
The European Commission and the ECB jointly decide whether the conditions are met for euro area candidate countries to adopt the euro.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.ft.com/content/395e8684-a354-4e19-bd09-85b9d98868ef
Agreement on the Prohibition of Attack against Nuclear Installations and Facilities is signed between which of the following countries?
Indian and Pakistan
Explanation :
Agreement on the Prohibition of Attack against Nuclear Installations and Facilities
About Agreement on the Prohibition of Attack against Nuclear Installations and Facilities:
It was signed on December 31, 1988, by the then Pakistani Prime Minister Benazir Bhutto and Indian PM Rajiv Gandhi.
The treaty came into force on January 27, 1991, and has two copies each in Urdu and Hindi.
Need for the Agreement:
In 1986, the Indian army carried out a massive exercise ‘Brasstacks’, raising fears of an attack on nuclear facilities.
Since then, both countries have been negotiating to reach an understanding towards the control of nuclear weapons, which culminated in the treaty.
Provisions:
The agreement mandates both countries to inform each other about any nuclear installations and facilities to be covered under the agreement on the first of January of every calendar year, providing a confidence-building security measure environment.
The term ‘nuclear installation or facility’ includes nuclear power and research reactors, fuel fabrication, uranium enrichment, iso-topes separation, and reprocessing facilities, as well as any other installations with fresh or irradiated nuclear fuel and materials in any form and establishments storing significant quantities of radioactive materials.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/india-pakistan-exchange-list-of-nuclear-installations/videoshow/106457836.cms?from=mdr
With reference to Bubble Baby Syndrome, consider the following statements:
- It is a rare genetic disorder.
- It affects infection-fighting white blood cells in the body.
- The most common treatment for his condition is a stem cell transplant.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
A two-month-old girl with bubble baby syndrome underwent bone marrow transplant (BMT) in Mumbai recently.
About Bubble Baby Syndrome:
‘Bubble baby syndrome,’ known medically as Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) is very rare genetic disorder that causes life-threatening problems with the immune system.
It is a type of primary immune deficiency.
The disease is known as “living in the bubble” syndrome because living in a normal environment can be fatal to a child who has it.
What happens in SCID?
In a developing baby, the immune system starts in the bone marrow. Stem cells can become any of three different types of blood cells.
red blood cells
white blood cells
platelets
White blood cells (WBCs) protect the body from infections and foreign invaders. There are different kinds of WBCs, including lymphocytes.
Lymphocytes come in two main types: B-cells and T-cells. These cells are key to fighting infections.
T cells identify, attack, and kill “invaders.”
B cells make antibodies that “remember” an infection and are ready in case the body is exposed to it again.
SCID is a “combined” immunodeficiency because it affects both of these infection-fighting white blood cells.
In SCID, the child’s body has too few lymphocytes or lymphocytes that don’t work properly.
Because the immune system doesn’t work as it should, it can be difficult or impossible for it to battle the germs—viruses, bacteria, and fungi—that cause infections.
Causes:
Inherited mutations in more than different genes cause SCID.
This means one or both birth parents pass down the disease to their child.
Symptoms: Babies with SCID may appear healthy at birth, but problems can start soon after, such as:
failure to thrive
chronic diarrhea
frequent, often serious respiratory infections
oral thrush (a type of yeast infection in the mouth)
other bacterial, viral, or fungal infections that can be serious and hard to treat.
Treatment:
SCID is a pediatric emergency. Without treatment, babies are not likely to survive past their first birthday.
The most common treatment is a stem cell transplant (also called a bone marrow transplant). This means the child receives stem cells from a donor. The hope is that these new cells will rebuild the child’s immune system.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.deccanherald.com/india/two-month-old-becomes-the-youngest-to-get-bone-marrow-transplant-in-mumbai-2830602
With reference to Indian Pangolin, consider the following statements:
- It is endemic to the Deccan Peninsula only.
- It is an insectivore and a nocturnal mammal.
- It prefers soil that is soft and semi-sandy which is suitable for digging burrows.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The pangolin conservation project launched to protect pangolins has succeeded at Pench Tiger Reserve and Satpura Tiger Reserve, as the mammals have started to breed there.
What are Pangolins?
Pangolins, also known as scaly anteaters, are the only known mammals with large keratin scales covering their skin.
Of the eight species found worldwide (four each in Asia and Africa), two are found in India: the Indian Pangolin (Manis crassicaudata) and the Chinese Pangolin (Manis pentadactyla).
About Indian Pangolin:
The Indian pangolin, also called the thick-tailed pangolin, is native to the Indian subcontinent.
They are one of the most trafficked mammals in the world, despite an international ban on their trade.
Distribution: It lives in India (south of the Himalayas), Bangladesh, Southern Nepal, Sri Lanka, and small parts of Pakistan.
Habitat:
They are well adapted to desert regions and prefer barren, hilly areas. Their habitat extends up to 2,500 feet above sea level.
Overall, they prefer soil that is soft and semi-sandy, suitable for digging burrows.
They have also been shown to survive in various types of tropical forests, open land, grasslands, and in close proximity to villages.
Features:
Like other pangolins, it has large, overlapping scales on its body, which act as armor.
The Indian pangolin’s armor is among the most effective in the mammalian world. It has about 13 rows of moveable, sharp scales covering its body, which are shed periodically.
The colour of its scales varies depending on the colour of the earth in its surroundings.
It can also curl itself into a ball as self-defense against predators.
It is an insectivore, feeding on ants and termites.
It is nocturnal and it rests in deep burrows during the day.
Conservation status:
IUCN Red List: Endangered
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I
CITES: Appendix I
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.freepressjournal.in/bhopal/mp-wildlife-pangolin-conservation-project-succeeds-in-state
The KH-22 supersonic cruise missile is developed by:
Russia
Explanation :
Ukraine Air Force spokesperson recently disclosed that the country’s air defense units were unable to shot down any of the KH-22 supersonic cruise missiles launched by Russia.
About KH-22 Missile:
It is a Soviet-era long-range airborne supersonic cruise missile.
Armed with a nuclear or highly explosive fragmenting cumulative warhead, it was initially designed to destroy aircraft carriers and other large warships, or even groups of such carriers.
The Kh-22 family was developed in the USSR in the 1960s and specifically designed to be launched from Tupolev-22 bombers.
Later, both the missiles and the aircraft were modernized as part of the so-called “Kh-22 special air-to-surface missile complex.”
Upgraded in the 1970s, the missile had an impressive speed of 4,000 kilometers per hour, a 1,000-kilogram warhead, and a range of 500 kilometers.
It weighs 5,820 kilograms.
A total of approximately 3,000 such missiles were produced in the USSR.
After the USSR collapsed, quite a few of them remained in Ukraine. However, soon after independence in 1991, Ukraine gave up its nuclear and strategic aviation arsenal.
In 2000, Ukraine transferred 386 Kh-22 missiles to Russia as an installment against the gas debt.
The successor to the Kh-22 became the Kh-32, which can be carried by the new Russian Tu-22M3M bombers. The new missile features a conventional warhead, an improved rocket motor, and a new radar imaging terminal seeker. It has a longer range but a smaller warhead.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.eurasiantimes.com/deadlier-than-hypersonic-weapon-why-ukraine-fears-russias/
Consider the following statements regarding the e-SCR portal:
- It provides the digital version of the Supreme Court’s judgments.
- It is developed with the help of the National Informatics Centre.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 AND 2
Explanation :
The Electronic Supreme Court Reports (e-SCR) portal starting with just 2,238 translated judgments as of January 2023 and ending the year with over 31,000 rulings translated.
It is an initiative to provide the digital version of the apex court’s judgments in the manner as they are reported in the official law report.
The Supreme Court has developed a search engine with the help of the National Informatics Centre.
It is comprising elastic search technique in the database of e-SCR and the search facility in e-SCR provides for free text search, search within search, case type and case year search, judge search, year and volume search and bench strength search options.
It will provide free access to it’s about 34,000 judgements to lawyers, law students and the common public.
These verdicts will be available on the apex court website, its mobile app and on the judgment portal of the National Judicial Data Grid (NJDG).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/scs-translation-projects-raced-ahead-in-2023-as-retd-hc-judges-law-clerks-help-ai/article67692773.ece
Cigaritis meghamalaiensis, recently seen in the news, is a:
Butterfly
Explanation :
The pristine hills of the Meghamalai in Tamil Nadu have thrown up a new species of ‘silverline’ butterflies.
Cigaritis meghamalaiensis is the new species of butterfly.
It has become the first butterfly species to be described from the Western Ghats in 33 years.
The researchers had first come across the distinct species belonging to the Cigaritis genus in the high elevations of Periyar in Idukki in 2018.
Further explorations have revealed the species to be confined to the Meghamalais and the adjoining Periyar Tiger Reserve.
Appearance
The discal and post-discal bands on the forewing underside of the adult butterfly are conjoined and lie parallel from their origin at the costa.
The unique feature distinguishes the new species from all other Cigaritis occurring in Peninsular India and Sri Lanka.
There are seven species of Cigaritisin the Western Ghats, viz., C. vulcanus, C. schistacea, C. ictis, C. elima elima, C. lohita lazularia, C. lilacinus, and C. abnormis. Of these, all except C. lilacinus have been reported from the southern Western Ghats.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/meghamalai-hills-present-a-new-winged-beauty/article67692971.ece
With reference to Carbon-14 isotope, consider the following statements:
- It is created when cosmic rays collide into the atoms of the gases.
- It combines with atmospheric oxygen to form carbon monoxide.
- It enters the plants via photosynthesis.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The technique called radiocarbon dating brought the first verifiable way to do this to many fields of science, transforming them – and our world – to a significant degree.
Dating’ is a method by which the age of an object can be determined. Radiocarbon dating refers to a method that does this using radiocarbon, a name for the isotope carbon-14.
How does carbon-14 form?
It is created in the earth’s atmosphere when cosmic rays – energetic streams of charged particles coming from sources in outer space – slam into the atoms of the gases and release neutrons.
When these neutrons interact with the nitrogen-14 nitrogen isotope, they can produce carbon-14.
Since cosmic rays are ceaselessly passing through the earth’s atmosphere, carbon-14 is created constantly there.
It is readily combines with atmospheric oxygen to form radioactive carbon dioxide.
This compound then enters the bodies of plants (via photosynthesis), animals (when they consume plants), and other biomass through the carbon cycle.
It is in the form of carbon dioxide and other carbon compounds, would have to be able to diffuse into the earth’s various ecosystems such that the concentration of carbon-14 in the atmosphere was comparable to the concentration of carbon-14 in the planet’s other biospheres.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/radiocarbon-dating-history-science-revolution-politics-explained/article67692713.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the X-ray Polarimeter Satellite (XPoSat) mission:
- It is launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
- It aims to study black hole binaries and low-magnetic field neutron stars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) launched the PSLV-C58 X-ray Polarimeter Satellite (XPoSat) mission.
It is the first dedicated scientific satellite from ISRO to carry out research in space-polarisation measurements of X-ray emission from celestial sources.
It carries two payloads namely
POLIX: It is an X-ray Polarimeter for astronomical observations in the energy band of 8-30 keV.
The payload is being developed by Raman Research Institute (RRI), Bangalore in collaboration with U R Rao Satellite Centre (URSC).
It is expected to observer about 40 bright astronomical sources of different categories during the planned lifetime of XPoSat mission of about 5 years.
This is the first payload in the medium X-ray energy band dedicated for polarimetry measurements.
XSPECT: It is an X-ray SPECtroscopy and Timing payload onboard XPoSat, which can provide fast timing and good spectroscopic resolution in soft X-rays.
It can provide long-term monitoring of spectral state changes in continuum emission, changes in their line flux and profile, simultaneous long term temporal monitoring of soft X-ray emission in the X-ray energy range 0.8-15 keV.
It would observe several types of sources viz X-ray pulsars, blackhole binaries, low-magnetic field neutron star (NS) in LMXBs, AGNs and Magnetars.
The launch put India in an elite category as it has become the second (after NASA’s Imaging X-ray Polarimetry Explorer (IXPE) launched in 2021) nation to send an observatory to study astronomical sources such as black holes, neutron stars among others
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/pslv-rocket-with-x-ray-polarimeter-and-10-other-satellites-lifts-off-from-sriharikota/article67694577.ece
The Exercise Desert Cyclone is conducted between India and:
United Arab Emirates
Explanation :
The Joint Military Exercise ‘Desert Cyclone 2024’ between India and UAE will be held from January 2 to January 15 in Rajasthan.
It is the inaugural edition of joint military exercise “Desert Cyclone 2024”between India and the United Arab Emirates (UAE).
The exercise aims to enhance interoperability by learning & sharing best practices in Urban Operations.
This exercise is marking a significant milestone in the strategic partnership.
Key facts about India and UAE relations
India and the UAE established diplomatic relations in 1972 and UAE opened its Embassy in Delhi in 1972 whereas, India opened its Embassy in Abu Dhabi in 1973.
The first-ever India-UAE Joint Air Forces exercise took place in September 2008 at the Al-Dhafra base in Abu Dhabi.
India has also been a regular participant at the biennial International Defence Exhibition (IDEX) in Abu Dhabi.
Earlier this year, two ships of the Indian Navy, INS Visakhapatnam, and INS Trikand participated in bilateral exercise ‘Zayed Talwar’ with the UAE to enhance interoperability and synergy between the two navies.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://newsonair.gov.in/News?title=Joint-Military-Exercise-Desert-Cyclone-between-India-and-UAE-begins-in-Rajasthan&id=474368
Consider the following statements regarding Green Honeycreeper:
- It is a species of small bird native to the South and Southeast Asia.
- It is classified as Endangered under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Ornithologists in Colombia recently photographed a wild green honeycreeper with distinct half-green, or female, and half-blue, male, plumage.
About Green Honeycreeper:
It is a small bird in the tanager family.
Scientific Name: Chlorophanes spiza
Distribution: The New World Tropics (Rainforests in Central and South America), from Mexico to Brazil.
Features:
It is 13–14 cm long and weighs 14 to 23 grams.
Its plumage is strikingly sexually dimorphic. The male is mainly blue-tinged green with a black head and a mostly bright yellow bill. The female is grass-green, paler on the throat, and lacks the male’s iridescence and black head.
They are called Green Honeycreepers because the females and young birds are bright green with red eyes.
Although males have, on average, slightly longer wings and tails than females, there is considerable variation within each sex and much overlap.
It feeds largely on nectar, fruit, and insects and often frequents feeders supplying fruit.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Least Concern
Hence both statements are not correct.
News:https://www.sci.news/biology/bilaterally-gynandromorphic-green-honeycreeper-12523.html
Chandaka-Dampara Wildlife Sanctuary is located in:
Odisha
Explanation :
As a first, the Forest Department in Odisha has planned a ‘nocturnal trail’ for people, especially students and researchers, in the Chandaka-Dampara Wildlife Sanctuary.
About Chandaka-Dampara Wildlife Sanctuary:
Location: It lies partly within Khurda and partly in Cuttack Districts of Odisha State, and is in close proximity to the state capital, Bhubaneswar.
It is nestled in the Khordha uplands of the ‘North-Eastern Ghats’ biotic region.
Spread over 193.39 sq.km of rolling table land and small sprawling hillocks, it is a wildlife sanctuary since August 1982.
It is known for the successful conservation of elephants, which is the principal species here.
Vegetation: The floral diversity of the sanctuary is distributed in six types, which include secondary moist miscellaneous semi-evergreen forests, moist Kangada (Xyliaxylocarpa) forests, Coastal Sal forests, thorny bamboo brakes, planted Teak, and Eupatorium scrub.
There are two water reservoirs, Deras Dam and Jhumka Dam, situated within the sanctuary.
Flora: The main tree species are Kochila, Kalicha, Belo, Kangada, Giringa, Sunari, Sal, Kumbhi, Jamu, Karanja, Teak, and Sidha.
Fauna:
Apart from elephants, other mammals include Leopard, Chital, Barking deer, Mouse deer, Wild pig, Common langur, Rhesus monkey, small Indian civet, etc.
Prominent birds of the sanctuary are Peafowl, Red jungle fowl, Crested serpent eagle, Great horned owl, Black headed oriole, etc.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/odisha/2024/jan/01/forest-department-in-odishaplans-nocturnal-trail-in–dampara-wildlife-sanctuary-2646736.html
With reference to the River Devika Project, consider the following statements:
- It is a river rejuvenation project implemented in Jammu and Kashmir.
- It plans to develop bathing “ghats” and catchment areas.
- Its entire cost is borne by the State Government.
How many of the above statements are correct?
only two
Explanation :
North India’s first river rejuvenation project, ‘Devika’, is in the final stages. and it will be soon dedicated to the nation by the Prime Minister.
About River Devika Project:
Built on the lines of ‘Namami Ganga’, the project was launched in February 2019.
It is north India’s first river rejuvenation project.
The project is implemented along the Devika River in Jammu and Kashmir.
It has been included in the Government of India’s National River Conservation Project (NRCP).
Under the project, bathing “ghats” (places) on the banks of the Devika River will be developed, encroachments will be removed, natural water bodies will be restored, and catchment areas will be developed along with cremation ground.
The project includes the construction of three sewage treatment plants with 8 MLD, 4 MLD and 1.6 MLD capacities, a sewerage network of 129.27 km, the development of two cremation ghats, protection fencing and landscaping, small hydropower plants, and three solar power plants.
Built at a cost of over Rs 190 crore, the sharing of fund allocation is in the ratio of 90:10 by the centre and UT, respectively.
On completion of the project, the rivers will see a reduction in pollution and an improvement in water quality.
It will offer a unique destination both for pilgrim tourists as well as recreation tourists, in addition to being a state-of-the-art cremation centre.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.financialexpress.com/business/infrastructure-pm-modi-set-to-unveilnbspnorth-indias-first-river-rejuvenation-project-devika-check-key-features-here-3352377/
What is the maximum punishment under the Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) for a driver who causes a serious road accident due to careless driving and leaves without informing the police or any official?
10 years in jail and a fine of Rs 7 lakh
Explanation :
The countrywide truckers’ stir has been called off recently as the government assured that it would consult stakeholders before implementing a contentious law against hit-and-run.
About the new hit-and-run law:
As per the Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS), which is a replacement for the British-era Indian Penal Code (IPC), if a driver causes a serious road accident due to careless driving and then leaves without informing the police or any official, they could be punished with up to 10 years in jail and a fine of Rs 7 lakh.
BNS has established two distinct categories under the umbrella of “causing death by negligence.”
The first category addresses causing death through any rash or negligent act that does not amount to culpable homicide.
Offenders in this category may face imprisonment for up to five years and a fine.
The second category deals with causing death through rash and negligent driving, not amounting to culpable homicide.
If the individual escapes without promptly reporting the incident to a police officer or magistrate, they could be subjected to up to 10 years of imprisonment and a fine.
What was the hit-and-run law before?
The old, British-era IPC did not have a specific provision for hit-and-run cases.
Actions in such cases were taken under Section 304 A of the IPC.
As per this section, an individual causing the death of another due to a reckless or negligent act could face a maximum jail term of two years or a fine.
All cases of hit-and-run, along with other forms of activities that came under the ambit of causing death by a “rash and negligent act” were lodged under Section 304A of the IPC.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/hit-and-run-stir-breakthrough-truckers-body-appeals-for-end-to-protests-4788602
Consider the following statements regarding Karman Line:
- It is an imaginary line that demarcates the earth’s atmosphere from outer space.
- It is established by the United Nations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Kármán line lacks a specific national demarcation, resembling the concept of international waters.
About Karman Line:
Located at 100 km (62 miles) above sea level, it is an imaginary line that demarcates the earth’s atmosphere from space.
It was established in the 1960s by a record-keeping body called the Fédération Aéronautique Internationale (FAI).
It was named after aerospace pioneer Theodore von Kármán.
Though not all scientists and spacefarers accept it (for example, the Federal Aviation Administration, NASA, and the U.S. military place the line between outer space and the atmosphere at 80 km (50 miles) above the Earth’s surface), a majority of countries and space organisations recognise this boundary between earth sky and space.
It is based on physical reality in the sense that it roughly marks the altitude where traditional aircraft can no longer effectively fly.
