Important Info 2.2 ex 2

Question 1

Which of the following is a symptom of acute cholinergic toxicity?

Answer 1

Bradycardia

Question 2

A drug that has an effect of increasing gastric emptying:

Answer 2

Increased absorption

Question 3

What ions are associated with phase 0?

Answer 3

Sodium

Question 4

What of the following medications has a high risk of QT prolongation and TDP?

Answer 4

All of the above (two of the options were dofetilide and dronedarone; didn’t recognize last option)

all class III antiarrythmic meds:
- amiodarone
- dofetilide
- dronedarone
- sotalol
- ibutilide

plus ranolazine

Question 5

Which of the following is an “irreversible” indirect cholinergic agent?

Answer 5

Novichok

other correct option:
- parathion
- malathion
- sarin
- soman
- tabun
- VX

Question 6

Which of the following is an arrythmia that results in a HR of less than 60 bpm?

Answer 6

Bradycardia

Question 7

What Vaughn-Williams Classification for Ca channel blockers

Answer 7

Vaughn-Williams Classification IV

Question 8

Which receptor minimizes the potential for dry mouth?

Answer 8

M3

Question 9

Which is a neurohormone?

Answer 9

Epinephrine

Question 10

Which of the following drugs causes dry mouth/urinary hesitancy?

Answer 10

Disopyramide (Norpace)

Question 11

Which of the following medications is likely to result in dry mouth and sedation due to its effects at the histamine receptor?

Answer 11

Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) an allergy medication

Question 12

Which medication increases cardiac contractility by inhibiting PDE3?

Answer 12

Milrinone

Question 13

Which one of the following medications undergoes a pharmacodynamic interaction and negates the beneficial effect of albuterol?

Answer 13

Propranolol (Inderal) a beta blocker

Question 14

Which of the following is beta 1 specific?

Answer 14

Metoprolol

Question 15

Which of the following is the best beta blocker for asthma patients?

Answer 15

Metoprolol

Question 16

Which one of the following is considered a non-covalent type of interaction?

Answer 16

Formation of hydrogen peroxide

Question 17

Which of the following medications has a risk of gingival hyperplasia?

Answer 17

Verapamil

Question 18

Which of the following is most commonly associated with gingival hyperplasia?

Answer 18

Phenytoin (dilantin)

Question 19

Post-ganglionic sympathetic releases:

Answer 19

NE

Question 20

Post-ganglionic parasympathetic releases:

Answer 20

Ach

Question 21

Autonomic pre-ganglionic releases

Answer 21

Ach

Question 22

Regeneration of AchE

Answer 22

Pralidoxime

Question 23

First line treatment for patient exposed to nerve gas

Answer 23

Pralidoxime (nah)
- it’s atropine

Question 24

What do you give to a patient with anaphylaxis?

Answer 24

0.3 mg IM epinephrine

Question 25

Short acting beta 2 agonist in asthmatic patients

Answer 25

Albuterol

Question 26

Which drug metabolism phase functions impair with age?

Answer 26

Phase 1

Question 27

Blocks calcium from entering type L channels

Answer 27

Nifedipine

Question 28

What contributes to cardiac output?

Answer 28

Stroke volume and heart rate

Question 29

Which ion is required to bind actin and myosin to produce cardiac contractility?

Answer 29

Calcium

Question 30

Which drug inhibits the Na/K ATPase?

Answer 30

Digoxin

Question 31

Which commonly occurs during pregnancy?

Answer 31

Increased renal blood flow and GFR

Question 32

Which increases cardiac contraction by stimulating myocardial B1 receptors?

Answer 32

DOBUTamine

Question 33

Which is a short-term temporizing agent for hypotension and also serves as a nasal decongestant?

Answer 33

Phenylephrine

Question 34

What are the three endogenous catecholamines?

Answer 34

Dopamine, NE, and epinephrine

Question 35

Myocardial oxygen demand is determined by

Answer 35

HR and myocardial contractility

Question 36

Characteristic of alpha 1 adrenergic receptor activation?

Answer 36

Increased sympathetic tone

Question 37

Which of the following results from covalent modification and alteration of DNA?

Answer 37

Mutagenesis

Question 38

Adverse effect independent of drugs main mechanism

Answer 38

Aspirin and tinnitus

Question 39

Meds most likely to be associated with development of anaphylactic shock?

Answer 39

Penicillin

Question 40

Example of pharmacodynamics

Answer 40

Constipated from Ach block

Question 41

Which of the following drugs has the greatest risk of causing orthostatic hypotension?

Answer 41

Terazosin

Question 42

Ethnic variation…that some individuals of Chinese…this is because of increased concentrations of

Answer 42

Acetaldehyde

Question 43

Acetylcholine is broken down by which of the following enzymes?

Answer 43

Acetylcholinesterase

Question 44

Which of the following does beta 1 NOT do?

Answer 44

Bronchodilation

Question 45

Fluoxetine is SSRI antidepressant and inhibits Cytochrome P450 2D6. Risperidone is antipsychotic and is substrate for P450 2D6. What effect would you expect fluoxetine to have on risperidone in terms of drug concentration?

Answer 45

Risperidone levels increase (he used different drug examples)

Question 46

Atrial depolarization

Answer 46

= P wave

Question 47

Which of the following is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker?

Answer 47

Succinylcholine

Question 48

What tertiary amine …. something something (all but 1 option were quaternary)

Answer 48

Atropine

Question 49

A drug that treated cholinergic toxicity would NOT treat:

Answer 49

Paralysis

Question 50

Prozac inhibits which liver enzyme?

Answer 50

2D6

Question 51

Which type of blockade can cause a patient…if they go from supine immediately standing? (or something like this)

Answer 51

Alpha 1 blockade; orthostatic hypotension

Question 52

Which drugs are contraindicated in patients with asthma?

Answer 52

All of the above (opiates, aspirin, antihistamines)