Autonomic Nervous System / Cholinergic Transmission Flashcards

1
Q

What are the featurse of the autonomic nervous system?

A
  • involuntary
  • sympathic and parasympathetic
  • handles visceral functions
  • 2 neurons in series (pre and post ganglionic)
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2
Q

All preganglionic fibers of the autonomic nervous system release…

A

ACh

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3
Q

What are the functions of the sympathic nervous system?

A
  • fight or flight
  • runs on norepinerphrine
  • increases CO, BP, RR, Blood Flow, BG
  • decreases RBF, digestive processes
  • fires at once
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4
Q

In the sympathic nervous system, there is ______ preganglions and _______ postganglions

A

short
long

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5
Q

What are the functions of the parasympathic nervous system?

A
  • normal maintenance and anabolic metabolism
  • incremental activation
  • vagal stimulation
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6
Q

In the sympathic nervous system, there is ______ preganglions and _______ postganglions

A

long
short

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7
Q

What are the functions of the somatic nervous system?

A
  • voluntary
  • controls movement, respiration, and posture
  • always excitatory
  • no ganglia
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8
Q

What do cholinergic fibers release?

A

ACh

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9
Q

All preganglionic efferent and somatic motor fibers to skeletal muscle are ____________________ fibers

A

cholinergic

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10
Q

Most parasympathetic postganglionic fibers are…

A

cholinergic

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11
Q

Adrenergic fibers release…

A

norepinephrine

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12
Q

Most sympathetic post ganglionic fibers are…

A

adrenergic

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13
Q

What are the steps of cholinergic transmission?

A
  • Acetyl CoA + choline = ACh
  • Transported to cytoplasm, prepped for release
  • Calcium triggers release
  • Binds to cholinergic receptor
  • Acetylcholinesterase breaks up the party: choline + acetate
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14
Q

What are the types of autonomic receptors?

A

Cholinergic receptors
Nicotinic (ganglionic)
Muscarinic
Adrenergic receptors
Alpha
Beta
Dopamine

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15
Q

What are the three main classes of nicotinic receptors?

A
  • muscle
  • ganglionic
  • CNS
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16
Q

Are nicotinic receptors excitatory or inhibitory?

A

excitatory

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17
Q

What are the types of muscarinic receptors?

A
  • M1: neural
  • M2: atrial
  • M3: glandular/smooth muscle
  • M4 and M4: CNS
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18
Q

What is the function of M1 receptors?

A

Neural
- CNS excitation, gastric secretion

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19
Q

What is the function of M2 receptors?

A

Atrial
- cardiac and neural inhibition

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20
Q

What is the function of M3 receptors?

A

Glandular/Smooth Muscle
- gastric acid, salivary secretions, GI contraction, ocular accommodation, vasodilation

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21
Q

What are the types of adrenergic receptors and where are they located?

A
  • Α1, Α2
  • Β1, Β2, Β3
  • DOPAMINE
  • post-ganglionic sympathetic system only
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22
Q

What is another name fo muscarinic agonists?

A

cholinergics

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23
Q

What is the main function of cholinergic drugs?

A

parasympathomimetic

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24
Q

What are the types of cholinergic drugs?

A
  • direct acting
    — binds directly to NACH(OS) and MACH(OS)
  • indirect acting
    — inhibits acetylcholinesterase
    — amplifiers of endogenous ACh
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25
Q

What are the examples of direct acting cholinergics?

A
  • Pilocarpine (salagen)
  • Bethanechol (urecholine)
  • Cevimiline (evoxac)
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26
Q

direct acting cholinergic

What is the function of pilocarpine (salagen)?

A
  • glaucoma TX
  • causes mitosis, lowers IOP
  • dental use - radiation-induced xerostomia
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27
Q

direct acting cholinergic

What is the function of bethanechol (urecholine)?

A
  • post-operative urinary retention
  • most resistant to cholinersterase
28
Q

direct acting cholinergic

What is the function of cevimiline (evoxac)?

A
  • selective for M3
  • more selective for exocrine glands
  • radiation-induced xerostomia
  • sjogren’s syndrome
29
Q

What are the types of indirect acting cholinergic drugs?

A
  • reversible
    — stigmine agents, donepezil (aricept), galantamine (razadyne)
  • irreversible
    — organophosphates
30
Q

What is the main function of indirect acting cholinergic drugs?

A

acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

31
Q

Indirect acting cholinergics are used for treatment of…

A
  • myasthenia gravis
  • glaucoma
  • GI motility
  • reversal of neuromuscular blockade
  • anticholinergic toxicity
  • alzheimers
32
Q

What are the different types of reversible ACHE inhibitors?

A
  • Pyridostigmine (Regonol®)
  • Neostigmine (Prostigmin®)
  • Physostigmine (Antilirium®)
  • Edrophonium (Tensilon®)
  • Galantamine, rivastigmine, donepezil
33
Q

Pyridostigmine (Regonol®) is used for…

A

*Myasthenia gravis
*Nerve agent prophylaxis

1st line for MG

34
Q

Neostigmine (Prostigmin®) is used for…

A

*Myasthenia gravis
*Post-op ileus / urinary retention
*Neuromuscular blockade reversal

Doesn’t enter CNS (quaternary amine)

35
Q

Physostigmine (Antilirium®) is used for…

A

*Anticholinergic toxicity

Enters CNS (tertiary amine); not routinely used

36
Q

Edrophonium (Tensilon®) is used for…

A

*Diagnosis of myasthenia gravis

Doesn’t enter CNS (quaternary amine); Not routinely used

37
Q

Galantamine, rivastigmine, donepezil is used for…

A

*Mild-to-moderate Alzheimer’s disease

38
Q

What are the featurs of organophosphates?