Anything traveling above the Kármán line needs a propulsion system that doesn’t rely on lift generated by Earth’s atmosphere—the air is simply too thin that high up.
In other words, the Kármán line is where the physical laws governing a craft’s ability to fly shift.
Anyone who crosses this line qualifies as an astronaut.
Why do we need a Kármán line?
The 1967 Outer Space Treaty says that space should be accessible to all countries and can be freely and scientifically investigated.
Defining a legal boundary of what and where space can help avoid disputes and keep track of space activities and human space travel.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.financialexpress.com/business/defence-the-crucial-role-of-the-krmn-line-in-space-defense-strategies-3352829/
Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Statistical Commission:
- Its members are elected by the United Nations Economic and Social Council.
- India is currently a member of the Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, India started its four-year term as a member of the United Nations Statistical Commission.
It was established in 1947 and is the highest body of the global statistical system.
It brings together the Chief Statisticians from member states from around the world.
Functions:
It is the highest decision-making body for international statistical activities, responsible for setting statistical standards and the development of concepts and methods, including their implementation at the national and international levels.
The Statistical Commission oversees the work of the United Nations Statistics Division (UNSD), and it is a Functional Commission of the UN Economic and Social Council.
Membership: The Commission consists of 24 member countries of the United Nations elected by the United Nations Economic and Social Council based on an equitable geographical distribution according to the following pattern:
Five members from African States
Four members from Asia-Pacific States
Four members from Eastern European States
Four members from Latin American and Caribbean States
Seven members from Western European and other States
Term: The term of office of members is four years.
India was a member of the Statistical Commission last in 2004 and the country is returning to the UN agency after a gap of two decades.
Headquarter: New York
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/policy/india-starts-four-year-term-as-un-statistical-commission-member/articleshow/106445998.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the Direct-to-Mobile (D2M) technology:
- It is a combination of broadband and broadcast that uses mobile phones to capture territorial digital TV signals.
- It can be used in emergency alert warning purposes without depending on internet/cellular networks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Indian telecom operators have asked the government to auction the spectrum that will be used for direct-to-mobile (D2M) technology services.
The science behind D2M is similar to that of an FM radio, where a receiver within the device can tap into different radio frequencies.
This new-age technology is a combination of broadband and broadcast that uses mobile phones to capture territorial digital TV signals.
Using D2M, multimedia content, including live TV matches, can be streamed to phones directly without using the internet.
D2M can ensure-
Emergency alerts are delivered directly, reliably and without dependence on internet/cellular networks.
Disaster Management audio content is delivered directly and authentically in a targeted manner.
With D2M, governments can broadcast citizen-centric information.
This approach benefits consumers by reducing their reliance on internet data consumption for staying informed and entertained.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/gadgets-news/why-telcos-are-asking-govt-to-auction-direct-to-mobile-services-spectrum/articleshow/106323835.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the Hattee community:
- They are governed by a traditional council called Khumbli.
- They live in the North eastern states of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Himachal Pradesh state government has finally issued notification to give Scheduled Tribe (ST) status to the Hattee community of Trans-Giri area of Sirmaur district.
They are a close-knit community who got their name from their tradition of selling homegrown vegetables, crops, meat and wool etc. at small markets called ‘haat’ in towns.
Their homeland straddles the Himachal-Uttarakhand border in the basin of the Giri and Tons rivers, both tributaries of the Yamuna.
This community’s men generally don a distinctive white headgear during ceremonies, is cut off from Sirmaur by two rivers called Giri and Tons. Tons divide it from the Jaunsar Bawar area of Uttarakhand.
The Hattees who live in the trans-Giri area and Jaunsar Bawar in Uttarakhand were once part of the royal estate of Sirmaur until Jaunsar Bawar’s separation in 1815.
They are governed by a traditional council called Khumbli.
The two Hattee clans, in Trans-Giri and Jaunsar Bawar, have similar traditions, and inter-marriages are common.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/himachal-pradesh-implements-st-tag-for-hattees-after-centre-clarifies-on-sc-community-of-same-name/article67696001.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Warli Tribes:
- They mainly live in the bordering regions of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
- They celebrate a festival called Bohada.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Indigenous Warli Tribe, living near Sanjay Gandhi National Park in Maharashtra teaches a lesson about peaceful coexistence with leopards.
They are an adivasi indigenous tribe who live in the mountainous, coastal, and bordering regions of Gujarat and Maharashtra.
The word ‘Warli’ is derived from the word ‘Warla,’ which means ‘piece of land’.
Language - The Warli people speak Varli or Warli, an Indo-Aryan language. The language is typically classified as Marathi, but it is also known as Konkani or Bhil.
Culture – They have their own animistic beliefs, way of life, customs, and traditions, and they have adopted many Hindu beliefs.
The Warli culture is centred on the concept of Mother Nature, and natural elements are frequently depicted as focal points in Warli painting.
The Warli tribe values folk art as well as gods, goddesses, and ritual culture. They use painting to depict their traditional way of life, customs, and traditions. The majority of these paintings are created by women.
Style & attire - The Warli Tribe women wear a Lugden that is worn until the knee and is typically a one yard sari. The Maharashtrian rural regions influenced the sari. The knee length draping resembles the Maharashtrian sari draping style.
Festival: Bohada is a three-day mask festival held by the Warli tribes. During this celebration, mask owners wear these masks and perform several times.
Dance & music - The Warli Tribes perform Tarpa Dance along with Tarpa music instruments.
They usually perform in groups. One person plays music with a Tarpa instrument and the rest of the people form a circle keeping the musician in the centre and dance with people.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/maharashtra-s-indigenous-warlis-teach-a-lesson-about-peaceful-coexistence-with-leopards-93659
Consider the following statements regarding the Genocide Convention 1948:
- Under it, an act of imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group is called as genocide.
- India has not ratified this convention.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, South Africa moved the International Court of Justice (ICJ), for an urgent order declaring that Israel was in breach of its obligations under the 1948 Genocide Convention.
The term ‘genocide’ is often loosely used when speaking of attacks against various communities across the world.
It has been defined using set criteria in the UN’s Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide, moved in the General Assembly in 1948.
It says, “In the present Convention, genocide means any of the following acts committed with intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial or religious group, as such:
Killing members of the group;
Causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group;
Deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of life calculated to bring about its physical destruction in whole or in part;
Imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group;
Forcibly transferring children of the group to another group.
As per this convention the genocide is a crime whether committed during wartime or peacetime.
India ratified the convention in 1959; there is no legislation on the subject.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/why-south-africa-filed-genocide-case-israel-icj-9089770/
Consider the following statements regarding Kavaratti Island:
- It is located in the centre of the Lakshadweep archipelago.
- It is being developed as a smart city under the flagship Smart Cities Mission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Prime Minister received a warm welcome in Kavaratti, Lakshadweep, recently as he arrived to inaugurate and lay the foundation for numerous development projects.
About Kavaratti Island:
Kavaratti is the capital of Lakshadweep (smallest Union Territory of India) and its most developed island.
It lies 360 km of the coast of the State of Kerala.
It is located in the centre of the Lakshadweep archipelago. It is located between Agatti Island on the west and Andrott Island on the east.
It has an area of 4.22 sq km. The maximum length of the island is 5.8 km, and width is 1.6 km.
The island is 2 to 5 m above the mean sea level on the western side and 2 to 3 m on the eastern side.
There is a shallow lagoon on the western side of the island, and coconut palms grow on the northern side.
The island is home to 12 atolls, five submerged banks, and three coral reefs.
Strangely, Kavaratti has a small inland lake at its northern end.
Kavaratti town is noted for the carved wooden pillars and roofs of its mosques and the carved stones of its graveyards.
It has the maximum percentage of non–islanders as residents.
Languages Spoken: Malayalam and Mahl
Karavatti has been selected as one of the hundred Indian cities to be developed as a smart city under the flagship Smart Cities Mission.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.latestly.com/socially/india/news/pm-narendra-modi-arrives-in-kavaratti-to-inaugurate-lay-foundation-for-development-projects-watch-video-5667318.html
Consider the following:
- Balhatya Pratibandhak Griha
- Satyashodhak Samaj
- Mahila Seva Mandal
- Arya Mahila Sabha
How many of the above are related to Savitribai Phule?
Only three
Explanation :
Every year on January 3rd, India celebrates a special day called Savitribai Phule Jayanti.
About Savitribai Phule:
Born in a small village in Satara district of Maharashtra on January 3, 1831, Savitribai Phule was an Indian social reformer, poet, and powerful voice in the Indian freedom struggle.
She was an active participant in the women’s liberation movement.
Savitribai trained at Ms. Farar’s Institution in Ahmednagar and at Ms. Mitchell’s school in Pune to become the first female teacher in India.
Savitribai Phule and her husband, Jyotirao Phule (one of the most famous social reformers in Maharashtra), opened India’s first school for women in Pune in 1848.
Despite resistance from society, by 1851, Phule was running 18 schools for children of different castes, with a strength of 150 girls.
They also established two educational trusts: the Native Female School, Pune, and the Society for Promoting the Education of Mahars, Mangs, and others from downtrodden castes.
In 1852, the British government acknowledged the great work of the Phule family in the field of education and honored Savitribai by naming her the best teacher.
She, along with her husband, Jyotirao Phule, actively worked against the caste-based discrimination prevalent in society.
She played a crucial role in grooming Jyotirao Phule’s pioneering institution, Satyashodhak Samaj (1873) that fought for equality of all classes.
In 1852, she initiated the Mahila Seva Mandal, a platform aimed at creating awareness about women’s rights. Notably, this platform brought together members of all castes, challenging entrenched social hierarchies.
Savitribai Phule was a vocal advocate for the rights of widows. She campaigned against the prevailing customs that forced widows into a life of deprivation and for the right of widows to remarry.
Savitribai organized a barbers’ strike in both Mumbai and Pune to demonstrate their opposition to the practice of shaving the heads of widows.
Savitribai also fought against dowry and other oppressive social customs.
In 1863, Jyotirao and Savitribai began Balhatya Pratibandhak Griha, India’s first home prohibiting infanticide, helping pregnant Brahmin widows and rape victims.
Savitribai Phule wrote two books, Kavya Phule in 1854 and Bavan Kashi Subodh Ratnakar in 1892, which are collections of her poems.
She wrote the famous poem ‘Go Get Education’ to encourage backward and oppressed class people to get an education.
Her birth anniversary, celebrated as Savitribai Phule Jayanti, is a day to commemorate her legacy and contributions to education and social equality.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/information/story/savitribai-phule-jayanti-celebrating-the-lady-who-lit-the-lamp-of-learning-2483498-2024-01-03
Kuna National Park is located near which one of the following mountain ranges?
Vindhya
Explanation :
Three cubs were born to the Namibian cheetah Aasha at Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh’s Sheopur district recently.
About Kuna National Park:
Location:
It is located in the Sheopur district of Madhya Pradesh.
It is nestled near the Vindhyan Hills.
It is named after the Kuno River (one of the main tributaries of the Chambal River) that cuts across it.
Initially established as a wildlife sanctuary, it was only in 2018 that the government changed its status into a national park.
It was selected under ‘Action Plan for Introduction of Cheetah in India’. It has gained international recognition for conservation and restoration because of the recent reintroduction of cheetahs.
Vegetation: The vegetation in the park varies from tropical dry deciduous forest to savannah grasslands.
Landscape: It is characterized by rocky hills, ravines, and plateaus.
Flora: Kardhai, Salai, and Khair trees dominate the forested area.
Fauna:
The protected area of the forest is home to the jungle cat, Indian leopard, sloth bear, Indian wolf, striped hyena, golden jackal, Bengal fox, and dhole, along with more than 120 bird species.
It is known for its population of Asiatic lions, which were translocated from Gir National Park in Gujarat in 2021 as part of a conservation effort to establish a second population of the species.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/india/namibian-cheetah-aasha-gives-birth-to-3-cubs-in-kuno-9093800/
Consider the following statements regarding Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC):
- It is a statutory body.
- It works under the Union Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Quality Council of India (QCI) and Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) recently signed an initial pact to enhance the quality of the latter’s products, train artisans, and introduce ‘Made in India’ label for Khadi.
About Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC):
It is a statutory body established under the Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act of 1956.
It is an apex organization under the Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises, with regard to khadi and village industries within India.
The KVIC is charged with the planning, promotion, organisation and implementation of programmes for the development of Khadi and other village industries in rural areas in coordination with other agencies engaged in rural development wherever necessary.
The functions of the KVIC are as follows:
To build a strategic reserve of raw materials and implements for supply to producers.
To create common service facilities for processing raw materials as semi-finished goods and provisions for facilities for marketing KVI products.
To enhance the sale and marketing of Khadi and other products of village industries or handicrafts.
To be responsible for encouraging and promoting research in the production techniques and equipment employed in the Khadi and Village Industries sectors.
To provide financial assistance to institutions and individuals for developing and guiding the Khadi and Village industries through the supply of designs, prototypes, and other technical information.
To assure the genuineness of the products and to set standards for the quality of products from Khadi and Village Industries.
At the state level, Khadi & Village Industries Boards were set up to effectively implement the schemes of KVIC in their respective states.
The following are the schemes covered under the KVIC:
Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP)
Market Promotion Development Assistance (MPDA)
Interest Subsidy Eligibility Certificate (ISEC)
Workshed Scheme for Khadi Artisans
Strengthening the infrastructure of existing weak Khadi institutions and assistance for marketing infrastructure
Khadi Reform and Development Programme (KRDP)
Scheme of Fund for Regeneration of Traditional Industries (SFURTI)
Honey Mission
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.theweek.in/wire-updates/business/2024/01/03/des21-gj-khadi.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Swadesh Darshan Scheme:
- It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme launched by the Union Ministry of Culture.
- Operation & Maintenance (O&M) of the projects is the responsibility of the respective State Governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Kármán line lacks a specific national demarcation, resembling the concept of international waters.
About Swadesh Darshan Scheme:
It was launched in 2015 by the Ministry of Tourism, Government of India, to develop sustainable and responsible tourism destinations in the country.
It is 100% centrally funded scheme.
Under the scheme, the Ministry of Tourism provides financial assistance to State governments, Union Territory Administrations or Central Agencies for development of tourism infrastructure in the country.
Operation & Maintenance (O&M) of the projects sanctioned under Swadesh Darshan Scheme is the responsibility of the respective State Government/UT Administration.
Swadesh Darshan 2.0:
The Ministry of Tourism has revamped its Swadesh Darshan scheme as Swadesh Darshan 2.0 (SD2.0) for development of sustainable and responsible tourist destinations covering tourism and allied infrastructure, tourism services, human capital development, destination management and promotion backed by policy and institutional reforms.
The objective for the Swadesh Darshan 2.0 scheme envisage increase in private sector investment in tourism & hospitality.
It may help in increasing Public Private Partnerships (PPP) in the field of tourism and operation and maintenance of the created assets under the scheme.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/bhubaneswar/explore-debrigarh-wildlife-sanctuary-and-khinda-in-sambalpur/articleshow/106500179.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the SMART (Scope for Mainstreaming Ayurveda Research in Teaching Professionals) Program:
- It intends to promote robust clinical studies in Ayurveda academic institutions/hospitals across India.
- It is an initiative of NITI Aayog.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS) along with National Commission for Indian System of Medicine (NCISM) has launched ‘SMART 2.0’ program.
Scope for Mainstreaming Ayurveda Research among Teaching professionals (SMART) program promotes robust clinical studies in priority areas of Ayurveda with Ayurveda academic institutions/hospitals across the country through mutual collaboration.
The objective of ‘SMART 2.0’ is to generate a tangible evidence to demonstrate efficacy and safety of Ayurveda interventions using interdisciplinary research methods and translating it into public health care.
The study aims at safety, tolerability and adherence to Ayurveda formulations in the priority research areas of Bal Kasa, malnutrition, insufficient lactation, Abnormal Uterine Bleeding, Osteoporosis in post-menopausal women and Diabetes Mellitus (DM) II.
What is CCRAS?
It is an autonomous body of the Ministry of AYUSH (Ayurveda, Yoga & Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha and Homeopathy), Government of India.
It is an apex body in India for the formulation, coordination, development and promotion of research on scientific lines in Ayurveda and Sowa-Rigpa system of medicine.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1992696
Consider the following statements regarding the Square Kilometer Array Observatory:
- It is the world’s biggest radio telescope to address a wide variety of scientific goals.
- India is part of this international mega science project.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Government of India has accorded its approval for India’s participation in the international mega science project, Square Kilometer Array (SKA), at an estimated cost of 1250 Cr rupees.
It is a state of the art, mega science international facility to build the world’s biggest and most sensitive radio telescope for addressing a wide variety of cutting-edge science goals.
The SKAO, collocated in Australia (SKA-Low) and South Africa (SKA-Mid) with operational headquarters in the UK, is expected to revolutionize radio astronomy, while driving the growth of many important new state-of-the-art technologies.
Other ten countries involved are - Australia, Canada, China, India, Italy, New Zealand, South Africa, Sweden, and the Netherlands.
India and SKAO
Subsequent to this approval, India will be signing the SKAO treaty to become a full-fledged member of the SKA Observatory and thus join the growing list of countries participating in the project.
This approval covers funding support for the construction phase of the international SKA Observatory (SKAO) spread over the next 7 years.
The project will be jointly funded by the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) and Department of Science and Technology (DST), with DAE as the lead agency.
The Indian participation in SKA is a truly nationwide, inclusive project led by a consortium of more than 20 academic and research institutes (with NCRA-TIFR as the nodal institute).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1992811
Consider the following statements regarding the Kochi-Lakshadweep islands submarine optical fiber connection project:
- It aims to increase in internet connectivity to eleven Lakshadweep Islands.
- It is funded by Universal Services Obligation Fund (USOF).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Prime Minister of India in Kavaratti, Lakshadweep, inaugurated Kochi-Lakshadweep islands submarine optical fiber connection (KLI-SOFC) project.
It is the submarine cable connectivity project from Mainland (Kochi) to eleven Lakshadweep Islands namely, Kavaratti, Agatti, Amini, Kadmat, Chetlet, Kalpeni, Minicoy, Androth, Kiltan, Bangaram and Bitra has been extended.
The project is funded by Universal Services Obligation Fund (USOF), Department of Telecommunication.
Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) was the Project Executing Agency and the work was awarded to M/s NEC Corporation India Pvt Ltd through Global Open Tendering process.
The major activities related to the project include Marine Route Survey, Submarine Cable laying, Civil Construction of CLS stations, Installation, Testing and Commissioning of End Terminals (SLTE).
Significance of the project
The KLI-SOFC project will lead to an increase in internet speed unlocking new possibilities & opportunities.
For the first time since independence, Lakshadweep will be connected through Submarine Optic Fibre Cable.
The dedicated submarine OFC will ensure a paradigm shift in communication infrastructure in the Lakshadweep islands, enabling faster and more reliable internet services, telemedicine, e-governance, educational initiatives, digital banking, digital currency usage, digital literacy etc.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1992734
With reference to Sikki grass, consider the following statements:
- It is known as golden grass due to its golden luster on drying.
- It is mainly grown in the Deccan Plateau region.
- It is used in making handicrafts.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
only two
Explanation :
Sikki artisans suffer livelihood losses amid climate change and failed promise of government in providing financial help in setting up of Sikki stalls in countrywide trade fairs held round the year.
Sikki grass belongs to the zizanoides grass family.
It is a rich yellowish variety of reed grass, locally known as ‘Kaincha’ is called Golden Grass due to its golden luster on drying.
Scientifically called Chrysopogon zizanioides, it finds mention in ancient Sanskrit texts such as the Ramayana, where it is referred to as viran, sugandhimool, ushir and nalad.
This grass grows indigenously in the Tarai regions of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar and has an average height of 3-4 feet.
While the stem is used to make artefacts, the roots are used for extracting oil that is used both for perfumery and medicinal purposes.
In the hilly terrains, it is also now grown to arrest soil erosion.
Sikki got the geographical identification tag in 2018.
Uses:
It is most known for is its handicraft. It has been a source of livelihood for many since antiquity.
It is used to make traditional items such as multipurpose baskets, ornaments, show pieces and many more utility items that are still considered valuable in rural India.
