Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AUBF > Introduction to Urinalysis > Flashcards

Introduction to Urinalysis Flashcards

1
Q

3 methods used in urinalysis?

A
  1. Disptick
  2. Basic (routine) urinalysis; Wet urinalysis
  3. Specialized cytopathogenic urine sediment exam
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

→ Commonly requested test
→ Urine contains many information
→ Inexpensive

A

Urinalysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Screening test; also known as urine chemistry

A

Dipstick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

also known as urine chemistry

A

Dipstick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Dipstick measures what urine components?

A

protein
glucose
pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Basic (routine) urinalysis is also known as ?

A

Wet urinalysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Whar are the 3 sections done in Basic (routine) urinalysis; Wet urinalysis?

A

Physical, Chemical, Microscopic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Basic (routine) urinalysis; Wet urinalysis

Physical section include observation of what 2 components?

A

Color, Transparency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Basic (routine) urinalysis; Wet urinalysis

In microscopic section, what components are nobserved?

A

Cells, casts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  • Examination of abnormal cells with the latest technology
  • Chemical, microscopic and new technologies like immunochemistry, molecular diagnostics, dNA, and cell cycle analysis
A

Specialized cytopathogenic urine sediment exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

T or F

Specialized cytopathogenic urine sediment exam is routinely performed

A

F (not routinely performed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

detects cancer, renal transplant rejection

A

Specialized cytopathogenic urine sediment exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the composition of urine?

A

95% Water
5% Solute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Composition of Urine

How many percent of water is in urine?

A

95%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Composition of Urine

How many percent of solute is in urine?

A

5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Urine composition factors because of what 4 factors?

A
  1. Dietary intake
  2. Physical activity
  3. Metabolism
  4. Endocrine functions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Main organic component of urine?

A

Urea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

waste products of protein removed by kidney

A

Urea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

T or F

Urea and creatinine are normal components of urine

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Main inorganic components of the urine?

A

Chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the other organic components of urine

A

Creatinine, Uric acid, Ammonia, Nitrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the other inorganic components of urine

A

Sodium, Potassium, Phosphorus, Calcium, Magnesium, Iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Other components of urine? (neither inorganic or organic)

A

Hormones, Vitamins, Medication, formed elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T or F

Urine of volume depends on the volume of water the kidneys excrete

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Normal average volume of urine of adults?

A

1,200 - 1,500 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Normal range of volume of urine of adults?

A

600 - 2,000 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Nigh urine is not excess of how many mL?

A

400 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

T or F

Night urine in general is not in excess of 300 ml

A

F (not in excess of 400 ml)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When is the urine volume higher, day or night?

A

Day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Factors that influence urine volume?

A
  1. Fluid intake
  2. Fluid loss
  3. Variations in the secretions of ADH
  4. Necessity to excrete increased amounts of dissolved solids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

This makes tubules permeable to water

A

ADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

High ADH indicates what in terms of volume of urine?

A

High ADH = low volume urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Low ADH indicates what in terms of volume of urine?

A

Low ADH = High volume urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Low ADH indicates what condition?

A

deficiency in ADH (diabetes insipidus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Condition where urine is less than 400 mL/day in adults

A

Oliguria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Causes of Oliguria?

A
  1. Dehydration
  2. Renal ischemia
  3. Hemolytic transfusion reaction
  4. Uremia due to progressive renal disease
  5. Obstruction of urinary tract
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Causes of Oliguria

Symptoms of dehydration include?

A
  1. Prolonged vomiting and diarrhea
  2. Excessive sweating
  3. Fever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Oliguria

Oligo means?

A

Decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Causes of Oliguria

narrowing of artery

A

Renal Ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

T or F

Narrowing of artery means more blood enters the kidney

A

F (narrowing of artery = less blood enters kidney)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Causes of Oliguria

red blood cells are damaged

A

Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
  • increase in urine volume
  • more than 2,500 ml /24 hr
  • 2.5 to 3 mL/kg/day in children
A

Polyuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Polyuria

How many volume of urine excreted in polyuria?

A

2,500 ml /24 hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Polyuria

How many volume of urine excreted in polyuria

In children

A

2.5 to 3 mL/kg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Polyuria

What conditions are associated with polyuria?

A
  • diabetes mellitus
  • diabetes insipidus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Polyuria

A condition in polyuria wherein there is defect either in pancreatic production of insulin or in insulin function

A

Diabetes mellitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Polyuria

A condition in polyuria wherein there is decreased production or function of ADH causing decreased reabsorption of water from ultrafiltrate

A

Diabetes insipidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Polyuria

High or Low Specific Gravity?