A
  • Irreversible AChE
  • Long lasting

bad!

39
Q

What are examples of organophosphates?

A
  • Insecticides
    — Parathion, malathion
  • Nerve agents
    —Sarin, soman, tabun, VX
  • Novichok Agents
40
Q

What is the mechanism behind organophosphates?

A
  • Phosphorous (+) attracted to serine (-)
  • OP attaches to AChE, prevents ACh binding
  • Cholinesterase is now blocked
  • AChE is now permanently out of commission (unless hydrolyzed or regenerated)
41
Q

When an organophosphate blocks cholinesterase what happens?

A

1 of 3 things…
1. Hydrolyze to original state (slow)
2. Regenerate with an oxime (fast)
3. Age (cannot regenerate)

42
Q

What are the muscarinic symptoms of cholinergic toxicity?

A

Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Diarrhea
GI discomfort
Emesis
Miosis/muscles weak
Bronchorrhea
Bradycardia
Salivation/sweating

43
Q

What are the nicotinic symptoms of cholinergic toxicity?

A

Muscle cramps
Tachycardia
Weakness
Twitching
Fasciculations

44
Q

How much time do you have to be treated after exposure to nerve agents (organophosphates)?

A

Depends but anywhere from 2 minutes to 40 hours

45
Q

What drugs can you treat an exposure to organophosphates?

A
  • Pralidoxime (2-PAM; regenerates AChE)
  • Atrophine (muscarinic only; requires huge amounts)
  • Pyridostigmine (prophylaxis only)
46
Q

What is another word for muscarinic antagonists?

A

anticholinergics

47
Q

What is the function of anticholinergics?

A

binds muscarinic receptors, blocks ACh

48
Q

What are the types of anticholinergics?

A
  • tertiary amines (central effects)
    — atrophine, scopolamine (scopace), benztropine (cogentin), dicyclomine (bentyl)
  • quaternary amines (peripheral effects)
    — glycopyrrolate (robinul), tiotropium (spiriva)
49
Q

What are the uses of atropine?

prototypical anticholinergic

A
  • muscarinic selectivity
  • No effect S/P heart transplant
  • Indictions
    — bradycardia
    — OP toxicity
50
Q

Why should you not used <0.5 mg of atropine in adults?

A

paradoxical bradycardia

51
Q

anticholinergic

What are the uses of scopolamine?

A
  • found in hyoscyamus niger (henbane)
  • teritary amine
  • use in
    — motion sickness
    — voodoo zombification
52
Q

anticholinergic

What are the uses of glycopyrrolate?

A
  • used to dry secretions
    — surgery
    — ketamine treatment
  • adjunct for reversal of neuromucsular blockers

quaternary amine; fever central effects

53
Q

What negative effects do anticholinergics have on the CNS?

A

Drowsiness, amnesia, agitation, hallucinations, coma

53
Q

What are the many uses for anticholinergics?

A
  • ophthalmology
    — mydriasis, cycloplegia, increased IOP
  • GI/GU
    — antispasmodic, antidiarrheal, urinary incontinence
  • Cardio
    — vagolytic (increase heart rate)
  • Secretions
    — decrease all
  • Antidote
    — reversal of cholinergic toxicity (organophosphates)
  • Pulomonary
    — COPD, Asthma
54
Q

What negative effects do anticholinergics have on the eyes?

A

Mydriasis, cycloplegia, reduced lacrimal secretion

55
Q

What negative effects do anticholinergics have on the CV system?

A

Tachycardia (vagal inhibition)

56
Q

What negative effects do anticholinergics have on the respiratory system?

A

Bronchodilation, reduced airway secretions

57
Q

What negative effects do anticholinergics have on the GI system?

A

Decreased motility, xerostomia

58
Q

What is another name for ganglion stimulating drugs?

A

nicotinic drugs

59
Q

What is an example of a nicotinic drug?

A

varenicline (chantix)

60
Q

nicotinic drug

What are the functions of varenicline (chantix)?

A
  • inhibits
    — nicotine binding
    — withdrawal symptoms
    — dopamine release
  • partial agonist/antagnoist
  • long half-life and high affinity for NACH(OS)
61
Q

What are the depolarizing neuromuscular blockers?

A

succinylcholine

62
Q

What are the polarizing neuromuscular blockers?

A
  • rocuronium
  • vecuronium
  • pancuronium (causes tachycardia)
  • cisatricurium
63
Q

What is the function of a neuromuscular blocker?

A
  • inhibit binding of ACh and NMJ
64
Q

depolarizing neuromuscular blocker

What is the use of succinylcholine?

A
  • open sodium channels
  • onset = 60 seconds
  • duration = 5 minutes
  • 1.5 mg/kg IV
65
Q

Why do you need to be careful with succinylcholine?

A

hyperkalemia
- denervation supersensitivity

66
Q

polarizing neuromuscular blocker

What is the use of rocuronium?

A
  • no significatn ADR
  • reversal agent
  • onset = 60 seconds
  • duration = 45 minutes
  • 0.6-1.2 mg/kg