Important Info 1.9 Flashcards

1
Q

All preganglionic autonomic releases

A

ACh

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2
Q

Postganglionic parasympathetic releases

A

ACh

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3
Q

Postganglionic sympathetic releases

A

NE

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4
Q

If you have dry mouth, what receptor do you want to target

A

M3

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5
Q

Which of the following drugs has the greatest risk of causing orthostatic hypotension?

A

Terazosin

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6
Q

Which of the following drugs has anticholinergic side effects such as dry mouth

A

Lidocaine

dont think we learned this

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7
Q

What part of the EKG is ventricular repolarization

A

T wave

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8
Q

Irreversible indirect acting cholinergic

A

Sarin

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9
Q

Regeneration of AchE

A

Pralidoxime

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10
Q

What would not be fixed by atropine

A

Paralysis

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10
Q

First line agent for someone that has been exposed to nerve gas

A

Pralidoxidine (not correct)

  • it is atropine
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11
Q

Quaternary amine

A

Glycopyrrolate

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12
Q

What would a pt not have if having cholinergic toxicity

A

Dry mouth

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13
Q

Depolarizing neuromuscular blocker

A

Succinylcholine

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14
Q

Which relieves angina without changing HR or BP

A

Ranolazine

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15
Q

Which one increases intracellular cGMP

A

Isosorbide Mononitrate

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16
Q

What breaks down Ach in the blood

A

AchE

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17
Q

Which alpha agonist causes orthostatic __

A

Alpha one; hypotension

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18
Q

Which of the following does beta 1 NOT do

A

Bronchodilation

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19
Q

Which of the following does beta 2 do

A

Bronchodilation

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20
Q

Know alpha 1 effects

21
Q

In a pt with anaphylaxis, what do you give them

A

0.3 mg of IM epi

22
Q

Alpha 1 agonist that helps with short term hypotension and nasal decongestion

A

Phenylephrine

23
Q

Which is a PDE 3 inhibitor

24
Q

The L in LOT stands for

25
Q

Short acting beta 2 agonist for asthma

26
Q

What do you not use in asthmatic patients
a.Aspirin, NSAIDS
b.Opiates
c.Antihistamines
d.All of the above

A

all of the above

27
Q

Aspirin and coumadin adverse effect

28
Q

What beta blocker should you give an asthmatic patient

A

Metaprolol (beta 1 selective)

29
Q

Drug variation can be classified as idiosyncratic, pharmokinetic, or ____

A

pharmodynamic

30
Q

Different outcomes with same concentration and same outcome with different concentrations for drug variation

31
Q

Lipid distribution increases as you age because of

A

increased body fat

32
Q

What phase of metabolism is not prone to aging

33
Q

In pregnancy patients, they have increased CO and ___ GFR and ____ RBF

A

increased, increased

34
Q

Non-covalent modification is depletion of glutathione. What does this do?

A

Disrupts cell defense

35
Q

Anti-epileptic that causes gingival hyperplasia

36
Q

How many mutations do you have to have for malignancy?

A

More than 1

37
Q

Teratogens are detrimental and cause cell division issues during

A

Blastocyte formation

38
Q

Phase III is caused by

A

K+ movement

39
Q

Product of CO

40
Q

What class does Na+ fall under

41
Q

Class IV are selective for myocardium

A

Nondihydropyridine

42
Q

What drug causes dry mouth

A

Disopyramides

43
Q

What drug inhibits the Na/K ATPase

44
Q

Which one is not a part of acute coronary syndromes?
a. Stable ischemic heart disease
b. STEMI
c. NSTEMI
d. Unstable

A

a. Stable ischemic heart disease

45
Q

More than 100 bpm is

A

tachycardia

46
Q

Allergic reactions are often dose independent and not related to the drugs MOA

47
Q

When someone an adverse effect to a drug how do you fix it?

A

Dose reduction

48
Q

A drug that inhibits gastric emptying

A

Slows absorption

49
Q

Which of the following are endogenous catecholamines

A

NE, epi, dopamine

50
Q

Epinephrine is produced by the adrenal medulla and is released directly into the bloodstream. This makes epi a ______