Diabetes mellitus

A

High SG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Polyuria

High or Low Specific Gravity?

Diabetes insipidus

A

Low SG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Causes of polyuria?

A
  1. Increased salt intake and high protein diet
  2. Drugs (caffeine, alcohol, thiazides and other diuretics)
  3. Intravenous saline or glucose solution
  4. Chronic progressive renal failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

more than 500 ml with a specific
gravity of less than 1.018 at night

A

Nocturia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Nocturia means having more than ____ mL with SG of less than ____ at night

A

500 mL, 1.018

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

complete or total suppression of urine formation

A

Anuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

urine that is left in the bladder after voluntary urination

A

Residual urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Capcity of urine container

A

50 - 100 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Urine volume

A

10 - 15 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

capacity container for 24 hour collection

A

3L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Light sensitive analytes

A

Bilirubin,
Urobilinogen
Porphyrins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Needed labels

A

Patient’s full name
Date of collection
Time of collection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Enumerate additional information written on requisition form

A

method of collection
type of specimen
interfering medications
patient’s clinical information
time the specimen is received

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Urine must be tested within how many hours

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Urine should be refrigerated if not tested within ___ mins after collection

A

30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Increase or Decrease in Unpreserved Urine

Bacteria

A

Increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Increase or Decrease in Unpreserved Urine

Turbidity

A

Increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Increase or Decrease in Unpreserved Urine

pH

A

Increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Increase or Decrease in Unpreserved Urine

Nitrite

A

Increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Increase or Decrease in Unpreserved Urine

Glucose

A

Decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Increase or Decrease in Unpreserved Urine

Ketones

A

Decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Increase or Decrease in Unpreserved Urine

Bilirubin

A

Decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Increase or Decrease in Unpreserved Urine

Urobilinogen

A

Decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Increase or Decrease in Unpreserved Urine

Cells and casts

A

Decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Increase or Decrease in Unpreserved Urine

Trichomonas

A

Decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Urease converts urea into what?

A

CO2 and ammonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Nitrate is converted into what?

A

Nitrite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Bilirubin is converted into what?

A

Biliverdin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Urobilinogen is converted into what?

A

Urobilin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

3 ways to preserve the specimen

A

Refrigeration 2°C to 8°C
Freezing
Chemical preservative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Characteristic of an ideal chem preservative

A

bactericidal - kills bacteria
inhibits urease
preserves formed elements in the specimen - WBCS stay the same

79
Q

Preservative that does not iterfere with the chemical test

A

Refrigeration

80
Q

Preservative used in C&S and maintains pH at 6.0

A

Boric acid

81
Q

Bacteriostatic agent

A

Boric acid

82
Q

Excellent sediment preservative

A

Formalin

83
Q

Preservative used in glucose determination

A

Sodium Fluoride

84
Q

Preservative used in cytologic studies

A

Saccomanno’s

85
Q

Container that contains Boric acid, sodium borate, and sodium formate

A

Light gray tube (for C&S)

86
Q

Urine in light dray tube is stable at RT for how many hours

A

48 hours

87
Q

Light gray tube can preserve estriol and estrogen for how many days

A

7

88
Q

Urine container;

With tube for automated instruments
No preservative

A

Yellow UA

89
Q

Cherry red/yellow top container has which two components?

A

Na+ propionate and chlorhexidine

90
Q

Urine in cherry red/yellow top is stable at RT for how many hours

A

72

91
Q

Preservation for urea

A

Ref

92
Q

Preservation for aldosterone and cortisol

A

Boric acid

93
Q

Preservation for cathecolamines

A

6N HCl

94
Q

Routine screening

A

Random specimen

95
Q

Urine specimen

concentrated and acidic (Casts dissolve in dilute alkaline urine)
ideal for routine urinalysis and pregnancy testing
evaluation of orthostatic proteinuria

A

First morning

96
Q

Urine specimen

Fasting patient
The next day patient will urinate, discard the first morning
Get the second morning

A

Fasting (2nd morning)

97
Q

Urine specimen

Starting from time zero

A

Timed specimen

98
Q

Timed specimen

Quantitative analysis, clearance tests
Diurnal variations
Mix specimen
Measure total volume collected
40 mL aliquot is submitted for
analysis