Challenges
One of the serious challenges that Sikki craftsmen are facing currently is the brunt of climate change that has impacted the quality of the grass.
The deteriorating quality of grass due to continual spike in temperature that impacts the softness of Sikki.
Brittle grass needs extra processing time and is not suitable for making baskets or other artefacts.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/climate-change/-government-failed-us-sikki-artisans-suffer-livelihood-losses-amid-climate-change-state-apathy-93681
Consider the following statements regarding the Fog Pass Devices:
- It is a GPS based navigation device which provides on-board real-time information.
- It is suitable only to diesel locomotives.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, to ensure smooth rail operations, Indian Railways have provisioned 19,742 Fog Pass Devices during the foggy weather.
It is a GPS based navigation device that helps the loco pilot to navigate during dense fog conditions.
It provides on-board real-time information (Display as well as voice guidance) to Loco Pilots regarding location of fixed landmarks such as Signal, Level Crossing gate (Manned & Unmanned), Permanent Speed Restrictions, Neutral Sections etc.
It displays approach indications of next three approaching fixed landmarks in geographical order accompanied with voice message approximately 500m on approach.
General features of Fog Pass Device
Suitable for all types of sections like single line, double line, electrified as well as non electrified sections.
Suitable for all types of electric and diesel locomotives, EMUs/MEMUs/ DEMUs.
Suitable for train speeds up to 160 KMPH.
It has built-in re-chargeable battery back-up for 18 hrs.
It is portable, compact in size, light in weight (not more than 1.5 Kg including battery) and of robust design.
Loco Pilot can carry the device easily with him to the locomotive on resuming his duty.
It can be easily placed on the cab desk of locomotive.
It is a standalone system.
It is unaffected by weather conditions like Fog, Rain or Sunshine.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1992743
With reference to Graphene, consider the following statements:
- It is a one-atom-thick layer of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice.
- It is almost perfectly transparent and is impermeable to gases.
- It is a poor conductor of heat and electricity.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Researchers recently created the world’s first functional semiconductor made from graphene.
About Graphene:
Graphene is a one-atom-thick layer of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice.
It is the building-block of Graphite (which is used, among others things, in pencil tips).
It was first isolated in 2004.
Properties:
Graphene is the world’s thinnest material; it is only one atom thick, one million times thinner than human hair.
However, it is very strong, stronger than steel and diamond.
It is an excellent conductor of heat and electricity. It conducts electricity better than copper.
It is almost perfectly transparent, as it absorbs only 2% of light.
It is impermeable to gases, even those as light as hydrogen and helium.
Applications:
Mechanical strength: It can be used to enhance the strength of other materials.
Thermal applications:
It is a great material for making heat-spreading solutions, such as heat sinks or heat dissipation films.
This could be useful in both microelectronics (for example, to make LED lighting more efficient and longer-lasting) and in larger applications, for example, thermal foils for mobile devices.
Energy storage:
Since graphene is the world’s thinnest material, it also has an extremely high surface-area-to-volume ratio. This makes graphene a very promising material for use in batteries and supercapacitors.
Graphene may enable batteries and supercapacitors (and even fuel cells) that can store more energy and charge faster, too.
It has a lot of promise for additional applications: anti-corrosion coatings and paints, efficient and precise sensors, faster and more efficient electronics, flexible displays, efficient solar panels, faster DNA sequencing, drug delivery, and more.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://lifestyle.livemint.com/smart-living/innovation/semiconductor-graphene-silicon-quantum-computing-science-111704368420342.html
Which among the following best describes Photocatalyst?
A substance that changes the rate of a chemical reaction upon exposure to light
Explanation :
Researchers at IISER Bhopal recently developed a new photocatalyst called UC-POP-Au, which absorbs the entire spectrum of light, making it a potent catalyst for chemical processes.
About Photocatalyst:
The term photocatalyst is a combination of two words: photo, related to photon, and catalyst, which is a substance altering the reaction rate in its presence.
Therefore, photocatalysts are materials that change the rate of a chemical reaction upon exposure to light. This phenomenon is known as photocatalysis.
The illumination of the catalyst causes the generation of free charges (electrons and holes) that can participate in chemical reactions, altering the reaction rate.
Photocatalysis includes reactions that take place by utilizing light and a semiconductor. All the photocatalysts are basically semiconductors.
There are various materials that show photocatalytic capability, and titanium dioxide (TiO2) is said to be the most effective.
The photocatalytic reactions can be categorized into two types based on the appearance of the physical state of the reactants.
Homogeneous photocatalysis: When both the semiconductor and reactant are in the same phase, i.e. gas, solid, or liquid.
Heterogeneous photocatalysis: When both the semiconductor and reactant are in different phases.
It is valuable for applications like air and water purification, self-cleaning surfaces, and even in some aspects of solar energy conversion.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/iiser-bhopal-researchers-develop-material-to-break-down-chemical-warfare-agents-like-mustard-gas/articleshow/106551041.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements regarding NHPC Limited:
- It is mandated to develop hydroelectric power in the country.
- It works under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
NHPC has inked an initial pact to invest Rs 4,000 crore in 750 MW Kuppa Pumped Hydro Storage Project at Chhota Udaipur in Gujarat.
About NHPC Limited:
NHPC Limited (formerly known as National Hydroelectric Power Corp.) is a Government of India Mini Ratna Category-I Public Sector Enterprise under the Ministry of Power.
It was incorporated in the year 1975 under the Companies Act, 1956, with the objective of developing hydroelectric power in the country.
With an authorized share capital of Rs.15,000 crore. NHPC is a premier organization in the country for the development of hydropower.
The company is mandated to plan, promote, and organize an integrated and efficient development of power in all aspects through conventional and non-conventional sources in India and abroad.
NHPC is headquartered in Faridabad, Haryana.
The main functions of the NHPC include
Planning, execution, operation, and maintenance of hydroelectric power projects.
Exploring new sites for hydroelectric projects.
Development of small hydroelectric projects
Research and Development (R&D) in the field of hydroelectric power
Through long-term power purchase agreements, it sells electricity to electricity utilities owned by state governments/private distribution companies on a wholesale basis.
It also carries out business operations, which include the planning of wind and tidal wave projects in the country, and has interests in various projects in the construction and under development phases.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/renewables/nhpc-pledges-to-invest-rs-4000-cr-in-750-mw-kuppa-hydro-storage-project-in-gujarat/articleshow/106549371.cms?from=mdr
The “workation” or “digital nomad” visa, recently seen in the news, was introduced by which one of the following countries?
south korea
Explanation :
South Korea recently introduced a new visa for foreigners allowing them to visit the country on a working holiday or workation.
About Workation Visa:
The “workation” or “digital nomad” visa allows foreign nationals to visit South Korea on a working holiday.
Eligibility:
Foreign nationals with an annual income twice as much as South Korea’s per capita gross national income will be eligible to apply for the visa.
It will be given to those having a work experience of over a year in one industry and are eligible for remote work.
Moreover, the applicants must also have medical insurance of over 100 million won (₹63,62,655.45) and must cover medical treatment and repatriation fees.
The visa will also be allowed to the families of these employees.
The visa, which is valid for a year and renewable for up to two years, can be issued at South Korean embassies, and those currently residing in the country under a temporary visa can also apply for it if they meet the requirements. (Currently, foreign nationals interested in working and traveling in Korea need a tourist visa, which is limited to stays of less than 90 days)
The people who are awarded this visa cannot be hired by any company in South Korea to work or undertake any profit-making activity.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/world-news/south-korea-launches-workation-visa-for-foreigners-all-you-must-know-124010200526_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding Aspergillus fumigatus:
- It is a species of virus that causes diseases in humans.
- It is found only in freshwater bodies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 or 2
Explanation :
An international team of researchers recently unveiled ground-breaking findings on the fungus Aspergillus fumigatus, which can cause deadly disease in humans.
About Aspergillus fumigatus:
It is a species of fungus that causes diseases in humans.
It can be found throughout the environment, including in soil, plant matter, and household dust.
The fungus can also produce airborne spores called conidia. Most people can inhale many of these spores on a daily basis.
In a healthy individual, the immune system often clears them from the body without a problem. However, for some people, inhaling A. fumigatus, spores can lead to a potentially severe infection.
Aspergillus fumigatus is considered an opportunistic organism. It has low virulence (ability to cause damage) and causes disease only in some circumstances, like:
A severely weakened state caused by sickness, poor nutrition, advanced age, etc.
Immunosuppression by diseases or medicines
Implants use, such as prosthetic devices
Illness Caused:
An infection that’s caused by an Aspergillus species of fungus is referred to as aspergillosis.
Aspergillus can cause allergic reactions, chronic lung conditions, and an invasive disease that spreads to your brain, kidneys, lungs, or other organs.
Symptoms:
The symptoms of aspergillosis vary depending on the type and location of your body.
Symptoms of infections or allergic reactions in your lungs are the most common. They include:
Coughing (sometimes coughing up blood).
Shortness of breath (dyspnea).
Noisy breathing (wheezing).
Chest pain.
Fever.
Fatigue and weight loss can be symptoms of chronic pulmonary aspergillosis.
Treatment: Treatments include surgery and antifungal medications.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-01-secrets-disease-fungus-aspergillus-fumigatus.html
Consider the following statements regarding the PRERANA program:
- It is a week-long residential program for school students.
- It aims to engage students in diverse indigenous knowledge systems and latest State-of-Art technologies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Department of School Education & Literacy, Ministry of Education, Government of India has launched ‘Prerana: An Experiential Learning program’.
It aims to offer a meaningful, unique, and inspiring experience to all participants, thereby empowering them with leadership qualities.
It is driven by a strong commitment to integrate principles of Indian education system and the philosophy of value-based education which is a corner stone of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
It is a week-long residential program for selected students of class IX to XII.
A batch of 20 selected students (10 boys and 10 girls) will attend the program, every week from various parts of the country.
It will run from a Vernacular School, established in 1888, in one of the oldest living cities of India, Vadnagar, district Mehsana, Gujarat.
The curriculum of Prerana School prepared by IIT Gandhi Nagar is rooted in nine value based themes: Swabhiman and Vinay, Shaurya and Sahas, Parishram and Samarpan, Karuna and Sewa, Vividhta and Ekta, Satyanishtha and Shuchita, Navachar and Jigyasa, Shraddha aur Vishwas, and Swatantrata and Kartavya.
The day-wise program schedule will feature yoga, mindfulness, and meditation sessions, followed by experiential learning, thematic sessions, and hands on interesting learning activities.
Evening activities will include visits to ancient and heritage sites, inspirational film screenings, mission life creative activities, talent shows etc. ensuring a holistic learning approach.
Apart from this, students will engage in diverse activities, embracing indigenous knowledge systems, latest State-of-Art technologies, and learnings from inspirational personalities.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1993086
Polygonum Chaturbhujanum, recently seen in the news, is a:
herb plant
Explanation :
Recently, a new plant species of Polygonum genus has been discovered at Gol Pahadi Island of the Pench Tiger Reserve (PTR) in Maharashtra during a survey.
A new plant species named Polygonum Chaturbhujanum has been discovered at Gol Pahadi island of PTR.
It is a herb.
Six plant species endemic to India have also been found in Pench.
They are Aegineta indica, Boerhavia crispa, Habenaria gibsonii var foetida, Iphigenia pallida, Petalidium barlerioides and Barleria gibsoniii
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/home/environment/new-plant-species-discovered-in-maharashtras-pench-tiger-reserve-forest-official/articleshow/106546436.cms?from=mdr
With reference to Red weaver ants, consider the following statements:
- These are recognized as bio-control agents.
- They protect a variety of tropical crops against insect pests.
- The chutney made with these ants has received a Geographical Identification (GI) tag.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, the Similipal kai chutney made with red weaver ants by the tribal people of Odisha’s Mayurbhanj district (Odisha) received the geographical identity tag.
The savoury chutney is popular in Mayurbhanj region for its healing properties and also deemed important for nutritional security of the tribal people.
Many indigenous people from Mayurbhanj district venture into nearby forest to collect kai pimpudi (red weaver ant).
Around 500 tribal families have been eking out a living by collecting and selling these insects and a chutney made with them.
Health benefits
The scientists analysed the red weaver ants and found it contains valuable proteins, calcium, zinc, vitamin B-12, iron, magnesium, potassium, sodium, copper, amino acids, among others. Consuming the species can help boost the immune system and prevent diseases.
The tribal healers also prepare a medicinal oil in which they dip the ants along with pure mustard oil.
After a month, this concoction is used as body oil for babies and to cure rheumatism, gout, ringworm and other diseases by the tribes.
The local people also consume this to stay fit and strong.
Key facts about red weaver ants
These are indigenous to Mayurbhanj and are found in abundance in the jungles of every block area of the district, including in the Similipal Tiger Reserve, throughout the year.
They feed on small insects and other invertebrates like beetles, flies and hymenopterans.
They do not sting but have a painful bite into which they can secrete irritant chemicals from their abdomens,
They are also recognised as bio-control agents because they are aggressive and will prey on most arthropods entering their territory.
They protect a variety of tropical crops against insect pests, acting as an alternative to chemical insecticides.
Hence all statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/food/mayurbhanj-s-red-ant-chutney-receives-gi-tag-why-this-is-important-for-nutritional-security-of-tribals-93707
Consider the following statements regarding the Wetland City Accreditation:
- It is given to cities which have taken exceptional steps to safeguard their urban wetlands.
- No Indian city has received this recognition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has submitted three nominations from India for Wetland City Accreditation (WCA) of Indore (Madhya Pradesh), Bhopal (Madhya Pradesh) & Udaipur (Rajasthan) under the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands.
The Ramsar Convention during COP12 held in the year 2015 approved a voluntary Wetland City Accreditation system under Resolution XII.10
It recognizes cities which have taken exceptional steps to safeguard their urban wetlands.
It also recognizes the importance of wetlands in urban and peri-urban environments and to take appropriate measures to conserve and protect these wetlands.
This voluntary scheme provides an opportunity for cities that value their natural or human-made wetlands to gain international recognition and positive publicity for their efforts.
This scheme aims to further promote the conservation and wise use of urban and peri-urban wetlands, as well as sustainable socio-economic benefits for local populations.
To be formally accredited, a candidate for WCA should satisfy the standards used to implement each of the six international criteria mentioned Operational Guidance for WCA of the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands.
Since Ramsar COP13, 43 cities from 17 countries have been officially recognized as “Wetland Cities”.
There is no India city which has received this recognition.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1993224
Consider the following statements regarding the Northeast African Cheetah:
- It is mainly found in the Horn of Africa region.
- It is categorized as critically endangered species under the IUCN Red list.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A group of experts have appealed to the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) to reclassify the status of the Northeast African Cheetah (Acinonyx jubatus soemmeringii) to ‘endangered’ from ‘vulnerable’.
It is found in the Horn of Africa.
It is also known as the Sudan cheetah. This subspecies is more closely related to the Southern African cheetah than to Saharan cheetah populations.
The cheetah’s long tail helps it keep its balance when changing direction mid-chase. Cheetahs can make even 90-degree turns with ease while sprinting.
Appearance: The Northeast African cheetah is fairly large. Physically, it most resembles the East African cheetah
Distribution: Contemporary records are known in South Sudan and Ethiopia. These animals live in wide open lands, grasslands, semi-arid areas, and other open habitats where prey is abundant such as in the East Sudanian Savanna.
Threat: The subspecies’ cubs are being heavily trafficked across the Red Sea to Arab countries like Saudi Arabia, the United Arab Emirates and Yemen.
Conservation status
IUCN: Vulnerable
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/world/upgrade-horn-of-africa-cheetah-status-to-endangered-experts-appeal-to-iucn-93711
Consider the following statements regarding the National Real Estate Development Council (NAREDCO):
- It is an industry association for the real estate sector in India.
- It works under the aegis of the Union Ministry of Finance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Real estate body NAREDCO recently said it plans to organise a builders’ conference in Ayodhya to tap its commercial and residential opportunities.
About National Real Estate Development Council (NAREDCO):
It was established in 1998 under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs of the Government of India.
It is the leading industry association for the real estate sector in the country.
Its primary objective is to provide a legitimate platform for the government, the real estate industry, and the general public to address their concerns and find effective solutions to the challenges faced by the real estate sector.
NAREDCO’s mission is to improve the real estate industry’s building, construction, and marketing standards.
It contributes to the development of national fiscal policies and acts as a catalyst for economic growth in the Indian real estate sector.
With a membership base comprising over 10000+ members across India with its State NAREDCO chapters, NAREDCO plays a crucial role in policy formulation by representing the viewpoints of its members to various ministries on a regular basis.
All major national developers and public sector organizations in the fields of housing and real estate development, finance, and marketing are members of NAREDCO.
Structure:
The organizational structure of NAREDCO includes National, State, and City Councils.
The councils ensure that the policy recommendations accurately reflect the real conditions on the ground and cover the entire geography.
The National Council focuses on macro-level issues, the State Councils address state-level concerns, and the City Councils tackle local and on-ground issues.
The Union Minister for Housing and Urban Affairs, Govt. of India, serves as the Chief Patron of NAREDCO.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/naredco-plans-event-to-showcase-real-estate-opportunities-in-ayodhya-124010500705_1.html
The PRITHvi VIgyan (PRITHVI) scheme, recently seen in the news, primarily focuses on:
Earth observation
Explanation :
To enhance the understanding of the Earth and its vital signs, the Union Cabinet recently approved the “PRITHVI VIgyan (PRITHVI)” scheme.
About PRITHVI Scheme:
It is an initiative of the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) to enhance the understanding of the Earth and its vital signs.
This overarching initiative, with an allocation of Rs 4,797 crore for the period 2021-26, aims to significantly enhance research, modeling, and service delivery across crucial areas like weather, climate, oceans, and the polar regions.
The Prithvi scheme integrates five existing sub-schemes:
Atmosphere and Climate Research-Modelling Observing Systems and Services (ACROSS)
Ocean Services, Modelling Application, Resources and Technology (O-SMART)
Polar Science and Cryosphere Research (PACER)
Seismology and Geosciences (SAGE)
Research, Education, Training, and Outreach (REACHOUT).
These programs collectively aim to enhance our understanding of the Earth’s vital signs and translate scientific knowledge into practical services that benefit society, the environment, and the economy.
What will the Prithvi Scheme do?
One of the primary objectives of Prithvi is to augment and sustain long-term observations across the atmosphere, ocean, geosphere, cryosphere, and solid earth.
This will enable recording and monitoring of the Earth System’s vital signs and changes.
Additionally, the scheme focuses on developing predictive models for weather, ocean, and climate hazards, as well as advancing the understanding of climate change science.
Exploration of the polar regions and high seas is another key aspect, aiming at discovering new phenomena and resources.
The scheme also emphasizes the development of technology for the exploration and sustainable harnessing of oceanic resources for societal applications.
Various components of the PRITHVI scheme are interdependent and are carried out in an integrated manner through the combined efforts of the concerned institutes under the MoES.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.businesstoday.in/latest/economy/story/cabinet-approves-rs-4797-crore-prithvi-scheme-to-boost-earth-science-research-412021-2024-01-05
Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Chennai’?
Stealth-guided missile destroyer
Explanation :
The Indian Navy recently said that it has responded to a hijacking attempt on vessel MV Lila Norfolk by engaging its mission-deployed platforms, including its maritime patrol aircraft (MPA) P8I and INS Chennai.
About INS Chennai:
It is the Indian Navy’s indigenously designed and constructed guided missile destroyer.
It is the third and last ship of the Kolkata-class stealth-guided missile destroyers (Project 15A).
It was constructed by the Mazagon Dock Limited (MDL) at Mumbai.
It was commissioned into the Indian Navy on November 21, 2016.
Features:
It measures 163 meters in length and has a beam of 17.4 meters.
Displacement: Over 7,500 tons.
Top Speed: 30 knots (approx. 55 KM/hour)
It is powered by four reversible gas turbine engines.
It can carry 350 to 400 people.
Armament: It is armed with Vertical launch and long-range surface-to-air and surface-to-surface missile systems like supersonic BrahMos, ‘Barak-8’ Long Range Surface to Air missiles.
The ship is equipped to fight under nuclear, biological and chemical (NBC) warfare conditions.
It is fitted with a modern Surveillance Radar, which provides target data to the gunnery weapon systems of the ship.
The ship’s Anti-Submarine Warfare capabilities are provided by the indigenously developed Rocket Launchers and Torpedo Launchers.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/navy-ins-chennai-vessel-hijacked-arabian-sea-15-indians-9096189/
With reference to Fuel Cells, consider the following statements:
- It is a device that generates electricity through a chemical reaction.
- It has lower or zero emissions compared to combustion engines.
- It can supply electrical energy for a shorter period of time when compared to batteries.
How many of the above statements are correct?
only two
Explanation :
ISRO recently said it has successfully tested a futuristic fuel cell-based power system.
About Fuel Cell:
A fuel cell is a device that generates electricity by a chemical reaction.
Fuel cells can be used in a wide range of applications, providing power for applications across multiple sectors, including transportation, industrial/commercial/residential buildings, and long-term energy storage for the grid in reversible systems.
Working:
A fuel cell consists of two electrodes—a negative electrode (or anode) and a positive electrode (or cathode).
Both electrodes must be immersed in and separated by an electrolyte, which may be a liquid or a solid but must, in either case, conduct ions between the electrodes in order to complete the chemistry of the system.
A fuel, such as hydrogen, is supplied to the anode, where it is oxidized, producing hydrogen ions and electrons.
An oxidizer, such as oxygen, is supplied to the cathode, where the hydrogen ions from the anode absorb electrons from the latter and react with the oxygen to produce water.
The difference between the respective energy levels at the electrodes (electromotive force) is the voltage per unit cell.
The amount of electric current available to the external circuit depends on the chemical activity and amount of the substances supplied as fuel.
A single fuel cell generates a tiny amount of direct-current (DC) electricity. In practice, many fuel cells are usually assembled into a stack.
Advantages of Fuel Cells:
Fuel cells have lower or zero emissions compared to combustion engines. Hydrogen fuel cells emit only water, addressing critical climate challenges as there are no carbon dioxide emissions.
There are also no air pollutants that create smog and cause health problems during the operation of a fuel cell.
They are quiet during operation as they have few moving parts.
They can operate at higher efficiencies than combustion engines.
A fuel cell resembles a battery in many respects, but it can supply electrical energy over a much longer period of time.
This is because a fuel cell is continuously supplied with fuel and air (or oxygen) from an external source, whereas a battery contains only a limited amount of fuel material and oxidant that are depleted with use.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/isro-tests-futurist-fuel-cell-system-that-could-power-space-station/articleshow/106562024.cms?from=mdr
EB-5 Immigrant Investor Program, recently seen in the news, belongs to:
USA
Explanation :
The United States Department of State recently released data that indicates significant progress in the processing of EB-5 applications that are currently pending, especially those from Indian citizens.
About EB-5 Immigrant Investor Program:
The EB-5 (employment-based, 5th preference), or US golden visa, provides a special road for overseas investors and their families to seek permanent residency and Green Cards in the United States.
It is administered by the United States Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS).
It was created in 1990 to stimulate the U.S. economy through job creation and capital investment by foreign investors.
Under this program, investors (and their spouses and unmarried children under 21) are eligible to apply for lawful permanent residence (become a Green Card holder) if they:
Make the necessary investment in a commercial enterprise in the United States, and
Plan to create or preserve 10 permanent full-time jobs for qualified U.S. workers.
A new commercial enterprise means any for-profit activity formed for the ongoing conduct of lawful business, including:
A sole proprietorship;
Partnership (whether limited or general);
Holding company and its wholly owned subsidiaries (provided that each subsidiary is engaged in a for-profit activity formed for the ongoing conduct of a lawful business);
Joint venture;
Corporation;
Business trust;
Limited liability company; or
Other entity, which may be publicly or privately owned.
This definition does not include noncommercial activity, such as owning and operating a personal residence.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/investing-abroad-eb-5-golden-visa-final-action-date-for-indian-applicants-advanced-by-2-years-3355543/
Consider the following statements regarding the Kadambas of Goa:
- They were the subordinates of Chalukyas of Kalyana.
- Kadamba Shasthadeva conquered the city of Chandavara.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, an inscription said to be of 10th century A.D. Kadamba period has been discovered in the Mahadeva temple at Cacoda in southern Goa.
The Kadambas of Goa were the subordinates of Chalukyas of Kalyana.
Chalukyan emperor Tailapa II appointed Kadamba Shasthadeva as mahamandaleshwara of Goa for his help in overthrowing the Rashtrakutas.
Kadamba Shasthadeva conquered the city of Chandavara from the Shilaharas in 960 A.D.
Later, he conquered the port of Gopakapattana (present Goa).
Gundayya, the son of Talara Nevayya, may have participated in this battle, and won the port at the cost of his life.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Mangalore/10th-century-kadamba-inscription-written-in-kannada-sanskrit-found-in-goa/article67704655.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Pallas fish eagle:
- It is mainly found in the Central Asian Countries.
- It is usually seen in desert areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
After 10 years, the Pallas fish eagle, was sighted in the Chilika during the bird census carried out by the Chilika wildlife division.
It is also known as Pallas’s sea eagle or band-tailed fish eagle, is a large, brownish sea eagle.
It can be seen near lakes, marshes and large rivers, from lowlands to 5,000 metres of elevation.
It feeds primarily on fish, but many other preys are part of its diet.
It breeds usually near water in a large nest placed in tall tree.
Distribution: It is found in east Palearctic in Kazakhstan, Russia, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, Mongolia, China, India, Nepal, Bangladesh and Myanmar.
It is partially migratory.
Conservation status
IUCN Red List: Endangered
Threats: Humans contribute to the decline of this species through habitat degradation, pollution, and draining or overfishing lakes.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/bhubaneswar/pallas-fish-eagle-sighted-in-chilika-after-10-years/articleshow/106560837.cms
With reference to Thanjavur dolls, consider the following statements:
- It was initially brought to Thanjavur by Maratha rulers.
- It is made up of hard Teakwood.
- It is awarded with Geographical Indication tag.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Thanjavur dolls are facing stiff competition from electronic toys and e-commerce platforms, besides a severe labour crunch and shortage of clay.
The craft was brought to Thanjavur by Maratha ruler Raja Serfoji in the early 19th Century.
In Tamil language, it is called as Thanjavur thalayatti bommai.
Thanjavur dolls are primarily of two kinds, one is the bobble-head version, and the other is the tilting doll version.
Material used:
Doll-makers use papier-mâché, plaster of Paris and other materials for the body.
A mixture of vandal mann (fine silt deposited by rushing streams of water), kali mann (clayey riverbed mud), and manal (loose aggregate) is required to make the dolls’ pedestals.
Copper sulphate powder is added as a fungicide.
Process:
All the dolls have a lightweight body made of tapioca flour, papier-mache and plaster of Paris cooked and kneaded to the consistency of ‘roti’ dough.
Each toy is made in halves, by pressing the rolled-out ‘doll dough’ into cement moulds, with liberal dusting of chalk powder.
Dolls pass through at least seven stages from mould to assembly before they are packed for despatch, with each step, such as painting the facial features and costume embellishments, requiring a skilled artisan’s attention
The dancing doll has four sections (including the arms that are individually glued to the torso), each balancing on the other with the help of inner metal loop hooks that create the light bobbing movement.
It earned Geographical Indication tag in 2009.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/keeping-thanjavur-doll-industry-out-of-the-doldrums-is-no-childs-play/article67707476.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Rejupave technology:
- It is developed by the CSIR-Central Road Research Institute.
- It is used in constructing high-altitude bituminous roads at low temperature conditions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) has utilised road construction technology i.e Rejupave technology to build high-altitude bituminous road sections at the Sela tunnel and LGG-Damteng-Yangste (LDY) road near the India-China border in Arunachal Pradesh.
It is developed by India’s oldest and premier road research organisation, CSIR-Central Road Research Institute (CSIR-CRRI).
It is beneficial in constructing high-altitude bituminous roads at low and sub-zero temperature conditions.
This technology brings down the production and rolling temperature of bituminous mixes by 30 degrees Celsius to 400 degrees Celsius with negligible heat loss in the bituminous mix during transit, despite long haulage time amid snowfall.
This technology’s asphalt modifier is a bio oil-based product, which significantly lowers the heating requirement of bituminous mixes besides preserving the bituminous mix temperature during transit.
Significance
Rejupave’ asphalt modifier in cold climatic regions will have improved long-term durability and better resistance to thermal cracking under low-temperature conditions.
It also bring down the greenhouse gas emissions in the pristine eco-sensitive mountainous environment of Arunachal Pradesh
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/arunachal-pradesh-bro-indigenous-technology-road-construction-india-china-border-2484577-2024-01-05
Consider the following statements regarding the Plasma waves:
- These are only observed in outer space.
- These are identified as the short-time scale fluctuations in the electric and magnetic field observations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Scientists have detected existence of high-frequency plasma waves in the Martian Upper Atmosphere with novel narrowband and broadband features that can help to understand plasma processes in the Martian plasma environment.
These waves are often observed in the Earth’s magnetosphere, a magnetic field cavity around the Earth.
In general, plasma waves are identified as the short-time scale fluctuations in the electric and magnetic field observations.
These plasma waves play an important role in the energization and transport of the charged particles in the Earth’s magnetosphere.
Some of the plasma waves like electromagnetic ion cyclotron waves act as a cleaning agent for the Earth’s radiation belt, which is hazardous to our satellites.
Knowing this scenario, researchers are curious to understand the existence of various plasma waves in the vicinity of unmagnetized planets like Mars.
The planet Mars do not have any intrinsic magnetic field therefore the high-speed solar wind coming from the Sun interacts directly with the Mars atmosphere, like an obstacle in the flow.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1993601
With reference to the Falkland Island, consider the following statement:
1) It is located in the South Atlantic Ocean.
2) It is under the administrative control of United Kingdom.
3) It is being disputed by Brazil.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
two only
Explanation :
The Falkland Islands is an archipelago in the South Atlantic Ocean on the Patagonian Shelf. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The islands are British overseas territories located in the South Atlantic, 8,000 miles from Britain. Sovereignty over the islands has been contested by Argentina since 1833. Hence statement 2 is correct and 3 is incorrect.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
The Lake Titicaca is shared by which of the following countries?
Peru and Bolivia
Explanation :
Lake Titicaca sits 3 810 m above sea level and is situated between Peru to the west and Bolivia to the east.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Atacama Desert, consider the following statements:
1) It is located in the northern part of Chile.
2) It is one of the driest deserts in the World.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Atacama Desert is a desert plateau located on the Pacific coast of South America, in the north of Chile. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Atacama Desert forms part of the arid Pacific fringe of South America. Dry subsidence created by the South Pacific high-pressure cell makes the desert one of the driest regions in the world. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Read the following statements:
1) This river passes through desert region in the North America.
2) This river forms the Grand Canyon.
3) Lake Mead is located on this river.
Which of the following river is described in the above statements?
Colorado river
Explanation :
The Colorado River is one of the principal rivers in the Southwestern United States and in northern Mexico.
Hoover Dam and Lake Mead, spanning the Arizona-Nevada state line, are located in the Black Canyon of the Colorado River.
Therefore, option (b) is correct answer.
Which of the following countries are landlocked?
1) Paraguay
2) Colombia
3) Bolivia
4) Uruguay
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Paraguay and Bolivia are the two landlocked countries in South America.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Which of the following country is being famous for one of the largest copper reserve in the world?
Chile
Explanation :
Chile has the world’s largest copper reserves of any country by far.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
The Caspian Sea surrounded by which of the following countries?
1) Kazakhstan
2) Turkmenistan
3) Iran
4) Azerbaijan
5) Russia
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
1,2,3,4,5
The Caspian Sea is bordered by five countries: Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, Iran, Azerbaijan, and Russia.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Kuril Islands, consider the following statements:
1) The Kuril Islands are disputed islands between China and Japan
2) The Kuril Islands is located in East China Sea
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The Kuril Islands are a chain of islands that stretch between the Japanese island of Hokkaido and the Russian Kamchatka Peninsula. They are disputed islands between Russia and Japan. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The Kuril Islands are a chain of islands that stretch between the Japanese island of Hokkaido at their southern end and the Russian Kamchatka Peninsula at their northern end. The islands separate the Sea of Okhotsk from the Pacific Ocean. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is correct answer.
Which of the following region has Mediterranean type of Climate?
1) Central Chile
2) California
3) South-western tip of Africa
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
1,2,3
Explanation :
Mediterranean regions are defined by their unique climate, which is characterized by a hot drought period in summer and cool wet period in winter. They partly cover the Mediterranean Basin, California, southwestern and southern Australia, central Chile and southern Africa.
Therefore, option (d) is correct answer.
Which of following deserts are located in North America?
1) Great Basin Desert
2) Mojave Desert
3) Sonoran Desert
4) Simpson Desert
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
1,2,3
Explanation :
North American deserts are grouped into four major types - the Great Basin Desert, Sonoran Desert, Chihuahuan Desert and Mojave Desert - depending on their characteristic physical features (rainfall, topography, soil types) and characteristic vegetation and associated animal communities.
Simpson Desert is in Australia. The Simpson Desert is an erg that contains the world’s longest parallel sand dunes.
Therefore, option (c) is correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding Laokhowa and Burhachapori Wildlife Sanctuaries:
- They are Protected Areas (PAs) in Arunachal Pradesh.
- They are located on the southern bank of the river Brahmaputra.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Two rhinos have recently returned to the Laokhowa and Burhachapori Wildlife Sanctuary after almost a 40-year gap following a successful anti-encroachment operation.
About Laokhowa and Burhachapori Wildlife Sanctuaries:
Location:
The Laokhowa and Burhachapori Wildlife Sanctuaries are two centrally located Protected Areas (PAs) of Assam.
They are located on the southern bank of the river Brahmaputra.
In fact, though these two wildlife sanctuaries have two different names, they are eologically and geographically a singular entity.
They are surrounded by many key Pas, like Kaziranga National Park to the east, Orang National Park and Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuaries to the west, Pakke-Nameri NPs to the north, and the rich reserve forests of Karbi Anglong to the south.
They act as a connecting corridor for the migration of animals between Kaziranga and Orang National parks and hence, has been identified as buffer zones of Kaziranga Tiger Reserve.
Landscape: It comprises of a mosaic of wet alluvial grassland, riparian, and semi-evergreen forests dotted by wetland and river systems.
Flora:
A unique vegetation of this sanctuary is the abundance of freshwater mangrove trees.
There are many species of trees and medicinal plants in the sanctuary. Trees like simul, korai, ajar, hijal, etc. are found in the area.
Fauna:
It is home to the Great Indian one-horned rhinoceros, tiger, leopard, wild buffalo, hog deer, wild pig, and elephants.
The highly endangered Gangetic River Dolphins are still seen in the waters of the Brahmaputra River adjacent to these Pas.
The numerous natural and perennial wetlands are functioning as breeding grounds for various kinds of local fish species and highly important bird species such as Storks like Adjutant, Lesser Adjutant, White Stork, Black Necked Stork, Black Stork etc.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.latestly.com/agency-news/india-news-two-rhinos-return-to-assam-wildlife-sanctuary-after-40-yrs-5673606.html
Which one of the following best describes the ‘30 Doradus B’?
A supernova remnant
Explanation :
Nasa’s Chandra X-ray Observatory recently captured a stunning image of 30 Doradus B, a supernova remnant that is part of a vibrant region of space where stars have been forming for millions of years.
About 30 Doradus B:
30 Doradus B, also cataloged as NGC 2060, is a supernova remnant found in the Large Magellanic Cloud, a small satellite galaxy of the Milky Way.
It is part of a large star-forming region where stars have been continuously forming for the past 8 to 10 million years.
It is a complex landscape of dark clouds of gas, young stars, high-energy shocks, and superheated gas, located 160,000 light-years away from Earth.
What is a Supernova?
A supernova is the explosion of a star whose luminosity after an eruption suddenly increases many millions of times its normal level.
Supernovas are “the largest explosion that takes place in space.”
A star can go supernova in one of two ways:
Type I supernova: The star accumulates matter from a nearby neighbour until a runaway nuclear reaction ignites.
Type II supernova: The star runs out of nuclear fuel and collapses under its own gravity.
Supernovas can briefly outshine entire galaxies and radiate more energy than our sun will in its entire lifetime.
They’re also the primary source of heavy elements in the universe.
They heat up the interstellar medium, distribute heavy elements throughout the Galaxy, and accelerate cosmic rays.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/nasa-telescope-rings-in-2024-by-capturing-two-mega-star-explosions-in-space-2484340-2024-01-04
Consider the following statements regarding the recent RBI Norms for Politically-Exposed Persons (PEPs):
- PEPs are individuals who are or have been entrusted with prominent public functions by a foreign country.
- The RBI regulated entities (REs) are not allowed to transact with PEPs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently updated Know Your Customer (KYC) norms for politically exposed persons (PEPs) who transact with regulated entities (REs), seeking to comply with the recommendations of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF).
New RBI Norms for Politically-Exposed Persons (PEPs):
Who are PEPs? In the amended KYC master direction, the central bank defines PEPs as “individuals who are or have been entrusted with prominent public functions by a foreign country, including the heads of states/governments, senior politicians, senior government or judicial or military officers, senior executives of state-owned corporations, and important political party officials”.
REs have the option of establishing a relationship with PEPs (whether as customers or beneficial owners).
REs have to perform regular customer due diligence and also follow additional conditions prescribed by the RBI to transact with PEPs.
Some additional conditions include establishing an appropriate risk management system to determine whether the customer or the beneficial owner is a PEP.
REs have to take reasonable measures to establish the source of funds/ wealth.
They also need to get approval from senior management to open an account for a PEP.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.business-standard.com/finance/news/rbi-gives-clarity-to-politically-exposed-persons-term-to-meet-fatf-norms-124010500364_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding Indrayani River:
- It is a tributary of the Bhima River.
- It originates in the Western Ghats in Karnataka.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The recent reappearance of toxic foam on the Indrayani river once again raised concerns about pollution here.
About Indrayani River:
It is a tributary of the Bhima River, which again is a tributary of the Krishna River.
Course:
It originates in Kurvande village near Lonavla, a hill station in the Sahyadri mountains of Maharashtra.
Fed by rain, it flows east from there to meet the Bhima River.
It follows a course mostly north of the city of Pune.
The river has great religious importance, and the two sacred towns of Alandi and Dehu are situated on its banks.
Dehu is known to be a sacred place for being the hometown of the poet Saint Tukaram, who was a popular saint of Maharashtra, and Alandi holds the samadhi of the poet Dnyaneshwar.
Valvan Dam at Kamshet, situated on the Indrayani River, is a hydroelectric generating station.
Key Facts about Bhima River:
The Bhima River (also known as the Chandrabagha River) is a major river in southwest India.
It is a major tributary of the Krishna River.
Course:
It originates in the Bhimashankar hills near Karjat on the western side of the Western Ghats, in the Pune District of Maharashtra.
Bhima flows southeast through the states of Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Telangana.
The Bhima River merges into the Krishna River at Kadlur (Raichur) in Karnataka.
This 861km-long river has the Western Ghats on the west, the Balaghat Range in the north, and the Mahadeo Hills in the south.
The total basin area of the river is 48,631 sq. km, out of which 75 percent lie in the state of Maharashtra.
Major tributaries are the Sina and Nira rivers.
Pandharpur is an important pilgrimage centre located on the right bank of the Bhima River.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/pune/toxic-foam-on-indrayani-river-again-official-inaction-blamed/articleshow/106530186.cms
With reference to Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose, consider the following statements:
- He was strongly influenced by Swami Vivekananda’s teachings.
- He formed the Forward Bloc during the Civil Disobedience Movement.
- He reorganized the Indian National Army against British forces during the Second World War.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Leaders like Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose are “immortal” and do not need bestowing of a recognition through a judicial diktat, the Supreme Court said recently.
About Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose:
He was an Indian nationalist leader who was a key figure in the Indian independence movement against British colonial rule.
He was born on January 23, 1897, in Cuttack, Orissa.
In 1920, he passed the civil service examination, but in April 1921, after hearing of the nationalist turmoil in India, he resigned from his position.
Bose then joined the Indian National Congress and actively participated in the Indian independence movement.
Bose at first worked with C.R. Das in Bengal, under whose mentorship he flowered.
He was a close associate of Mahatma Gandhi and Jawaharlal Nehru.
Bose was elected president of the Indian National Congress for two consecutive terms but resigned from the post following ideological conflicts with Mahatma Gandhi.
In 1939, he formed the Forward Bloc, an organization aimed at unifying all the anti-British forces in India.
Netaji was strongly influenced by Swami Vivekananda’s teaching and was known for his patriotic zeal as a student.
At the outset of the Second World War, he fled from India and traveled to the Soviet Union, Germany and Japan, seeking an alliance with the aim of attacking the British in India.
With Japanese assistance, he reorganized and later led the Indian National Army, formed from Indian prisoners-of-war and plantation workers from Malaya, Singapore, and other parts of Southeast Asia, against British forces.
With Japanese monetary, political, diplomatic, and military assistance, he formed the Azad Hind Government in exile, and regrouped, and led the Indian National Army in battle against the allies at Imphal and in Burma.
He is believed to have died on August 18, 1945, in a plane crash over Taiwan. The exact circumstances of his death are still shrouded in mystery and controversy.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/apex-court-dismisses-plea-seeking-to-declare-netaji-as-son-of-the-nation-101704483811863.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Bobbili veena:
- It is a large plucked string instrument used in Carnatic music.
- It is crafted from Jack-wood tree logs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Despite the longstanding fame of the Bobbili veena, the livelihoods of craftsmen face challenges due to a lack of demand from the public and required patronage from the government.
It is the traditional ‘Saraswati Veena’ from Bobbili is famed for its fine tune and distinctive notes.
It is a large plucked string instrument used in Carnatic music.
The making of the veena began in the 17th century during the reign of Pedda Rayudu, the king of Bobbili Samsthanam who was a great patron of music.
Features
These veenas are painstakingly crafted from Jack-wood tree logs in Gollapalli, a town in Bobbili (AndhraPradesh).
It takes almost a full month for a log of mute wood to be crafted into a fine musical instrument.
Jack-wood is preferred as it is light and the unique grain of the wood renders the quality of swara or tone.
A single piece of wood is used to create the instrument giving it the name ‘Ekandi Veena’.
These Veenas are also remarkable for the exquisite designs etched on the body, making each piece exclusive.
With their origin dating back to the Seventeenth Century, these veenas are played in a distinctive style, which also led to the coinage of the ‘Bobbili Veena Sampradayam’.
It earned a Geographical Indication (GI) tag in 2012 for its unique design and high-quality craftsmanship.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/strung-out-bobbilli-veena-craftsmen-struggle-for-livelihood/article67698603.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Sohrai Painting:
- It is an indigenous mural art form.
- It is practiced by communities in the North eastern states of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Remote Bengal village began their New Year with workshop on ancient indigenous art i.e Sohrai Painting.
It is an indigenous mural art form.
It is also interesting to note that the word ‘Sohrai’ comes from soro – translating to ‘to drive with a stick’.
This art form dates back to the Meso-chalcolithic period (9000-5000 BC).
The Isko rock shelter excavated in Barkagaon, Hazaribagh area also has rock paintings that are exactly similar to the traditional Sohrai paintings.
Theme: It is usually based on natural elements of the universe, this includes forests, rivers, animals amongst others.
These ancient paintings are made by tribal (Adivasi) women with the use of natural substances like charcoal, clay, or soil.
The very primitive form of the Sohrai art was in the form of cave paintings.
It is practiced by indigenous communities, particularly in the States of Jharkhand, Bihar, Odisha, and West Bengal.
The region of Hazaribagh in Jharkhand that has received the GI tag for this art form.
It is the art of the women of the Kurmi, Santal, Munda, Oraon, Agaria, Ghatwal tribes.
Sohrai paintings are distinctive for their vibrant colours, intricate patterns, and symbolic motifs;
There is a Sohrai festival held every year, marking the harvesting season and the arrival of winter.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/kolkata/remote-bengal-village-to-begin-new-year-with-workshop-on-ancient-indigenous-art/article67709259.ece
With reference to the Tapioca plant, consider the following statements:
- It is known for its tuberous roots.
- It thrives best in a tropical, warm and humid climate.
- It requires black soil for its growth.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
only 2
Explanation :
The ICAR-Central Tuber Crops Research Institute (CTCRI) here has issued an advisory on feeding animals with parts of cassava (tapioca) in view of the incident in Idukki where 13 cows died in a farm recently.
It is a major horticulture crop cultivated on nearly 3 lakh hectares in Tamil Nadu, producing 60 lakh tonnes of the crop.
It is cultivated throughout the tropical world for its tuberous roots, from which cassava flour, breads, tapioca, a laundry starch, and an alcoholic beverage are derived.
Climatic conditions required
Soil: Any well-drained soil, preferably red lateritic loamy soil.
It thrives best in a tropical, warm, humid climate
Rainfall: Well-distributed rainfall of over 100 cm per annum.
This crop can be cultivated upto an elevation of 1000 m.
All parts of cassava/tapioca – leaves, stem, tuber and rind – contain the compounds called cyanogenic glucosides (CNGs), that is, linamarin and lotaustralin which are hydrolysed by endogenous enzyme linamarase to acetone cyanohydrin which may break down spontaneously liberating free hydrogen cyanide.
Both acetone cyanohydrin and free cyanide are toxic.
Its leaves contain about 10 times higher amount of CNGs than roots.
The CNG content of cassava leaves decreases with the increase in the age of the leaves.
The rind contains 10-30 times higher cyanoglucoside content than the edible parts.
Feeding crushed peels or leaves immediately after crushing or without proper drying poses a high risk of cyanide poisoning in animals.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/central-tuber-crops-research-institute-issues-advisory-on-using-parts-of-tapioca-plant-to-feed-cattle/article67711066.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Project Veer Gatha:
- It is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Defence and Ministry of Education.
- It aims to disseminate the details of bravery of the Gallantry Awardees among students.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The third edition of Project ‘Veer Gatha’, as part of Republic Day celebrations, has witnessed an overwhelming pan India response.
It is a joint initiative of Ministry of Defence and Ministry of Education.
It was instituted under Gallantry Awards Portal (GAP) in 2021.
Aim: With the aim to disseminate the details of acts of bravery of the Gallantry Awardees and the life stories of these brave hearts among the students so as to raise the spirit of patriotism and instill amongst them values of civic consciousness.
Project Veer Gatha deepened this noble aim by providing a platform to the school students to do creative projects/activities based on gallantry award winners.
As part of this, the students framed different projects through various media like art, poems, essays and multimedia on these gallantry award winners and best projects were awarded at national level by the Ministry of Defence and the Ministry of Education.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1993582
Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary, recently seen in news, is located in:
Arunachal Pradesh
xplanation :
Researchers at the Indian Institute of Science (IISc.) in Bengaluru have found that many bird species have started shifting to higher elevations due to rising temperatures in Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary.
It is a protected area of India in the Himalayan foothills of West Kameng District, Arunachal Pradesh.
It conjoins Sessa Orchid Sanctuary to the northeast and Pakhui Tiger Reserve across the Kameng river to the east.
It is situated in the biodiversity hotspot of Eastern Himalayas and home to over 500 bird species.
Altitude ranges are extreme: from 500 metres (1,640 ft) to 3,250 metres (10,663 ft).
It is also a part of the Kameng Elephant Reserve.
It is notable as a prime birding site due to the extraordinary variety, numbers and accessibility of species.
It derives its name from Red Eagle Division of the Indian army which was posted in the area in the 1950s.
Flora: The temperate cloud forest is intermixed with dense bamboo patches and broadleaved evergreen forest across a wide altitudinal range, with conifers and rhododendrons at the higher elevations.
Fauna: Capped langur, Bengal tiger, Asian elephant, red panda, Asiatic black bear, Arunachal macaque and gaur.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/iisc-study-in-arunachal-pradesh-reveals-how-logging-and-climate-change-impact-montane-birds/article67709047.ece
What is ‘Timorebestia koprii’, that was in the news recently?
A carnivorous worm
Explanation :
Scientists recently uncovered the fossils of the newfound species of carnivorous worm, named Timorebestia koprii, or “terror beast”, in northern Greenland.
About Timorebestia koprii:
Timorebestia koprii, meaning ‘terror beasts’, is a species of carnivorous worm, one of the earliest carnivorous animals to have colonized the water column during the early Cambrian period (541 million to 485.4 million years ago).
The fossils were discovered from the Early Cambrian Sirius Passet fossil locality in North Greenland.
They were giants of their day and would have been close to the top of the food chain. That makes it equivalent in importance to some of the top carnivores in modern oceans, such as sharks and seals back in the Cambrian period.
Features:
It could grow to be up to 12 inches (30 centimeters) long, making it one of the largest swimming animals in its time period.
It also had some unusual physical characteristics, such as a row of fins flanking each side of its body, a pair of long antennae, and a huge jaw structure.
Timorebestia is a distant but close relative of a living group of tiny marine worms known as arrow worms, or chaetognaths. These are much smaller ocean predators today that feed on tiny zooplankton.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livescience.com/planet-earth/fossils/terror-beast-fossils-unearthed-in-greenland-are-more-than-half-a-billion-years-old
Consider the following statements regarding Lunar Gateway Station:
- It is a component of NASA’s Artemis program.
- It will be the first space station ever to exist outside of Low Earth Orbit (LEO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The UAE recently announced its participation in developing a module on Nasa’s Lunar Gateway Station alongside the USA, Japan, Canada, and the European Union.
About Lunar Gateway Station:
It is a primary component of NASA’s Artemis program.
Artemis intends to establish a long-term base on the Moon (Artemis base), and the Lunar Gateway will serve as a multi-purpose outpost that orbits the Moon.
The Gateway is a multinational project involving four of the International Space Station partner agencies: NASA, the European Space Agency (ESA), Japan’s Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA), and the Canadian Space Agency (CSA).
Basically, the Gateway Station is similar to the International Space Station currently in low Earth orbit, but the Gateway will orbit the Moon.
Incidentally, the Gateway will be the first space station ever to exist outside of low Earth orbit, or LEO.
From the Gateway, NASA and international partners can provide essential support for long-term human presence on the lunar surface, as well as launch additional missions for deep space exploration.
Its flight path is a highly elliptical orbit, bringing it both relatively close to the Moon’s surface and also far away, making it easier to pick up astronauts and supplies from Earth, around a five-day trip.
It will also offer a place to relay communications and act as a base for scientific research.
The Gateway will weigh around 40 tonnes and consist of a service module, a communications module, a connecting module, an airlock for spacewalks, a place for the astronauts to live, and an operations station to command the Gateway’s robotic arm or rovers on the Moon.
Astronauts will be able to occupy it for up to 90 days at a time, occasionally travelling to the lunar surface to conduct science and test new technologies.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://theprint.in/world/uae-announces-its-participation-in-nasas-lunar-gateway-station/1914334/
With reference to Dynamic Asset Allocation (DAA), consider the following statements:
- It involves adjustment of the weights in a portfolio based on the overall market performance.
- In DAA, portfolio managers enjoy a high degree of flexibility in their choice of investments.
- Its transaction costs are very low when compared with a strategic asset allocation strategy.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Asset management company (AMC) PPFAS Mutual Fund recently filed for an open-ended dynamic asset allocation scheme with the capital market regulator, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
About Dynamic Asset Allocation:
DAA is an investment strategy that involves the frequent adjustment of the weights in a portfolio based on the overall market performance or the performance of certain securities.
Most of the funds in this category are invested and spread across various sectors, including equity funds, real estate, stocks, and bonds.
Under the dynamic allocation strategy, a portfolio manager assesses the current market conditions and the performance of each asset class.
He uses the results of the assessment to reduce the weights of assets with bad performance and increase the weights of assets with strong performance.
Generally, a dynamic strategy is used in reaction to existing risks and market downturns.
Unlike the strategic asset allocation strategy, dynamic asset allocation does not involve a target mix of assets. Thus, portfolio managers enjoy a high degree of flexibility in their choice of investments.
Dynamic allocation requires active portfolio management. Therefore, the success of the strategy depends not only on the market conditions but also on the portfolio manager’s ability to make good investment decisions and to adequately respond to changes in the market.
Dynamic Asset Allocation Example:
Suppose global equities enter a six-month bear market.
An investment manager using dynamic asset allocation may decide to reduce a portfolio’s equity holdings and increase its fixed-interest assets to reduce risk.
For example, if the portfolio was initially equities heavy, the manager may sell some of its equity holdings and purchase bonds.
If economic conditions improve, the manager may increase the portfolio’s equity allocation to take advantage of a more bullish outlook for stocks.
Advantages:
Returns: The frequent adjustments in the mix of assets can possibly provide higher returns on the investment portfolio.
Adjustment to market changes: Unlike static asset allocation, dynamic allocation is highly flexible. The strategy can quickly respond to market changes and market risks.
Disadvantages:
Transaction costs: The frequent rebalancing the weights within the portfolio is associated with transaction costs.
Active management: It requires tight control of the investment portfolio and constant observation of emerging market trends. Therefore, the asset allocation strategy requires the skills and knowledge of a professional portfolio manager and may often demand extensive sources (e.g., employees for research).
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/business/personal-finance/ppfas-mutual-fund-applies-for-dynamic-asset-allocation-scheme-with-sebi-12005191.html
Consider the following statements regarding Taurus Missile, recently seen in the news:
- It is an air-to-surface cruise missile.
- It is developed by the United States of America.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Pressure is mounting on German Chancellor to give the green light for long-range Taurus missiles that would be a significant boost to Kyiv’s weapons arsenal for striking critical Russian assets.
About Taurus Missile:
Taurus KEPD 350, known as the ‘bunker buster’, is a Swedish-German long-range air-to-surface cruise missile.
The high-precision stand-off guided missile system can penetrate through dense air defence systems and destroy hard and deeply buried stationary and semi-stationary military targets on the ground.
The missile attacks target bridges, ships in ports, runways, command, control and control centers, bunkers, port facilities, and air base buildings.
It is in service with the German (Luftwaffe) and Spanish Air Forces.
Features:
It has an overall weight of 1,400kg.
It has a length of 16.7 feet, a wingspan of 6.7 feet, and diameter of 3.5 feet.
The missile is constructed of modular pieces that can be assembled in different ways depending on the mission. Its electronic systems are also modular.
It is suitable for day and night and all-weather deployment.
It has low observability and terrain-masking features for survivability.
The modular design and reliability reduce the lifecycle cost of the system.
The missile carries about 481kg of inert multi-effect penetrator high sophisticated and target optimized (MEPHISTO) dual-stage warhead system for superior target penetration.
It is powered by a turbofan engine which provides the missile with a cruise speed of about Mach 0.6 to 0.95 at very low altitudes.
The missile has a range of up to 500km (270nm).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.newsweek.com/ukraine-taurus-long-range-missile-germany-russia-1858437
Consider the following statements regarding Gokturks:
- They were contemporaries of Indus Valley Civilization.
- They lived in ancient Inner Asia and the steppes of Central Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Archaeologists in Kazakhstan recently discovered two gold ornaments in a 1,500-year-old tomb that feature the earliest known depictions of the great khan, or “khagan,” of the Göktürks.
About Gokturks:
The Göktürks were a nomadic confederation of Turkic peoples who lived in ancient Inner Asia and the steppes of Central Asia.
They emerged into history in the early sixth century AD from obscure tribal origins.
The Göktürk rulers originated from the Ashina tribe, an Altaic people who lived in the northern corner of the area presently called Xinjiang.
The Göktürks, under the leadership of Bumin Khan (d. 552) and his sons, succeeded the Xiongnu as the main Turkic power in the region and took hold of the lucrative Silk Road trade during the sixth century.
Under their leadership, the Göktürks rapidly expanded to rule huge territories in north-western China, North Asia, and Eastern Europe (as far west as the Crimea). At their height, the Gokturks controlled a vast area stretching from Eastern Europe all the way across northern China.
They were the first Turkic tribe known to use the name “Turk” as a political name.
Their religion, Tengriism, a form of shamanism centered on a celestial deity, Tengrii, includes elements which resemble concepts of Confucian and Hindu thought.
From 552 to 745, Göktürk leadership bound the nomadic Turkic tribes together into an empire, which eventually collapsed due to a series of dynastic conflicts.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.livescience.com/archaeology/1500-year-old-gold-buckles-depicting-ruler-majestically-sitting-on-a-throne-discovered-in-kazakhstan
Consider the following statements regarding the Hog deer:
- It is found throughout India and Southeast Asia region.
- It is categorized as Scheduled I species under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
In a significant discovery, the hog deer has been spotted for the first time at the Rajaji Tiger Reserve.
It is a solitary creature but sometimes spotted feeding as small groups in open fields when food there is plentiful.
For the most part it is sedentary and does not migrate.
Males tend to be territorial and mark their territory with glandular secretions.
This species exhibits sexual dimorphism. The females are slightly smaller than males and lack antlers.
Distribution
It has a native geographic range throughout India, including the Himalayan foothill zone and Southeast Asia, including Burma and Thailand.
Humans have introduced free-ranging populations of this deer in Sri Lanka, Australia and the United States, including Texas, Florida, and Hawaii.
Habitat:
It appears to prefer dense forests; however, they are often observed in clearings, grasslands and occasionally wet grasslands.
This variation is usually associated with time of year and food distribution.
Conservation status
IUCN: Endangered
Wildlife Protection Act 1972: Scheduled I
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/dehradun/in-a-first-hog-deer-spotted-inside-rajaji-tiger-reserve/articleshow/106588427.cms
Trichoderma, which was recently in news, is a:
bio-pesticide
Explanation :
The Indian Institute of Spices Research (IISR) Kozhikode have successfully developed a new granular lime-based Trichoderma formulation.
The formulation named ‘Tricholime’, integrates Trichoderma and lime into a single product, making the application easier for farmers.
Trichoderma is a fungal biocontrol agent, has proven effective in suppressing several soil-borne plant pathogens and serves as a successful bio-pesticide and bio-fertilizer in crop production.
Recognizing the importance of Trichoderma and the challenges posed by traditional lime applications, the scientists at IISR developed ‘Tricholime’ to integrate lime and Trichoderma.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/kozhikode/iisr-develops-new-granular-lime-based-trichoderma-bio-pesticide-fertiliser/article67706359.ece
With reference to Sponge, consider the following statements:
- It is a living animal which is made of loosely arranged cells.
- It provides home for many other animals, plants, and microorganisms in a mutual symbiotic relationship.
- Unlike seaweed, it possesses remarkable resilience to climate change.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Warming ocean forced women in Zanzibar to switch from seaweed to climate-resilient sponge farming to stay afloat.
Sponge farming is a relatively new business opportunity that does not harm the marine environment.
A sponge is a living animal which is made of loosely arranged cells that surround a skeleton of fibres.
The specialised cells nestled within thousands of tiny chambers, act as microscopic pumps, and tirelessly drawing water into the sponge’s body with their whip-like tails.
Sponges provide homes for many other animals, plants, and microorganisms. In many cases, they all work together in a mutual symbiotic relationship.
Sea sponges exist in all oceans around the world and make up 20% of the global silicon biological sink.
This unique pumping mechanism, which helps sponges extract nutrition and oxygen, also purifies the ocean water by removing impurities, including sewage.
Uniqueness: Sponges, unlike seaweed, possess remarkable resilience to climate change, require minimal maintenance, and command premium market prices,
Reproduction: Most sponges are hermaphrodites, harbouring both male and female reproductive organs, enabling them to self-propagate effortlessly.
New sponges emerge from small buds that detach from the parent sponge and begin independent growth.
Even damaged or fragmented sponges can regenerate into new individuals.
This remarkable regenerative ability underpins the ease and feasibility of commercial sponge farming.
Uses:
These sponges are used for bathing and general hygiene because they are naturally antibacterial and antifungal and can resist odours.
Research has also shown that the spongy creatures play an important role themselves in combating climate change.
Their skeletons break down into microscopic pieces of silicon, which helps control the carbon cycle in the ocean and reduces the greenhouse effect.
Dissolved silicon is critical for the growth of diatoms, tiny organisms which absorb large amounts of CO2 in the ocean using photosynthesis.
Hence all statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/africa/saved-by-sponge-93521
Consider the following statements regarding the Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX):
- It aims to cultivate an innovation ecosystem in the Defence and Aerospace sector in India.
- It is entirely funded and managed by the Ministry of Defence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Innovations for Defence Excellence- Defence Innovation Organization (iDEX-DIO) is all set to participate in the tenth edition of the Vibrant Gujarat Summit 2024 from 10 to 12 January 2024 at Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Defence, Govt of India launched in 2018.
The objective of the scheme is to cultivate an innovation ecosystem in the Defence and Aerospace sector by collaborating with startups, innovators, MSMEs, incubators, and academia.
iDEX offers grants and support for R&D with significant potential for future adoption in Indian defence and aerospace.
It is currently engaged with around 400+ Startups and MSMEs.
It is recognized as a game-changer in the defence ecosystem, iDEX has received the PM Award for Innovation in the defence sector.
Funding: It will be funded and managed by a ‘Defence Innovation Organization (DIO)’ which has been formed as a ‘not for profit’ company as per the Companies Act 2013 for this purpose, by the two founder members i.e. Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs) - HAL & BEL.
iDEX will function as the executive arm of DIO, carrying out all the required activities while DIO will provide high level policy guidance to iDEX.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1993941
Consider the following statements regarding the Kapdaganda Shawl:
- It is woven and embroidered by the tribal women in northeast India.
- It has received a Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Seven products from Odisha, ranging from the Similipal Kai chutney made with red weaver ants to the embroidered Kapdaganda shawl, have bagged the coveted Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
It is a sign used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or a reputation that are due to that origin.
This is typically used for agricultural products, foodstuffs, wine and spirit drinks, handicrafts and industrial products.
The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 seeks to provide for the registration and better protection of geographical indications relating to goods in India.
This GI tag is valid for 10 years following which it can be renewed.
Kapdaganda Shawl
It is woven and embroidered by the women of the Dongria Kondh tribe, a particularly vulnerable tribal group (PVTG) in the Niyamgiri hills in Odisha’s Rayagada and Kalahandi districts.
The shawl reflects the rich tribal heritage of the Dongria Kondhs.
The shawl is worn by both men and women and the Dongrias gift it to their family members as a token of love and affection.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-culture/odisha-gi-tag-products-significance-9098672/
With reference to Maldives, consider the following statements:
- It consists of a chain of small coral islands.
- Its islands are protected by barrier reefs from the destructive effects of monsoons.
- It has a presidential form of government.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only three
Explanation :
The Maldives government recently suspended three of its ministers after they shared offensive remarks against the Indian Prime Minister on social media.
About Maldives:
It is a low-lying island country in the north-central .
Its closest neighbours are India, about 600 kilometres north-east, and Sri Lanka, about 645 kilometres north-east.
Geography:
It consists of a chain of about 1,200 small coral islands and sandbanks (some 200 of which are inhabited), grouped in clusters, or atolls.
The atolls have sandy beaches, lagoons, and a luxuriant growth of coconut palms, together with breadfruit trees and tropical bushes.
The islands extend more than 510 miles (820 km) from north to south and 80 miles (130 km) from east to west.
None of the coral islands stand more than 1.8 metres (six feet) above sea level.
Barrier reefs protect the islands from the destructive effects of monsoons.
Capital: Male
Languages:
The official language is an Indo-European language called Dhivehi (or Maldivian).
Arabic, Hindi, and English are also spoken.
Islam is the state religion.
Economy: It revolves mainly around tourism.
Constitutional Framework: The constitution of the Maldives was adopted in 2008.
The head of state and government is the president, assisted by a vice president and a cabinet.
The president and vice president are directly elected by universal suffrage to a maximum of two five-year terms.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/india/video/maldives-suspends-3-ministers-over-derogatory-remark-against-pm-modi-2485454-2024-01-07
Consider the following statements regarding the National Centre for Seismology (NCS):
- It is the nodal agency for monitoring earthquake activity and conducting seismological research in India.
- It works as an attached office of the Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
An earthquake of magnitude 3.9 hit Jammu and Kashmir’s Kishtwar district recently, as reported by the National Centre for Seismology.
About National Centre for Seismology (NCS):
NCS is the nodal agency of the Government of India for monitoring of earthquake activity and conducts seismological research in the country.
It is an attached office of the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MOES). .
The NCS monitors earthquake activity all across the country through its 24×7 round-the-clock monitoring center for better understanding of earthquake source processes and their effect on the cause of earthquake-safe society.
It consists of various divisions:
Earthquake Monitoring and Services
Earthquake Hazard and Risk Assessments
Geophysical Observation Systems
It operates and maintains the NSN, or the National Seismological Network. The NSN consists of 153 seismological observatories spread across the country.
NSN is capable of recording earthquakes and events of magnitude (M)≥2.5 in and around Delhi, M≥3.0 for the North East (NE) region, M≥3.5 in the peninsular and extra-peninsular areas, and M≥4.0 in border regions.
Whenever an earthquake occurs in the country, its information is immediately disseminated by NCS to a variety of user agencies, including disaster management authorities.
The NCS shares this information via earthquake bulletins within five minutes of an earthquake.
It is also involved in the monitoring of aftershock and swarm activity, if occurred, throughout the country.
Another important activity implemented by the NCS is microzonation. It is a site-specific study that provides a more realistic and reliable representation of ground motion characteristics.
It is useful in land use and urban planning, as well as in retrofitting of existing buildings.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/magnitude-3-9-earthquake-hits-kishtwar-in-jk/articleshow/106529430.cms?from=mdr
With reference to the World Heritage Committee, consider the following statements:
- It is a committee of the United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization.
- It has the final say on whether a property is inscribed on the World Heritage List.
- It consists of representatives from all the United Nations member states.
How many of the above statements are correct?
only two
Explanation :
In a historic milestone, India is set to take the reins as the chair of UNESCO’s World Heritage Committee for the very first time.
About World Heritage Committee:
It is a committee of the United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization.
The Committee is responsible for the implementation of the World Heritage Convention, defines the use of the World Heritage Fund, and allocates financial assistance upon requests from States Parties.
It has the final say on whether a property is inscribed on the World Heritage List.
It examines reports on the state of conservation of inscribed properties and asks States Parties to take action when properties are not being properly managed.
It also decides on the inscription or deletion of properties on the List of World Heritage in Danger.
Structure:
It consists of representatives from 21 of the States Parties to the Convention elected by their General Assembly.
A Committee member’s term of office is six years, but most state parties choose voluntarily to be members of the committee for only four years in order to give other states parties an opportunity to be on the committee.
Bureau of the World Heritage Committee:
The Bureau consists of seven states parties elected annually by the Committee: a Chairperson, five Vice-Chairpersons, and a Rapporteur.
The Bureau of the Committee coordinates the work of the Committee and fixes the dates, hours, and order of business of meetings.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://zeenews.india.com/india/in-a-first-india-to-chair-host-unesco-world-heritage-committee-2707621.html
Consider the following statements regarding the National Housing Bank (NHB):
- It is an All-India Financial Institution (AIFl) wholly owned by the Government of India.
- It regulates the Housing Finance Companies (HFCs) in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
In a regulatory filing, LIC recently said the board has cleared the proposal to invest in a new company, promoted by the NHB, for residential mortgage-backed securities.
About National Housing Bank (NHB):
NHB is an All-India Financial Institution (AIFl) established under the National Housing Bank Act, 1987.
It is wholly owned by the Government of India.
Objective: To operate as a principal agency to promote housing finance institutions both at local and regional levels and to provide financial and other support to such institutions.
The main functions of NHB include:
Supervision and grievance redressal regarding Housing Finance Companies (HFCs).
Ensures that HFCs meet regulatory capital requirements as required by BASEL norms, have a proper risk management framework in place, have good governance practices, etc.
Financing in the form of extending refinancing options to primary lenders and lending directly with respect to projects undertaken by public housing agencies.
Promotion and Development.
NHB supervises HFCs, while regulation of HFCs is with the RBI.
Head Office: New Delhi
The general superintendence, direction, and management of the affairs and business of NHB vest in its Board of Directors.
NHB RESIDEX: It is the country’s first official housing price index (HPI). It captures movements in the prices of residential real estate prices.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.zeebiz.com/companies/news-lic-to-pick-up-10-percent-stake-in-nhb-promoted-company-271330
Which one of the following best describes ‘Sky Dew’, that was in the news recently?
A high-altitude observation balloon
Explanation :
Israel recently deployed Sky Dew along the Lebanese border as tensions with Hezbollah escalated.
About Sky Dew:
Sky Dew is a massive balloon-like structure in the shape of a puffed aircraft.
The high-altitude observation balloon acts as a detection radar blip for small unmanned aircraft and cruise missiles.
It is one of the largest aerial threat warning systems in the world.
The technology has been jointly developed by Israel Defense and US company TCOM. The project was entirely funded by the U.S. Department of Defence.
The Israel Air Force was handed over the Sky Dew in 2022.
The system comprises a blimp capable of flying at high altitudes with radar and detection systems to scan a wide range in any direction.
The radar on the balloon is capable of observing at 250 km and tracking multiple targets, including low-altitude ones and those in valleys.
It can carry 7,000 pounds and has an operational altitude of 10,000 feet.
It offers a significant advantage in its ability to remain in surveillance for extended periods without needing fuel or crew replacement.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/middle-east/sky-dew-massive-radar-blimp-launched-by-israel-to-monitor-hezbollah-activities/articleshow/106633064.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements regarding the Elasmobranch:
- These animals have a skeleton made of cartilage, rather than bone.
- These diverse species are found in the tropical and subtropical Indo-Pacific Ocean.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The meat of sharks and rays (Elasmobranch), for long consumed by tribal and coastal people in India, has found favour among new demographic categories such as foreign tourists and Indian middle- and upper classes.
The term elasmobranch refers to the sharks, rays, and skates.
These animals have a skeleton made of cartilage, rather than bone.
The other subclass of cartilaginous fish, the Holocephali, consists of Chimaeras – ratfish (Genus Chimaera) and elephantfish (Genus Callorhynchus).
The main differences between these two subclasses are the structure of their gills and how they grow in the embryo.
Holocephali has four gill slits with a gill cover (an operculum), while Elasmobranchs have five to seven external gill slits with no gill cover.
Characteristics of Elasmobranchs
Its skeleton is made of cartilage rather than bone.
They have five to seven gill openings on each side.
Rigid dorsal fins (and spines if present)
Spiracles to aid in breathing
The upper jaw of elasmobranchs is not fused to their skull.
Elasmobranchs have several rows of teeth which are continually replaced.
They don’t have swim bladders, but instead their large livers are full of oil to provide buoyancy.
They reproduce sexually with internal fertilization and either bear live young or lay eggs.
Elasmobranch skin is made of tiny, hard, tooth-like placoid scales called denticles.
These are renowned for their highly tuned senses, which make them incredibly successful in their environment.
Their distribution ranges from near shore regions to the deep oceanic waters.
Some species are known to travel long distances, hence can be considered as highly migratory. Their stock can be found in more than one Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)
They are widely distributed in the Oceans but are most diverse in the tropical and subtropical Indo-Pacific Ocean.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/shark-ray-meat-consumption-no-longer-restricted-to-india-s-tribal-coastal-peoples-paper-93760
Camptothecin, which was seen recently in news, is a:
anti-cancer drug
Explanation :
Researchers at the Indian Institutes of Technology Madras and Mandi have metabolically engineered Nothapodytes nimmoniana plant cells to increase production of anti-cancer drug camptothecin (CPT).
Camptothecin (CPT) is an important anti-cancer drug lead molecule for high-value drugs like Topotecan and Irinotecan.
It is a potent topoisomerase I inhibitor extracted mainly from - Camptotheca acuminata (native to Eastern Asia) and Nothapodytes nimmoniana (native to India).
It is majorly produced in Southeast Asian region, with the plant being largely found only in China and India.
However, the conjunction of climate change and extensive deforestation undertaken for CPT extraction has pushed these plants into the endangered species category.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/iit-researchers-engineer-plant-cells-to-produce-drug-for-cancer/article67683237.ece
With reference to Sisal Plant, consider the following statements:
- It is Xerophytic leaf fibre producing plant.
- It is mainly grown in the northeastern states of India.
- It thrives best on dry, permeable, sandy-loam soils.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A research team at Stanford University has found the absorption capacity of a sisal-based material to be higher than those in commercial menstrual pads.
It is a xerophytic, monocarp, semi-perennial leaf fibre producing plant.
The leaves are thick, fleshy and often covered with waxy layer, typical characteristics of xerophytic plants.
Its leaves grow up to 2 m long. The lifespan of a sisal plant is about 7-10 years, during which it produces 200-250 usable leaves.
Each leaf has about a thousand fibres that can be used to make ropes, paper, and cloth.
It could be used to make a highly absorbed material as well.
Climatic condition
It is well adapted to arid environments as the species is xerophytic in nature.
Temperature and Rain: It can withstand a maximum temperature 40-45°C and grows well with evenly distributed rainfall of 60-125 cm.
Soil: It thrives best on dry, permeable, sandy-loam soils with good amount of liming materials (Ca and Mg) but can also grow on various other types of soils.
In India it is grown in light calcareous and gravelly soils with good drainage
It is well adapted mainly in Odisha, Jharkhand, Maharashtra, part of Bihar, western part of West Bengal and many southern states.
It is mainly propagated by vegetative means such as ‘bulbils’ and ‘suckers’.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/sisal-leaves-sanitary-napkins-sustainable-manu-prakash-explained/article67715759.ece
Chandubi Festival is celebrated in:
Assam
Explanation :
Recently, the Chandubi Festival was celebrated along the Chandubi Lake in the state of Assam.
It is organised every year for five days starting from the first day of the New Year along the Chandubi lake, which is situated in the state of Assam.
The main attractions of the Chandubi festival are the local folk culture, ethnic cuisine, local handloom and dresses, boating, etc.
The major aim of the Chandubi Festival is to promote eco-tourism in this biodiversity hotspot of Assam.
Preserving the waterbody, the water level of which has rapidly been lowering over the years, has been the motive for organising the festival every year.
The festival has been providing an opportunity to generate livelihood to different tribes – Rabhas, Garos, Gorkhas and tea tribes – living in the area by selling different food items and homemade beverages, and traditionally woven attires.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/photos/lifestyle/all-you-need-to-know-about-assams-chandubi-festival-101704285156164-1.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Peregrine Lander:
- It was launched by the European Space Agency.
- It is designed to carry scientific instruments and other payloads to the Moon’s surface.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Peregrine Lunar Lander was launched aboard the United Launch Alliance’s Vulcan rocket to embark on its pioneering journey to explore the Moon.
It is designed to carry scientific instruments and other payloads to the Moon’s surface, specifically targeting the Sinus Viscositatis region.
This area, also known as the Bay of Stickiness, lies adjacent to the Gruitheisen Domes near the Oceanus Procellarum, or Ocean of Storms.
Aim: To locate water molecules on the moon, measure radiation and gases around the lander, and evaluate the lunar exosphere (the thin layer of gases on the moon’s surface).
The mission’s scientific goals are ambitious:
To analyze the lunar exosphere, assess the thermal properties and hydrogen content of the lunar regolith, study magnetic fields, examine the radiation environment, and test advanced solar arrays.
Peregrine Mission 1 will transport approximately ten payloads, with a total mass capacity of 90 kilograms.
The scientific payload features cutting-edge instruments such as the Laser Retro-Reflector Array (LRA), Linear Energy Transfer Spectrometer (LETS), Near-Infrared Volatile Spectrometer System (NIRVSS), PROSPECT Ion-Trap Mass Spectrometer (PITMS), and Neutron Spectrometer System (NSS).
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/nasa-peregrine-lander-launched-successfully-artemis-mission-ula-vulcan-rocket-2485658-2024-01-08
Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple (BRT) Tiger Reserve is located in:
Karnataka
Explanation :
The Karnataka Forest Department recently started collecting green tax, Rs 10 from two-wheelers and Rs 20 from four-wheelers, entering BR Hills through BRT Tiger Reserve.
About Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple (BRT) Tiger Reserve:
Location: It is located in the Chamarajanagar district of Karnataka State.
The tiger reserve derives its name from ‘BILIGIRI ‘, the white rocky cliff which has a temple of Lord ‘VISHNU’, locally known as ‘Rangaswamy’.
This unique bio-geographical entity, situated in the middle of the bridge between the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats in South India, was constituted as a Wildlife Sanctuary in 1974.
BRT Wildlife Sanctuary was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2011.
The total area of the Tiger Reserve is 574.82 Km².
Vegetation: The forests of BRT Tiger Reserve are principally of dry deciduous type and are interspersed with moist deciduous, semi-evergreen, evergreen, and shola patches occurring at varying altitudes.
Flora: The major species include Anogeissus latifolia, Dalbergia paniculata, Grewia teliaefolia, Terminalia alata, Terminalia bellirica, Terminalia paniculata, etc.
Fauna: Animals including tiger, elephant, leopard, wild dog, bison, sambar, spotted deer, barking deer, four-horned antelope, sloth bear, wild boar, common langur, bonnet macaque, varieties of reptiles, birds, etc., are found in the Tiger Reserve.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/mysuru/br-hills-green-tax-karnataka-forest-department-collects-token-tax-from-vehicles/articleshow/106587842.cms
Consider the following statements regarding REC Limited:
- It is a Central Public Sector Undertaking under the Ministry of Power.
- It is involved in financing projects in the power sector value chain from generation to distribution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
REC Ltd. recently announced its ambitious plan to increase its financial sanctioning in the infrastructure space, including roads and highways, to ₹1 lakh crore in the current financial year.
About REC Limited:
REC Limited (formerly Rural Electrification Corporation Limited) is a Central Public Sector Undertaking under the Ministry of Power involved in financing projects in the complete power sector value chain from generation to distribution.
It is registered with the RBI as a Non-Banking Finance Company (NBFC), a Public Financial Institution (PFI) and an Infrastructure Financing Company (IFC).
History:
It was incorporated in 1969, in the backdrop of severe drought and famine in the country, to energize agricultural pump-sets for irrigation purposes, thereby reducing the dependency of agriculture on monsoons.
REC has evolved and expanded its financing mandate to cover the entire Power-Infrastructure sector, comprising Generation, Transmission, Distribution, Renewable Energy and new technologies like Electric Vehicles, Battery Storage, Green Hydrogen etc.
More recently REC has also diversified into the Non-Power Infrastructure sector comprising Roads & Expressways, Metro Rail, Airports, IT Communication, Social and Commercial Infrastructure (Educational Institution, Hospitals), Ports and Electro-Mechanical (E&M) works in respect of various other sectors like Steel, Refinery, etc.
Financing: REC provides long-term loans and other financing products to State, Centre, and Private Companies for creation of infrastructure assets in the country.
REC funds its business with market borrowings of various maturities, including bonds and term loans, apart from foreign borrowings.
RECPDCL (REC Power Development and Consultancy Limited), the wholly owned subsidiary of REC, provides a range of value-added consultancy services in the power sector.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://energy.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/power/rec-sets-1-lakh-crore-sanction-target-for-roads-and-highways-in-fy24/106652438
What is ‘Ugram’, seen in the news recently?
An indigenous assault rifle
Explanation :
The Defence Research and Development Organisation recently launched an indigenous assault rifle named ‘Ugram’.
About Ugram:
‘Ugram’ is a state-of-the-art indigenous assault rifle.
It has been developed by the Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE), a unit of DRDO, in collaboration with a private industry partner.
It was developed in less than 100 days.
It has been developed as per the General Staff Qualitative Requirements (GSQR) of the army into consideration.
Features:
The rifle will deploy rounds of 7.62 mm calibre, making it more ferocious than rifles that use 5.62 mm calibre rounds, like the INSAS rifle, which is popularly used by the armed forces in India, including paramilitary forces.
It has an effective range of 500 metres.
It weighs less than four kilograms.
The rifle has a 20-round magazine that fires robust and in full auto mode.
Key Facts about Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO):
It is the R&D wing of the Ministry of Defence, Govt. of India, with a vision to empower India with cutting-edge defence technologies and a mission to achieve self-reliance in critical defence technologies and systems.
