Important Info 1.9 Flashcards

1
Q

All preganglionic autonomic releases

A

ACh

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2
Q

Postganglionic parasympathetic releases

A

ACh

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3
Q

Postganglionic sympathetic releases

A

NE

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4
Q

If you have dry mouth, what receptor do you want to target

A

M3

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5
Q

Which of the following drugs has the greatest risk of causing orthostatic hypotension?

A

Terazosin

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6
Q

Which of the following drugs has anticholinergic side effects such as dry mouth

A

Lidocaine

dont think we learned this

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7
Q

What part of the EKG is ventricular repolarization

A

T wave

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8
Q

Irreversible indirect acting cholinergic

A

Sarin

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9
Q

Regeneration of AchE

A

Pralidoxime

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10
Q

What would not be fixed by atropine

A

Paralysis

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10
Q

First line agent for someone that has been exposed to nerve gas

A

Pralidoxidine (not correct)

  • it is atropine
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11
Q

Quaternary amine

A

Glycopyrrolate

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12
Q

What would a pt not have if having cholinergic toxicity

A

Dry mouth

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13
Q

Depolarizing neuromuscular blocker

A

Succinylcholine

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14
Q

Which relieves angina without changing HR or BP

A

Ranolazine

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15
Q

Which one increases intracellular cGMP

A

Isosorbide Mononitrate

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16
Q

What breaks down Ach in the blood

A

AchE

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17
Q

Which alpha agonist causes orthostatic __

A

Alpha one; hypotension

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18
Q

Which of the following does beta 1 NOT do

A

Bronchodilation

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19
Q

Which of the following does beta 2 do

A

Bronchodilation

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20
Q

Know alpha 1 effects

21
Q

In a pt with anaphylaxis, what do you give them

A

0.3 mg of IM epi

22
Q

Alpha 1 agonist that helps with short term hypotension and nasal decongestion

A

Phenylephrine

23
Q

Which is a PDE 3 inhibitor

24
The L in LOT stands for
Lorazepam
25
Short acting beta 2 agonist for asthma
Albuterol
26
What do you not use in asthmatic patients a.Aspirin, NSAIDS b.Opiates c.Antihistamines d.All of the above
all of the above
27
Aspirin and coumadin adverse effect
Bleeding
28
What beta blocker should you give an asthmatic patient
Metaprolol (beta 1 selective)
29
Drug variation can be classified as idiosyncratic, pharmokinetic, or ____
pharmodynamic
30
Different outcomes with same concentration and same outcome with different concentrations for drug variation
???
31
Lipid distribution increases as you age because of
increased body fat
32
What phase of metabolism is not prone to aging
phase 2
33
In pregnancy patients, they have increased CO and ___ GFR and ____ RBF
increased, increased
34
Non-covalent modification is depletion of glutathione. What does this do?
Disrupts cell defense
35
Anti-epileptic that causes gingival hyperplasia
Phenytoin
36
How many mutations do you have to have for malignancy?
More than 1
37
Teratogens are detrimental and cause cell division issues during
Blastocyte formation
38
Phase III is caused by
K+ movement
39
Product of CO
SV x HR
40
What class does Na+ fall under
Class I
41
Class IV are selective for myocardium
Nondihydropyridine
42
What drug causes dry mouth
Disopyramides
43
What drug inhibits the Na/K ATPase
Digoxin
44
Which one is not a part of acute coronary syndromes? a. Stable ischemic heart disease b. STEMI c. NSTEMI d. Unstable
a. Stable ischemic heart disease
45
More than 100 bpm is
tachycardia
46
Allergic reactions are often dose independent and not related to the drugs MOA
True
47
When someone an adverse effect to a drug how do you fix it?
Dose reduction
48
A drug that inhibits gastric emptying
Slows absorption
49
Which of the following are endogenous catecholamines
NE, epi, dopamine
50
Epinephrine is produced by the adrenal medulla and is released directly into the bloodstream. This makes epi a ______
Hormone