A

24-hour

99
Q

Timed specimen

Formalin as preservative

A

12-hour specimen

100
Q

Timed specimen

Monitoring insulin therapy in DM

A

2-hour post prandial

101
Q

Timed specimen

used for “urobilinogen determination”
Urobilinogen is stable at alkaline ph

A

Afternoon specimen

102
Q

Afternoon specimen is collected at which hours

A

2 - 4pm

103
Q

Urine specimen

Bacterial culture/routine analysis
Cytology

A

Midstream

104
Q

Urine specimen

3 glass collection

A

Prostatitis specimen

105
Q

Urine specimen

Soft,clear plastic bags with hypoallergenic skin adhesive

A

Pediatric collection

106
Q

T or F: First morning urine is alkaline

A

False

107
Q

For bacterial culture, do not use strong bacterial agents such as __________ or ________ _______ as cleansing agents

A

hexachlorophene, povidone iodine

108
Q

process that provides documentation of proper sample identification from the time of collection to the receipt of laboratory results.

A

Chain of custody

109
Q

Required amount for drug specimen collection

A

30 - 45 mL (60mL)

110
Q

Required temperature for drug specimen collection

A

32.5 - 37.7 within4 mins

111
Q

yellow pigment in Urine;
most abundant

A

Urochrome

112
Q

orange red; brown pigment in urine

A

Urobilin

113
Q

Pink-red pigment in urine

A

Uroerythrin

114
Q

White foam in urine is attributed to?

A

Protein

115
Q

Yellow foam in urine is caused by?

A

Bilirubin

116
Q

State the color

Conc specimen
B complex vitamins
Dehydration
Bilirubin
Acriflavine
Nitrofurantoin

A

Dark yellow

117
Q

State the color

Phenazopyridine (Pyridium), azo gantrisin
Phenindione

A

Orange-yellow

118
Q

State the color

Bilirubin oxidized to biliverdin

A

Yellow-green

119
Q

State the color

Pseudomonas infection

A

Green

120
Q

State the color

Clorets
Phenol
Amitriptyline
Methocarbamol
Methylene blue
Indican

A

Blue-green

121
Q

State the color

RBCs
Hemoglobin
Myoglobin
Beets
Rifampin
Mens contamination

A

Pink Red

122
Q

State the color

Porphyrins

A

Port wine

123
Q

State the color

RBCs oxidized to methemoglobin
Myoglobin

A

Red-brown

124
Q

State the color

Homogentistic acid
Malignant melanoma
Melanin or melanogen
Phenol derivatives
Argyrol
Methyldopa or Iovedopa
Metronidazole

A

Brown Black

125
Q

Cloudy urine and has RBCs present

A

Hematuria

126
Q

Clear urine and has clear blood plasma

A

Myoglobinuria

127
Q

Clear urine and has red blood plasma

A

Hemoglobinuria

128
Q

Clarity

No visible particulates; transparent

A

Clear

129
Q

Clarity

Few particulates; print easilty seen through urine

A

Hazy

130
Q

Clarity

Many particulates; print blurred through ruine

A

Cloudy

131
Q

Clarity

Print cant be seen

A

Turbid

132
Q

Clarity

May precipitate or clotted

A

Milky

133
Q

Attributed for pink cloud seen in urine

A

Urates

134
Q

Attributed for orange cloud seen in urine

A

Uric acid

135
Q

Attributed for white cloud seen in urine

A

Leukocytes

136
Q

Urine turbidity

Amorphous urates
Radiographic contrast media

A

Acid urine

137
Q

Urine turbidity

Amorphous phosphates
carbonates

A

Alkaline urine

138
Q

What are soluble with heat?

A

Urates and uric acid

139
Q

What are soluble in dilute acetic acid?

A

RBCs, amorphous phosphates, carbonates

140
Q

What are insoluble in dilute acetic acid?

A

WBCS, Bacteria, Yeast, Sperm

141
Q

What are soluble in ether?