It is India’s largest research organisation.
Formation: The organisation was formed in 1958 from the amalgamation of the then-existing Technical Development Establishment (TDEs) of the Indian Army and the Directorate of Technical Development & Production (DTDP) with the Defence Science Organisation (DSO).
Headquarters: New Delhi.
It has a network of laboratories engaged in developing defence technologies covering various fields, like aeronautics, armaments, electronics, land combat engineering, life sciences, materials, missiles, and naval systems.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.aninews.in/news/national/general-news/drdo-launches-indigenous-assault-rifle-ugram-for-armed-forces20240109173930/#google_vignette
Consider the following statements regarding Drishti 10 ‘Starliner’:
- It is an indigenously manufactured Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV).
- It is an all-weather military platform which has clearance to fly in both segregated and unsegregated airspace.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Chief of Naval Staff recently flagged off the first indigenously manufactured Drishti 10 ‘Starliner’ Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV) for the Navy.
About Drishti 10 ‘Starliner’:
It is an indigenously manufactured Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV).
It was developed by Adani Defence and Aerospace.
It is an advanced intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR) platform with 36 hours endurance and a 450 kg payload capacity.
It is an all-weather military platform which has clearance to fly in both segregated and unsegregated airspace.
It is designed to possess high endurance, combat-proven capabilities, and advanced features, providing a significant boost to India’s naval capabilities.
The UAV’s autonomous nature, coupled with its mission effectiveness and payload configuration options, makes it an invaluable asset for strategic operations.
One of the distinguishing features of the Drishti 10 ‘Starliner’ is its minimal maintenance requirements, making it cost-effective and operationally efficient.
This characteristic ensures increased operational readiness, reducing downtime, and maximizing deployment opportunities.
It is equipped with advanced communication systems, including satellite communication and Line-of-Sight (LOS) data links, ensuring reliable and secure data transmission.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/navy-to-get-first-india-made-starliner-drone-today-4833642
Prasadam, India’s first “Healthy and Hygienic Food Street”, was recently opened at:
Ujjain
Explanation :
Union Minister for Health & Family Welfare recently inaugurated the country’s first healthy & hygienic food street, ‘Prasadam’, at Neelkanth Van, Mahakal Lok, in Ujjain, Madhya Pradesh.
About Prasadam:
It is the country’s first “Healthy and Hygienic Food Street”.
It has been opened at Neelkanth Van, Mahakal Lok, in Ujjain, Madhya Pradesh.
It will connect people in every corner of the country with pure and safe local and traditional food.
Spread over 939 square metres with 19 shops, Prasadam offers convenient and culturally rich dining options for the 1-1.5 lakh devotees who visit the Mahakaleshwar Temple daily.
The food street is designed to provide various facilities, including a kids’ play area, drinking water facility, CCTV surveillance, parking, public conveniences, and seating spaces.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://health.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/industry/indias-first-healthy-hygienic-food-street-prasadam-inaugurated-in-ujjain/106630212
Consider the following statements regarding the Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas:
- It commemorates the return of Mahatma Gandhi from South Africa to India in 1915.
- It is an annual event celebrated every year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Prime Minister of India extended greetings on the occasion of Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas.
It is also known as Non-Resident Indian (NRI) Day, is celebrated on January 9 to mark the contribution and achievements of the overseas Indian community to the development of India.
It is the flagship event of the Ministry of External Affairs.
The day also commemorates the return of Mahatma Gandhi, the greatest Pravasi, from South Africa to India in 1915, who led India’s freedom struggle and changed the lives of Indians forever.
It was first celebrated in 2003.
It was an annual event earlier, but in 2015, the government revised its format to celebrate PBD once every two years.
It has become a platform to connect the Indian diaspora with their roots and encourage their continued engagement with India’s progress.
It is held in different cities, to showcase the diversity and progress of different regions of India.
Till date, 17 conventions have been held. The last Pravasi Bharatiya Divas was celebrated in the Indore of Madhya Pradesh in 2023.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1994382
Consider the following statements regarding the International Classification of Diseaseas (ICD):
- It is developed by the World Health Organization (WHO).
- In India, the Central Bureau of Health Intelligence serves as the Collaboration Centre for ICD-related activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
World Health Organization’s International Classification of Diseaseas (ICD) 11 TM Module 2, Morbidity Codes launch event will be held in New Delhi on 10th January, 2024.
It is developed by the World Health Organization (WHO) to classify diseases internationally.
The global data on diseases currently available is mainly based on healthcare practices to be diagnosed through modern biomedicine.
It serves a broad range of uses globally and provides critical knowledge on the extent, causes and consequences of human disease and death worldwide via data that is reported and coded with the ICD.
Clinical terms coded with ICD are the main basis for health recording and statistics on disease in primary, secondary and tertiary care, as well as on cause of death certificates.
These data and statistics support payment systems, service planning, and administration of quality and safety, and health services research.
Diagnostic guidance linked to categories of ICD also standardizes data collection and enables large scale research.
The classification of data and terminology relating to diseases based on Ayush systems such as Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani etc. is not yet included in the WHO ICD series.
Central Bureau of Health Intelligence (CBHI) is an agency under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare that serves as the WHO Collaboration Centre for ICD-related activities.
It facilitates the collection and dissemination of data on various diseases and mortality.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1994614
With reference to Supreme Court Legal Services Committee, consider the following statements:
- It was constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
- A sitting Supreme Court judge is the chairman of this committee.
- Its chairman is nominated by the President of India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Supreme Court judge Justice BR Gavai has been nominated as the Chairman of the Supreme Court Legal Services Committee (SCLSC).
It was constituted under Section 3A of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
It was to provide “free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of society”, in cases falling under the top court’s jurisdiction.
Section 3A of the Act states that the Central Authority (the National Legal Services Authority or NALSA) shall constitute the committee.
Composition
It consists of a sitting SC judge, who is the chairman, along with other members possessing the experience and qualifications prescribed by the Centre.
Both the chairman and other members will be nominated by the Chief Justice of India (CJI). Further, the CJI can appoint the Secretary to the Committee.
The Committee, in turn, can appoint officers and other employees as prescribed by the Centre, in consultation with the CJI.
Rule 10 of the NALSA Rules, 1995, entails the numbers, experience, and qualifications of the SCLSC members.
Under Section 27 of the 1987 Act, the Centre is empowered to make rules in consultation with the CJI, by notification, to carry out the provisions of the Act.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/justice-gavai-sc-legal-services-committee-chairman-aid-india-nalsa-9095489/
INS Kabra, recently seen in the news, is a:
offshore patrol vessel
Explanation :
Indian warship, INS Kabra, an indigenous fast attack craft, docked at the Colombo port in a move aimed at fostering bilateral ties between India and Sri Lanka.
It is a naval vessel named after an island of the Andaman and Nicobar archipelago.
It belongs to the Car Nicobar class of high-speed offshore patrol vessels are built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE) for the Indian Navy.
It was eighth in a series of 10 Fast Attack Crafts.
The vessels are designed as a cost-effective platform for patrol, anti-piracy and rescue operations in India’s Exclusive Economic Zone.
The class and its vessels are named for Indian islands. They are the first water jet propelled vessels of the Indian Navy.
With a top speed of over 35 knots, and excellent manoeuvrability offered by her water-jet propulsion, the ship is ideally suited for high-speed interdiction of fast moving targets.
It is with the latest regulations of the International Maritime Organisation on sea complies pollution control.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/ins-kabra-docks-in-colombo-move-aimed-at-boosting-maritime-cooperation-124011000034_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Eucalyptus Snout Beetle:
- It is a pest indigenous to African continent.
- It results in stunted growth and deflation of plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Scientists have found a natural remedy to protect eucalyptus forest plantations from a pest, eucalyptus snout beetle, which is known to cause serious damage to eucalypts.
It is a leaf-feeding beetle that is a major defoliator of eucalypts.
It is also known as eucalyptus weevil.
The pest is indigenous to Australia but occurs in many countries throughout the world where eucalypts are grown.
The beetle feeds on leaves, buds and shoots, resulting in stunted growth and deflation and causing heavy losses.
It can cause damage over vast areas as it had a great flight capability and gets transferred with transport of forest products.
The pest is mainly controlled with the help of microwasps Anaphes spp — an expensive solution.
This led a team of scientists to look for naturally occurring pathogenic fungi to tackle the problem.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/world/scientists-characterise-a-natural-pathogenic-fungi-to-help-save-eucalyptus-forests-from-devastating-pest-93788
Consider the following statements regarding Spiral Galaxies:
- They contain a central bulge surrounded by a flat, rotating disk of stars.
- They are the least observed type of galaxies in the Universe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Hubble Space Telescope recently captured an image of the spiral galaxy, MCG-01-24-014, revealing the enigmatic beauty of what is known as ‘forbidden’ light.
About Spiral Galaxy:
Spiral galaxies are twisted collections of stars and gas that often have beautiful shapes and are made up of hot, young stars.
Most of the galaxies that scientists have discovered so far are spiral galaxies, as opposed to the other two main categories of galaxy shapes—elliptical and irregular.
Approximately 60% of all galaxies are thought to be spiral galaxies.
The Milky Way, the galaxy that includes Earth and our solar system, is an example of a spiral galaxy.
Structure:
Most spiral galaxies contain a central bulge surrounded by a flat, rotating disk of stars.
The bulge in the center is made up of older, dimmer stars and is thought to contain a supermassive black hole.
Approximately two-thirds of spiral galaxies also contain a bar structure through their center, as does the Milky Way.
The disk of stars orbiting the bulge separates into arms that circle the galaxy.
These spiral arms contain a wealth of gas and dust and younger stars that shine brightly before their quick demise.
Spiral galaxies are thought to evolve into elliptical galaxies as the spirals get older.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/hubble-telescope-captures-forbidden-light-coming-from-deep-space-2485892-2024-01-08
Consider the following statements regarding Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM):
- It is a tariff on carbon-intensive products proposed by the United Nations.
- It imposes a charge on the embedded carbon content of certain imports that is equal to the carbon price of domestic production.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
India recently flagged concerns relating to sensitive and confidential trade data of its exporters getting compromised while complying with the European Union’s Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM).
About Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM):
What is it? It is a proposed European Union (EU) tariff on carbon-intensive products.
Purpose: To put a fair price on the carbon emitted during the production of carbon intensive goods that are entering the EU and to encourage cleaner industrial production in non-EU countries.
It was adopted on May 17, 2023, and the CBAM transitional period started October 1, 2023.
It is designed to counter the risk of carbon leakage and operates by imposing a charge on the embedded carbon content of certain imports that is equal to the carbon price of domestic production.
How does it Work?
If implemented as planned, EU importers will have to buy carbon certificates corresponding to the carbon price that would have been paid in the EU if the goods had been produced locally.
The price of the certificates would be calculated according to the auction prices in the EU carbon credit market.
The amount of certificates required would be defined yearly by the quantity of goods and the embedded emissions in those goods imported into the EU.
Companies in countries with a domestic carbon pricing regime equivalent to the EU’s will be able to export to the EU without buying CBAM certificates.
The CBAM will initially affect goods imported from non-EU countries that are particularly carbon-intensive, namely specified goods within the cement, electricity, fertilisers, aluminium, iron, steel, and hydrogen sectors, as well as some upstream and downstream products (mainly iron, steel, and aluminium).
Transition Period:
In the transitional phase of the implementation of the CBAM, from October 1, 2023, to December 31, 2025, affected companies are subject to a reporting obligation without financial obligations.
During this period, importers must determine and document direct and indirect emissions that occur in the course of the production process of the imported goods.
In addition, affected EU importers are obliged to prepare a quarterly CBAM report that provides information on the imported quantity of CBAM goods, the direct and indirect embedded emissions contained therein (reporting on indirect embedded emissions is initially only for cement, electric power, and fertiliser), as well as any carbon taxes effectively paid in the country of production.
With the start of certificate trading from January 1, 2026, importers are obliged to purchase sufficient emission allowances for imported embedded emissions during the year.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/eu-carbon-tax-india-flags-risk-of-trade-info-getting-compromised-9104194/
With reference to the Henley Passport Index 2024, consider the following statements:
- It is based on exclusive data from the International Air Transport Association (IATA).
- Indian citizens are allowed visa-free travel to more than 100 countries.
- Afghanistan occupies the bottom spot on the list.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
only two
Explanation :
The average number of visa-free destinations nearly doubling since 2006, according to 2024 Henley Passport Index.
About Henley Passport Index:
It is the original, authoritative ranking of all the world’s passports according to the number of destinations their holders can access without a prior visa.
It started in 2006 as the Henley & Partners Visa Restrictions Index (HVRI).
The index is based on exclusive data from the International Air Transport Association (IATA), the largest, most accurate travel information database, and enhanced by Henley & Partners’ research team. (Henley & Partners is a London-based advisory firm).
The index includes 199 different passports and 227 different travel destinations.
The number of countries that a specific passport can access becomes its visa-free ‘score’.
Highlights of Henley Passport Index 2024:
France, Germany, Italy, Japan, Singapore, and Spain hold the top spot as the world’s most powerful passports, allowing visa-free entry to 194 global destinations.
The top 10 is largely dominated by European countries.
The average number of destinations travellers are able to access visa-free has nearly doubled, from 58 in 2006 to 111 in 2024.
India’s passport ranked 80th in the list, with citizens allowed to travel to 62 countries without a visa.
Afghanistan occupies the bottom spot on the list, with access to just 28 countries without a visa.
Syria, with visa-free access to only 29 destinations, holds the second-lowest position, followed by Iraq with 31 and Pakistan with 34.
The United Arab Emirates was the fastest climber over the past decade, jumping to 11th place and offering access to 183 destinations without a visa.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/6-countries-share-top-spot-for-most-powerful-passports-check-indias-rank-101704943453231.html
Which one of the following best describes ‘Sidersaura marae’?
A newly discovered species of dinosaur
Explanation :
Paleontologists in Argentina recently found fossil fragments of a new species of dinosaur named Sidersaura marae.
About Sidersaura marae:
It is a new species of sauropod dinosaur.
It lived during the Cenomanian age of the Late Cretaceous epoch, between 96 and 93 million years ago, in today’s Patagonian region.
It belongs to the Rebbachisauridae, a large family of sauropod dinosaurs known from fragmentary fossil remains from South America, Africa, North America, Europe, and Asia.
These dinosaurs are distinguished from other sauropods by their distinctive teeth. Some species had tooth batteries similar to those of hadrosaurs and ceratopsian dinosaurs.
Rebbachisaurids were very important dinosaurs in Cretaceous ecosystems and disappeared in the middle of this period in an extinction event that took place 90 million years ago.
It is one of the last rebbachisaurids.
Features of Sidersaura marae:
It was up to 20 m in length, had an estimated mass of 15 tons, and had a very long tail.
One of the characteristics that distinguishes Sidersaura marae from other dinosaurs is the star-shaped shape of the hemal arches (tail bones).
Its skull bones are robust, unlike those of the rest of its closest relatives.
Another cranial feature that differentiates Sidersaura marae from other rebbachisaurids is its frontoparietal foramen, which is basically a hole in the roof of the skull.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.sci.news/paleontology/sidersaura-marae-12594.html
Einstein Probe (EP), a new astronomical satellite, was recently launched by:
China
Explanation :
China recently sent a new astronomical satellite called the Einstein Probe into space to observe mysterious transient phenomena in the universe that flicker like fireworks.
About Einstein Probe (EP):
The EP is a mission of the Chinese Academy of Sciences (CAS) dedicated to time-domain high-energy astrophysics.
The primary scientific goal of the EP is to explore the transient and variable X-ray sky, capturing powerful bursts of high-energy light emanating from objects such as merging neutron stars and black holes.
It was successfully launched on January 9, 2024, from the Xichang Satellite Launch Center in China with a “Long March-2C” rocket.
It is equipped with state-of-the-art X-ray mirrors and detectors.
Unlike conventional X-ray telescopes, Einstein Probe’s unique design allows it to monitor almost a tenth of the sky simultaneously, discovering new sources as they light up in X-rays and enabling in-depth studies of known and new celestial phenomena over extended periods.
It will also detect light from gamma-ray bursts, supernovae, flares from other stars,and events within the Solar System, such as emissions from comets.
The satellite has a weight of ～1450 kg and an average power of ～1212 W in total.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.deccanherald.com/science/space/china-launches-new-satellite-einstein-probe-shaped-like-a-lotus-to-observe-violent-cosmic-phenomena-2841452
Consider the following statements regarding the Rock glacier:
- It is a mass of rock, ice, snow and water that moves slowly down a mountain.
- It is formed when the glacier recedes or thaws.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A new study revealed that over 100 active permafrost structures identified in Jhelum basin, can cause catastrophic disasters in future.
A rock glacier is a mass of rock, ice, snow, mud, and water that moves slowly down a mountain under the influence of gravity.
Unlike an ice glacier, rock glaciers usually have very little ice visible at the surface.
The rock glacier might consist of a mass of ice covered by rock debris, or it might consist of a mass of rock with interstitial ice.
Formation:
Rock glaciers typically form in mountainous regions where there is a combination of permafrost, rock debris, and ice.
One common scenario involves a pre-existing glacier that accumulates debris and rocks as it moves.
Over time, if the glacier recedes or thaws, the debris-covered ice can transform into a rock glacier.
These are classified as ‘active’ or ‘relict’ to indicate the status of permafrost within them, identified by the appearance of the rock surfaces.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/climate-change/over-100-active-permafrost-structures-identified-in-jhelum-basin-can-cause-catastrophic-disasters-in-future-study-93796
Consider the following statements regarding the Momentum investing:
- It is a style of investing where investors buy assets with rising prices.
- Momentum investors generally do not conduct a deep analysis of the intrinsic value of the asset.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Many academic studies have shown that momentum investing can generate high returns that comfortably beat the benchmark indices.
It refers to a style of investing wherein investors purchase assets such as stocks or bonds that are consistently rising in price while selling assets whose prices are falling.
Momentum investors buy assets with rising prices in the hope that the upward price momentum of these assets would continue, thus allowing them to sell these assets at higher prices in the future to make profits.
It is based on the philosophy that there can be discernible trends in asset prices and that these trends tend to persist over time.
The persistence of such trends gives investors an opportunity to recognise and participate in them early enough to make significant profits from their investments.
Similarly, they sell assets that are falling in price expecting the fall in prices to continue for some time.
Momentum investors generally do not conduct a deep analysis of the fundamental or intrinsic value of the assets in which they invest their money.
They invest purely based on whether the price of an asset is showing a strong trend, either upward or downward, that they can ride on.
The “buy high, sell higher” philosophy of momentum investing is in stark contrast to the traditional “buy low, sell high” advice given to investors.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/specials/text-and-context/the-logic-behind-momentum-investing/article67724617.ece
With reference to Yakshagana, consider the following statements:
- It is a traditional folk dance from Andhra Pradesh.
- Its themes include Hindu epics of Ramayana or Mahabharata.
- Its main storyteller is known as Bhagawatha.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A century-old Yakshagana mela in Dakshina Kannada will resume its all-night performances following approval from the Karnataka High Court.
It is a famous Yakshagaana troupe started in the mid-19th century.
The Yakshagaana troupe, Kateel Sri Durgaparameshwari Yakshagaana Dashavatara Mandali, popularly known as Kateel Mela is an important ‘Harake Seva’ (hosting the Yakshagana show for God fulfilling a wish) troupe.
It performs on request by devotees who have taken a vow (Harake) to arrange a show of Yakshagaana for fulfillment of a desire or as a service.
Key facts about Yakshagana
It is a traditional folk dance form popular in Coastal Karnataka.
It is a rare combination of dance, music, song, scholarly dialogues and colourful costumes.
Traditionally, men portray all roles, including the female ones, though women are now part of Yakshagana troupes.
A typical troupe consists of 15 to 20 actors and a Bhagawatha, who is the master of ceremonies and the main storyteller.
Elements of Yakshagana
The Act: Each performance typically focuses on a small sub-story (known as ‘Prasanga’) from ancient Hindu epics of Ramayana or Mahabharata.
The show consists of both stage performances by talented artists and commentary (performed by the lead singer or Bhagawatha) accompanied by traditional music.
The Music: Musical instruments used in Yakshagana include Chande (drums), Harmonium, Maddale, Taala (mini metal clappers) and flute among others.
The Dress: Costumes used in Yakshagana are very unique and elaborate. Large size headgear, coloured faces, elaborate costumes all over the body and musical beads on the legs (Gejje).
Hence only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Mangalore/kateel-yakshagana-mela-to-revert-to-all-night-shows-from-january-14/article67723137.ece
The ‘Exercise Sea Dragon’ is a:
maritime exercise
Explanation :
Indian Navy’s P8I aircraft landed at Guam, a US island territory in Western Pacific, to participate in Exercise Sea Dragon – 24.
It is an elite multinational maritime exercise that encourages professional exchanges and teamwork among participating navies.
Participating countries: India, Japan, South Korea, Australia, and the US.
The exercise seeks to improve skills in a variety of maritime combat domains through a number of aerial and ground-based tasks, including:
Anti-submarine warfare (ASW): Locating and neutralising enemy submarines hiding beneath the seas.
Surface warfare: Coordinated attacks on hostile surface vessels using superior weaponry and tactics.
Air defence: Putting up an impenetrable air barrier to keep friendly forces safe from aerial threats.
Search and rescue (SAR): Tracking down and saving maritime personnel in need.
Communication and coordination: Synchronising activities across several platforms and exchanging information in a seamless manner.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://newsonair.gov.in/Main-News-Details.aspx?id=474838
Consider the following statements regarding the Report Fish Disease app:
- It is developed by the National Informatics Centre, Pune.
- It has a Geo-tagging technology to empower fish farmers with a platform to report diseases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The National Surveillance Programme for Aquatic Animal Diseases (NSPAAD) project has introduced a mobile app ‘Report Fish Disease’ to track and monitor fish diseases across the country.
The mobile application intends to empower fish farmers with a convenient and efficient platform to report diseases on their farms.
Central Institute of Fisheries Technology (CIFT) is one of the collaborative partners of the NSPAAD project of which ICAR-NBFGR is the lead institute, under which this app is developed.
Features
Its intuitive and user-friendly interface enables easy accessibility to fish farmers.
The app offers easy disease reporting format, where farmers can easily report disease outbreaks by providing essential information such as location, species affected, symptoms observed, and images.
Significance
Geo-tagging technology facilitates swift response from authorities and the receivers get real-time updates on the status of their reported cases, ensuring transparency and accountability in the disease management process.
The app also serves as an information hub, providing farmers with valuable resources on disease prevention, treatment, and best aquaculture practices.
It is to provide a comprehensive package to ensure diagnosis, prevention, control, and treatment of aquatic animal diseases, thereby providing solutions for encouraging the aquaculture farmers.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/agri-business/report-fish-disease-mobile-app-to-monitor-fish-diseases-launched/article67722762.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Amrit Bharat Station Scheme (ABSS):
- It is launched by the NITI Aayog.
- It aims for better traffic circulation, inter-modal integration in Indian Railways.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Udupi station under the Konkan Railway Corporation Ltd. (KRCL) network was recently included in the Railway Ministry’s Amrit Bharat Station Scheme (ABSS) for redevelopment.
About Amrit Bharat Station Scheme (ABSS):
It is an ongoing Indian Railways mission launched in February 2023 by the Ministry of Railways to redevelop 1,309 stations nationwide.
The scheme aims to transform railway stations into modern, well-equipped hubs with improved passenger amenities, better traffic circulation, inter-modal integration, and enhanced signage.
It is based on Master Planning for the long term and the implementation of the elements of the Master Plan as per the needs and patronage of the station.
The scheme shall cater for the introduction of new amenities as well as the upgradation and replacement of existing amenities.
The ultimate goal is to transform these stations into vibrant city centres over the long term.
Key Features:
Modern passenger amenities: This includes providing clean and hygienic waiting areas, restrooms, Special amenities for the disabled, and food and beverage outlets.
Improved traffic circulation: This includes creating separate entry and exit points for passengers and vehicles, widening roads and footpaths, and providing adequate parking facilities.
Inter-modal integration: This includes providing seamless connectivity between railway stations and other modes of transport, such as buses, taxis, and auto-rickshaws.
Upgraded signage: This includes providing clear and visible signage in multiple languages to guide passengers.
Sustainability: This includes using energy-efficient lighting and appliances.
Eco-friendliness:
Rainwater harvesting systems and green spaces
Ballastless tracks, which reduce noise and vibration
Roof plazas, where available, provide additional space for commercial activities and passenger amenities.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Mangalore/railway-ministry-includes-udupi-station-under-amrit-bharat-station-scheme-for-redevelopment/article67730492.ece
With reference to the Congo River, consider the following statements:
- It is the second-longest river in Africa, after the Nile.
- It drains into the Indian Ocean.
- The Congo River basin makes up the world’s second-largest rainforest.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
only two
Explanation :
The Congo River has risen to its highest level in more than 60 years, causing flooding throughout the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC) and the Congo Republic that has killed more than 300 people recently.
About Congo River:
It is a River in west-central Africa.
It is also called the Zaire River.
With a length of 2,900 miles (4,700 km), it is the continent’s second-longest river, after the Nile, and the ninth-longest in the world.
The river gets its name from the ancient Kongo Kingdom, which existed near the mouth of the river.
The Congo River system runs through the Republic of the Congo, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, the Central African Republic, western Zambia, northern Angola, and parts of Cameroon and Tanzania.
Course:
It rises in the highlands of northeastern Zambia between Lakes Tanganyika and Nyasa (Malawi) as the Chambeshi River at an elevation of 5,760 feet (1,760 metres).
Its course then takes the form of a giant counterclockwise arc, flowing to the northwest, west, and southwest before draining into the Atlantic Ocean at Banana (Banane) in the Democratic Republic of the Congo.
Its course through the rainforest causes it to cross the equator twice.
It is the deepest river in the world. It reaches depths of over 750 feet (230 meters).
The river also has the second-largest flow in the world, with a discharge of 1.5 million cubic feet of water per second, trailing only the Amazon, and the second-largest watershed of any river.
It drains an area of 3.7 million square kilometers (1.4 million square miles) known as the Congo Basin.
Much of the basin is covered by rich tropical rainforests and swamps. Together these ecosystems make up the bulk of Central Africa’s rainforest, which, at 178 million hectares (2005), is the world’s second-largest rainforest, second only to the Amazon Rainforest in South America.
The main tributaries are the Ubangi, Sangha, and Kasai.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.reuters.com/world/africa/hundreds-dead-congo-river-basin-submerged-by-generational-floods-2024-01-11/
Consider the following statements regarding Aligarh Muslim University (AMU):
- It is a private institution with all seats reserved for minorities.
- It was originally established by social reformer Sir Syed Ahmad Khan as the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College in 1875.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently said that over the last hundred years, Aligarh Muslim University (AMU) has continued to be an institute of national importance, without the minority tag, and asked how it matters for the people whether it is a minority institution or not.
About Aligarh Muslim University (AMU):
It is a government-run education institution situated in Aligarh, Uttar Pradesh.
History:
It was originally established by social reformer Sir Syed Ahmad Khan as the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College in 1875.
In the aftermath of the 1857 Indian War of Independence, the College was built on Khan’s conviction that it was important for Muslims to gain education and become involved in public life and government services in India.
Raja Jai Kishan helped Sir Syed establish the college.
Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College became AMU in 1920, following the Aligarh Muslim University Act.
From its very inception, it has kept its door open to members of all communities and from all corners of the country and the world. The university is open to all irrespective of caste, creed, religion, or gender.
AMU is recognised by the University Grant Commission (UGC) and the Association of Indian Universities (AIU).
AMU offers more than 300 courses in the traditional and modern branches of education.
It has three off-campus centres: AMU Malappuram Campus (Kerala), AMU Murshidabad Centre (West Bengal), and Kishanganj Centre (Bihar).
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.deccanherald.com/india/uttar-pradesh/how-does-it-matters-whether-aligarh-muslim-university-is-a-minority-institution-or-not-sc-asks-2845234
Consider the following statements regarding Article 30 of the Constitution of India:
- It provides for the rights of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.
- It applies only to religious minorities in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently attempted to strike a balance by remarking that the intent of Article 30 of the Constitution was not to ghettoise minorities by insisting they had the upper hand in administration of the institution.
About Article 30:
It is one of the many provisions that ensure the preservation of minority rights.
Article 30 of the Indian Constitution states the right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.
It says: “All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.”
It was adopted on December 8, 1948.
Features:
It consists of provisions that safeguard various rights of the minority community in the country, keeping in mind the principle of equality as well.
Article 30(1) says that all minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
The right is provided by this clause on two types of minorities, namely, religious and linguistic minorities.
Article 30(1A) deals with the fixation of the amount for the acquisition of property of any educational institution established by minority groups.
Article 30(2) states that the government should not discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a minority, whether based on religion or language, while giving aid.
Concept of Minorities:
The Constitution of India uses the word minority but does not define it.
Article 29 of the Indian Constitution uses the word ‘minorities’ in its marginal heading, but it speaks about “any section of the citizens inhabiting the territory of India or any part of the country should have the right to protect their language or script or culture, which is different and varied.
It also says that citizens should be allowed to take admission in any educational institution which is maintained by the State or getting help from State funds whether they vary in religion, race, caste, language, or any of them.
Article 30 of the Constitution of India talks only about religious and linguistic minorities.
Religious Minority: The basic ground for a community to be nominated as a religious minority is the numerical strength of the community.
Section 2, clause (c) of the National Commission of Minorities Act, declares six communities as minority communities. They are:
Muslims
Christians
Buddhists
Sikhs
Jains and
Zoroastrians (Parsis)
Linguistic Minorities:
Class or group of people whose mother language or mother tongue is different from that of the majority groups is known as the linguistic minorities.
Article 350-A of the Indian Constitution imposes an obligation on the states to try to provide enough facilities for instruction in the mother language at the primary level of education to children belonging to the linguistic minority community.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/sc-article-30-on-minority-institutes-not-intended-to-ghettoise-communities/articleshow/106740524.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements regarding Zero Effect, Zero Defect Scheme (ZED):
- It offers certification for environmentally conscious manufacturing.
- It is an initiative of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Zero Effect, Zero Defect scheme (ZED) by the MSME Ministry has achieved the 1 lakh certification milestone, the ministry said recently.
About Zero Effect, Zero Defect Scheme (ZED):
Launched in October 2016 and revamped in April 2022, the ZED scheme offers certification for environmentally conscious manufacturing under three certification levels (gold, silver, and bronze) classified according to 20 performance-based parameters such as quality management, timely delivery, process control, waste management, etc.
The major objectives of the ZED Scheme are:
To create proper awareness in MSMEs about ZED manufacturing and motivate them for the assessment of their enterprise for a ZED rating.
To drive manufacturing with the adoption of Zero Defect production processes without impacting the environment (Zero Effect).
To encourage MSMEs to constantly upgrade their quality standards in products and processes.
To support the “Make in India” campaign.
The scheme provides financial assistance of up to 75 percent of the total cost of certification, with a maximum subsidy ceiling of Rs 50,000, along with up to Rs 2 lakh in support for handholding/consultancy to achieve the next certification level.
For technology upgradation, the scheme offers assistance of up to Rs 3 lakhs for moving towards zero effect solutions/pollution control measures/cleaner technology.
MSMEs are charged Rs 10,000 for bronze certification, Rs 40,000 for silver certification, and Rs 90,000 for gold certification.
In December 2023, the MSME Ministry made the ZED scheme free for women-led MSMEs.
In addition, the government will now make guarantee payment of 100 percent financial support for the certification costs under the scheme.
The ZED certification is valid for three years, and the MSME units are required to re-apply for the certificate as per the validity of the scheme.
Currently, the scheme is applicable for manufacturing MSMEs only.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.financialexpress.com/business/sme/govts-zed-scheme-for-msmes-hits-1-lakh-certification-milestone-check-schemes-details/3361926/
Consider the following statements regarding the VIPER Rover:
- It is NASA’s first mobile robotic mission to the Moon.
- It will analyze ice on the surface of the Moon.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
NASA has invited people to send their names to the surface of the Moon aboard the agency’s first robotic lunar rover VIPER – short for Volatiles Investigating Polar Exploration Rover.
The Volatiles Investigating Polar Exploration Rover, or VIPER will get a close-up view of the location and concentration of ice and other resources at the Moon’s South Pole.
It is NASA’s first mobile robotic mission to the Moon.
It will directly analyze ice on the surface and subsurface of the Moon at varying depths and temperature conditions within four main soil environments.
The data VIPER transmits back to Earth will be used to create resource maps, helping scientists determine the location and concentration of ice on the Moon and the forms it’s in, such as ice crystals or molecules chemically bound to other materials.
It navigates across the rugged terrain of the lunar South Pole and gathers valuable data that will help us better understand the history of the Moon and the environment where NASA is planning to send Artemis astronauts.
Mission duration: 100 Earth days, covering 3 cycles of lunar day and night.
It will land at the South Pole of the Moon in late 2024.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/fly-your-name-to-the-moon-aboard-nasas-first-robotic-lunar-rover-9105574/
Consider the following statements regarding the Cannabinoids:
- These are class of compounds found in the cannabis plant.
- These are capable of producing a variety of neurological effects in animals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Scientists at CSIR-Indian Institute of Integrative Medicine (IIIM), Jammu, have found that tetrahydrocannabidiol (THCBD) which is phytocannabinoids, a class of compounds found in the cannabis plant, possess some hitherto unexplored antibiotic properties.
Cannabinoids are a class of compounds found in the cannabis plant.
The prefix ‘phyto’ in phytocannabinoid means it comes from a plant.
Cannabinoids bind to receptors in the bodies of animals to produce a variety of neurological effects.
The researchers extracted cannabidiol from a cannabis plant and made it react with hydrogen, using palladium as a catalyst.
This process yielded a mixture of molecules with the same composition and order of atoms but different structures. One of them was THCBD.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/csir-iiim-jammu-tetrahydrocannabidiol-antibiotic-effects-explained/article67729896.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Thylakoid membrane:
- It is a little pouch located in the chloroplasts of plants.
- It is not found in cyanobacteria.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Researchers at the University of Liège, Belgium have identified thylakoid microstructures in fossil cells that are 1.75 billion years old.
Thylakoids are little pouches located in the chloroplasts of plants.
They store chlorophyll, the substance in plant that reacts to sunlight and triggers photosynthesis.
These membranes are dense, mostly galactolipid, protein-containing bilayers in which photosynthesis occurs in photosynthetic organisms.
They are found in ancient, light-sensitive bacteria called cyanobacteria.
The cyanobacteria multiplied in the oceans billions of years ago, and are believed to be responsible for the vast stores of oxygen that are found in the atmosphere and thus, a precursor to life.
It is now believed that thylakoid membranes in cyanobacteria were what made them capable of using sunlight to create energy and release oxygen.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/newsletter/newsletter-science/what-are-thylakoid-membranes/article67726287.ece
Consider the following statements regarding National Sports Awards:
- Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award is given for outstanding performances in sports spanning over a period of four years.
- Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy is given to an individual for top performance in inter-university tournaments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the President of India presented the National Sports and Adventure Awards 2023 at a function in Rashtrapati Bhavan.
National Sports Awards are given every year to recognize and reward excellence in sports.
Categories of National Sports Award
Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award: It is considered India’s highest sporting honour, the Khel Ratna was established in 1991-92.
The award is named after the Indian hockey legend, Major Dhyan Chand
The award is given for outstanding performances in sports spanning over a period of four years and the Khel Ratna winners receive a medallion, certificate and a cash prize.
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy (MAKA): It was instituted in 1956–1957. It is given to an institution or university for top performance in inter-university tournaments over the last one year.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://newsonair.gov.in/News?title=President-Droupadi-Murmu-to-present-National-Sports-Awards-at-Rashtrapati-Bhavan&id=474808
Consider the following statements regarding Baleen whale:
- Theses possess unique epidermal modifications of the mouth to filter food from water.
- These are known as ecosystem engineers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Roughly 19 million years old fossil jaw bone of a baleen whale estimated to be around nine metres in length found recently.
These are any cetacean possessing unique epidermal modifications of the mouth called baleen, which is used to filter food from water.
Most mammals have teeth in their mouth. Baleen whales are a strange exception.
Baleen is a large rack of fine, hair-like keratin used to filter out small krill from the water.
This structure enabled baleen whales to feed efficiently on enormous shoals of tiny zooplankton in productive parts of the ocean, which facilitated the evolution of larger and larger body sizes.
There are 14 species of baleen whale including the blue, bowhead, right, humpback, minke and gray whale.
Baleen whales are generally larger than toothed whales except for the sperm whale which is very big and has teeth.
Many baleen whales migrate annually, travelling long distances between cold water feeding areas and warm water breeding areas.
The large whale fossils from Australasia and South America seem to suggest that for most of the evolutionary history of baleen whales, whenever a large baleen whale shows up in the fossil record, it is in the Southern Hemisphere.
Baleen whales are ecosystem engineers, their huge bodies consuming tremendous amounts of energy.
Upon death, these whales provide an abundance of nutrients to deep-sea ecosystems.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/19-million-year-old-fossil-jaw-bone-hints-the-biggest-whales-first-evolved-somewhere-unexpected/article67709575.ece
The AN-32 Aircraft is a:
Soviet-origin military transport aircraft
Explanation :
The Indian Air Force (IAF) recently located the wreckage of an An-32 aircraft that went missing nearly seven-and-a-half years ago.
About AN-32 Aircraft:
The AN-32 (Antonov AN-32) is a Soviet-origin military transport aircraft.
It is designed and manufactured by the Antonov Design Bureau of Ukraine for the Indian Air Force (IAF).
It was purchased by India from the erstwhile Soviet Union in 1984. The IAF has a fleet of around 100 AN-32 planes.
Its NATO reporting name is Cline.
Features:
The aircraft is designed to manoeuvre day and night in tropical and mountainous regions, even in hot climatic conditions (up to 55°C).
It is powered by two single-shaft turboprop engines.
An-32 can fly at a maximum speed of 530km/h, and its cruise speed is 470km/h.
The range and service ceiling of the aircraft are 2,500km and 9,500m, respectively.
The aircraft weighs around 16,800kg, and its maximum take-off weight is 27,000kg.
It can takeoff and land on rough airfields and dirt runways.
The aircraft can transport either 7.5tons of cargo, 50 passengers, 42 paratroopers, or 24 patients and three medical crews over domestic and international air routes.
It also has a limited bombing role and is used for para-trooping operations.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/wreckage-of-iafs-an-32-aircraft-traced-seven-and-a-half-years-after-it-went-missing/articleshow/106768753.cms?from=mdr
What is ‘HD 63433d’, that was in the news recently?
An Earth-like exoplanet
Explanation :
Astronomers recently unveiled the discovery of an Earth-like planet, younger and closer than any previously identified, named HD 63433d.
About HD 63433d:
It is an Earth-like exoplanet that orbits a sun-like star called HD 63433 (also known as TOI 1726).
The star is about 73 light years away from the sun and is part of the group of stars moving together that make up the constellation Ursa Major.
The star HD 63433 shares similarities with our sun in size and type but is significantly younger, at roughly 400 million years old.
It is the smallest confirmed exoplanet, younger than 500 million years old.
It’s also the closest Earth-sized planet discovered so far, and it’s about 400 million years old.
For comparison, Earth and the rest of our solar system are around 4.5 billion years old, meaning HD 63433 d appears to be just around 10% of the age of our planet.
It’s the third planet found in orbit around its star. This planet is eight times closer to its star than Mercury is to the Sun.
Because of its proximity to its star, which has 99% the mass of our sun, the planet is tidally locked, just like the moon is to Earth.
This means that one side of the planet, its dayside, constantly faces the star and is permanently blasted with stellar radiation, while the cooler nightside perpetually faces out into space.
This pushes surface temperatures on the planet’s dayside up around 2,300 degrees Fahrenheit (1,260 degrees Celsius).
Its orbit is remarkably short, completing a full revolution around its star every 4.2 days.
Being so hot, so close to its star, and so small, this planet likely lacks a substantial atmosphere.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.earth.com/news/new-earth-like-planet-discovered-in-big-dipper-constellation/
