Important Info 2.4 ex 2

Question 1

Which would negate the beneficial effects of an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor?

Answer 1

an anticholinergic

Question 2

What is an adverse effect of a drug independent of its main pharmacodynamic effect?

Answer 2

Bupropion (Wellbutrin) and seizures

Question 3

What is an example of a pharmacodynamic effect?

Answer 3

a. Dizziness from a drug

Question 4

Carbamazepine is an enzyme inducer related to which liver enzyme?

Answer 4

CYP3A4

Question 5

Which benzodiazepine is least likely to accumulate in people over 65 years old?
a. Lorazepam
b. Oxazapam
c. Tomazapam
d. All the above

Answer 5

d. All the above

Question 6

Which of the following is a symptom of acute cholinergic toxicity?

Answer 6

Bradycardia

Question 7

A drug that has an effect of increasing gastric emptying:

Answer 7

a. Increased absorption

Question 8

What ions are associated with phase 0?

Answer 8

Sodium

Question 9

Which of the following is an “irreversible” indirect cholinergic agent?

Answer 9

a. Novichok

Question 10

Which of the following is an arrythmia that results in a HR of less than 60 bpm?

Answer 10

Bradycardia

Question 11

Vaughn-Williams Classification III:

Answer 11

K+ channel blocker

Question 12

Which receptor minimizes the potential for dry mouth?

Answer 12

a. M3

Question 13

Which is a neurohormone?

Answer 13

Epinephrine

Question 14

Which of the following medications is likely to result in dry mouth and sedation due to its effects at the histamine receptor?

Answer 14

Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) an allergy medication

Question 15

Which of the following is the best beta blocker for asthma patients?

Answer 15

Metoprolol

Question 16

Which of the following medications has a risk of gingival hyperplasia?
a. Verapamil
b. Nifedipine
c. Diltiazem
d. All of the above

Answer 16

d. All of the above

Question 17

Post-ganglionic sympathetic releases:

Answer 17

NE

Question 18

Post-ganglionic parasympathetic releases:

Answer 18

Ach

Question 19

Autonomic pre-ganglionic releases

Answer 19

Ach

Question 20

Regeneration of AchE

Answer 20

a. Pralidoxime

Question 21

What do you give to a patient with anaphylaxis?

Answer 21

a. 0.3 mg IM epinephrine

Question 22

Short acting beta 2 agonist in asthmatic patients

Answer 22

Albuterol

Question 23

Which drug metabolism phase functions impair with age?

Answer 23

Phase 1

Question 24

Stroke volume =

Answer 24

EDV – ESV

Question 25

Which commonly occurs during pregnancy?

Answer 25

a. Increased renal blood flow and GFR

Question 26

Which increases cardiac contraction by stimulating myocardial B1 receptors?

Answer 26

DOBUTamine

Question 27

Which is a short-term temporizing agent for hypotension and serves as a nasal decongestant?

Answer 27

Phenylephrine

Question 28

What are the three endogenous catecholamines?

Answer 28

a. Dopamine, NE, and epinephrine

Question 29

Myocardial oxygen demand is determined by

Answer 29

HR and myocardial contractility

Question 30

Characteristic of alpha 1 adrenergic receptor activation?

Answer 30

Increased sympathetic tone

Question 31

Which of the following results in a gross structural malformation during fetal development and is different than other forms of fetal damage?

Answer 31

Teratogenicity (Ex. Thalidomide- sedative/hypnotic – shortened long bone development)

Question 32

Which of the following drugs has the greatest risk of causing orthostatic hypotension?

Answer 32

Terazosin

Question 33

Ethnic variation.. that some individuals of Chinese... this is because of increased concentrations of what?

Answer 33

Acetaldehyde

Question 34

Acetylcholine is broken down by which of the following enzymes?

Answer 34

Acetylecholinesterase

Question 35

Which of the following does beta 1 not do?

Answer 35

bronchodilation

Question 36

Fluoxetine is SSRI antidepressant and inhibits Cytochrome P450 2D6. Risperidone is antipsychotic and is substrate for P450 2D6. What effect would you expect fluoxetine to have on risperidone in terms of drug concentration?

Answer 36

Risperidone levels increase (he used different drug examples)

Question 37

Atrial repolarization =

Answer 37

QRS Complex

Question 38

Which of the following is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker?

Answer 38

Succinylcholine

Question 39

What tertiary amine .... Something something_(all but 1 option were quaternary)

Answer 39

Atropine ## Footnote other tertiary amines: - scopolamine - benztropine - dicyclomine

Question 40

A drug that treated cholinergic toxicity would NOT treat:

Answer 40

Paralysis

Question 41

Which type of blockade can cause a patient... if they go from supine immediately sttanding? (or something like this)

Answer 41

Alpha 1 blockade; orthostatic hypotension

Question 42

Which drugs are contraindicated in patients with asthma? a. opiates b. aspirin c. antihistamines d. all the above

Answer 42

d. all the above

Question 43

Which of the following substances is released by the adrenal medulla and is considered to be a neurohormone?

Answer 43

Epinephrine

Question 44

In older pt or those over the age of 65, it is not uncommon to see a decrease in hepatic activity, especially ______ metabolism which can lead to drug accumulation

Answer 44

Phase 1?

Question 45

Individual drug variation can result from pharmokinetic and pharmodynamic differences and may also be categorized as idiosyncratic. Which of the following statements provides an example of a pharmocynamic effect?

Answer 45

Sedation from blocking histamine 1 receptor

Question 46

Which antianginal medication has a risk of QT prolongation and may cause an arrhythmia called torsade de points (TdP)?

Answer 46

Ranolazine (other answer choices were atenolol, verapamil, and one other)

Question 47

Beta 1 receptor agonist leads to all of the following except

Answer 47

Bronchodilation

Question 48

A new drug is in development that is designed to treat chronic dry mouth. In order to minimize the potential for adverse effects and unwanted clinical effects while maximizing the ability to stimulate saliva secretion, which of the following receptors should this new drug be a selective agonist of?

Answer 48

M3

Question 49

Which of the following medication improves angina by inhibiting calcium ions influx through L type of slow calcium channels? a. Amlodipine (Norvasc) b. Metoprolol c. Nitroglycerine (nitrostat) d. Ranolazine (renexa)

Answer 49

a. Amlodipine (Norvasc)

Question 50

Which of the following is TRUE regarding beta 2 adrenergic receptor

Answer 50

Triggers bronchodilation

Question 51

Which of the following medication has a possible adverse drug reaction (ADR) of photosensitivity which may make it painful for pt to have a dental light in their eyes?

Answer 51

Amidraonine

Question 52

Which of the following symptoms would you not expect to see in patient presenting with acute cholinergic toxicity?

Answer 52

Dry mouth

Question 53

Movement of this ion is responsible for the rapid repolarization phase (phase 3) of the cardiac action potential?

Answer 53

Potassium

Question 54

What are following statements for pharmacodynamics

Answer 54

Sedation from blocking histamine 1 receptors

Question 55

Potassium channel blockers which von Williams class for anti-arrhythmic meds?

Answer 55

Class 3

Question 56

Which one increases intracellular cGMP?

Answer 56

Isosorbide Mononitrate

Question 57

Older patients accumulate what? a. Lorazepam b. Oxazepam c. Temazepam d. Diazepam e. all the above

Answer 57

d. Diazepam

Question 58

A drug that inhibits gastric emptying?

Answer 58

a. Slows absorption