A

Lipids, lymphatic fluid, chyle

142
Q

Pathologic or nonpathologic

Squamous epith cell
Mucus
Amorphous urates/phosphates
Semen

A

NOn

143
Q

Pathologic or nonpathologic

Fecal contamination
Radiographic contrast media
Talcum, vaginal creams

A

Non

144
Q

Pathologic or nonpathologic

RBC (>500 RBC/ul
WBC (>200 WBC/ul)

A

Pathologic

145
Q

Pathologic or nonpathologic

Bacteria
Yeast
Non-squamous epithelial cells

A

Pathologic

146
Q

Pathologic or nonpathologic

Abnormal crystals
Lymph fluid
Lipids

A

Pathologic

147
Q

Density of a solution compared with the density of a similar volume of distilled water at a similar temperature

A

SG

148
Q

indicates the relative proportion of dissolved solid components to total volume of the specimen

A

SG

149
Q

Average SG

A

1.016 - 1.022

150
Q

Range for SG

A

1.002 - 1.035

151
Q

SG for Isosthenuric

A

1.010

152
Q

SG for hypothenuric

A

below 1.010

153
Q

SG for hypersthenuric

A

above 1.010

154
Q

Execution of which three components will give a high SG in urine?

A

radiographic contrast media, mannitol, and dextran

155
Q

Principle of urinometry

A

Water displacement or buoyancy

156
Q

Disadvantage or urinometry

A

Needs 10 - 15 mL

157
Q

Increased or decreased SG

Cold temp

A

Increased

158
Q

Increased or decreased SG

High temp

A

Decreased SG

159
Q

Principle for refractometry

A

Refractive index

160
Q

Refers to change in direction of wave due to change in speed

A

Refraction

161
Q

determines the concentration of dissolved particles in a specimen by measuring the refractive index

A

Refractometer

162
Q

comparison of velocity of light
in air with velocity of light in a solution

A

Refractive index

163
Q

Refractometer calibrated reading of 3% NaCl

A

1.015

164
Q

Refractometer calibrated reading of 5% NaCl

A

1.022

165
Q

Refractometer calibrated reading of 9% sucrose

A

1.034

166
Q

T or F: Refractometer has temperature compensated bet 15 c and 28 c

A

False (15 - 38)

167
Q

Principle of dipstick

A

pKa change of polyelectrolytes

168
Q

Reagent strip contains which three components?

A

Polyelectrolytes
Indicator
Buffer

169
Q

Polyelectrolytes used in dipstick

A

Multistix and chemstrip

170
Q

Multistix or chemstrip

polymethylvinyl
ether/malei acid

A

Multistix

171
Q

Multistix or chemstrip

ethylene glycol-bis
tetraacetic acid

A

Chemstrip

172
Q

Interference in reagent strip that causes a falsely elevated result

A

High conc of protein

173
Q

Interference in reagent strip that causes a falsely decreased result

A

Highly alkaline urine

174
Q

A volume of urine is maintained in a U shaped tube and a sound wave of fixed frequency is transmitted to one end of the tube.
Specific gravity is directly related to the change in frequency recorded as the sound wave exits the other end of the tube

A

Harmonic Oscillation Densitometry

175
Q

timing the fall of a drop of body fluid of known size, through a definite distance in a mixture
heavier drop will fall faster
there is column and water immiscible oil

A

Falling drop

176
Q

Enumerate the direct methods for SG measurement

A

Urinometer
Harmonic oscillation densitometry (HOD)

177
Q

Enumerate the indirect methods for SG measurement

A

Refractometer
Chemical reagent strips

178
Q

the concentration of a solution in terms of osmoles of solute per kilogram of solvent
indicates the number of particles of solute per unit of solution

A

Osmolality

179
Q

Normal value for serum osmolality

A

275 - 300 mOsm/kg

180
Q

After period of dehydration, osmolality of urine should be how many times higher than that in the plasma?

A

3 - 4 times

181
Q

Solute dissolved in solvent causes which 4 changes in colligative properties?

A

lower freezing point
lower vapor pressure
higher boiling point
higher osmotic pressure

182
Q

T or F: Freezing point of a liquid is depressed when another compound is added

A

True

183
Q

State the odor

faint, aromatic
(fresh specimen)

A

Normal odor

184
Q

Substance responsible for odor of urine

A

Urinod

185
Q

State the odor

Bacterial contamination

A

Ammoniacal

186
Q

State the odor

Diabetic acidosis

A

Sweet/fruity

187
Q

State the odor

Asparagus, Onions, Garlic

A

Pungent

188
Q

State the odor

isovaleric & glutaric

A

Sweaty feet

189
Q

State the odor

Maple syrup urine disease

A

Maple syrup

190
Q

State the odor

methionine malabsorption

A

Cabbage

191
Q

State the odor

phenylketonuria (for mentally retarded people

A

Mousy

192
Q

State the odor

trimethylaminuria

A

Rotting fish

193
Q

State the odor

Tyrosinemia

A

Rancid

194
Q

State the odor

Contamination

A

Bleach

AUBF (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions