IFR Misc Gouge

Question 1

What/when are the altimeter requirments at 723SQN?

Answer 1

• Leaving a cruising altitude (e.g. leaving 7000, descending 5000)
• 200ft prior to a cleared altitude
• 200ft prior to MDA/DA
• Passing every 1000ft and announcing OAT during climb (e.g. passing 4000, OAT is 12ºC)
• Announcing QNH changes

Question 2

For IFR “whiskey” routes, how is their LSALT calculated and what does that mean for you?

Answer 2

Calculated using GPS nav accuracy, can only be used when navigating via GPS, if using a ground based nav aid these LSALTS cannot be used

Question 3

Explain how a 25NM MSA is calculated/what terrain clearance is provided?

Answer 3

• 25NM MSA considers terrain/obstacles out to 30NM however can only be applied within 25NM
• Provides 1000ft terrain/obstacle separation

Question 4

What is the difference between an MSA and an LSALT?

Answer 4

MSA = 1000ft from highest obstacle
LSALT = 1000ft from terrain + 360ft for potential unknown towers

Question 5

If the FZLVL is at 8,000ft, how high can you expect to fly?

Answer 5

2ºC per 1000ft lapse rate = 7,000ft it will be 2ºC

Question 6

During a departure, aircraft must be established on track within?

Answer 6

5 NM

Question 7

Can we fly to an AD that has a single NAV aid?

Answer 7

Yes, we have two independent systems (650/750)

Question 8

What is the biggest risk regarding low freezing levels?

Answer 8

Aircraft may get stuck between a low freezing level and the relevant LSALT, unable to descent or climb

Question 9

How far from TS should we fly?

Answer 9

Outside 20NM

Question 10

Under what conditions is a pilot required to make a departure report?

Answer 10

When not identified (class G/class D)

Question 11

When intercepting a glideslope, what is the preferred method?

Answer 11

It is best to intercept the G/S from below rather than from above

Question 12

What is an SMD?

Answer 12

Smart malfunction display?

Question 13

What is CPDS?

Answer 13

CAD, FLI and VEMD make up the Central panel display system

Question 14

What is the accuracy for an RNP approach?

Answer 14

0.3 NM

Question 15

What IFR class is used in the EC-135?
What is the obstacle clearance and circling area dimensions for class A, B, C and D aircraft?

Answer 15

EC-135 = Cat A/H

A - 1.68 (300ft)
B - 2.66 (300ft)
C - 4.20 (400ft)
D - 5.23 (400ft)

Question 16

What is the example R/T to CLR for an IFR flight at NWA, how does it differ when away base?

Answer 16

NWA APPR, T43, Helicopter EC-135, IFR, for NWA via FPL,

Question 17

What are the missed approach criteria?

Answer 17

1. Outside half scale deflection (During the final segment of an instrument approach the aircraft is outside nav tolerances)
2. Radio failure/suspect failure below MSA (On approach when below MSA, the perf of the radio become suspect)
3. Not visual at or before the MAPt/DAVisual reference is not established
4. Not aligned and unable to circle (A landing cannot be effected from the runway approach, unless a circling approach can be conducted with Wx conditions allowing the circling approach)
5. Visual reference is lost while circling

Question 18

What does visual reference mean regarding the missed approach?

Answer 18

Visual reference means the runway threshold, lights or other identifiable features of the landing runway

Question 19

What is the take off minima?

Answer 19

Cloud: Clear until Vy
Vis: 550m (w/ RWY edge lighting at intervals less than 60m and centre line markings with a secondary power supply that switches over automatically)
If not, 800m vis is required

Question 20

Explain the process for a sector 1 entry into the hold?

Answer 20

Sect 1 = Big (Parallel)

Overfly the fix, track outbound for 1 minute, start a rate 1 turn towards the hold

Question 21

Explain the process for a sector 2 entry into the hold?

Answer 21

2 = small

Overhead the aid, turn onto a HDG 30º less than that of the “outbound legs inbound radial” start a timer for 1 minute, after 1 minute start a turn towards the inbound leg intercepting the outbound leg on the correct radial

Question 22

What is the work cycle as you enter/exit the hold?

Answer 22

Turn
Time
Talk

Question 23

Explain the process for a sector 3 entry into the hold?

Answer 23

Sector 3 = biggest of them all

Track towards the aid, once overhead:

If a full 180° turn (or greater) is required to take up the outbound heading, then commence turning immediately upon arriving overhead the fix.
If, however, the turn to the outbound leg is less than 180°, then maintain heading until a positive back bearing is indicated and then commence a rate one turn.

Question 24

Under what conditions are pilots able to skip the sector entry and hold and just turn directly inbound once overhead the fix?

Answer 24

When approaching the aid from 30º +/- from the inbound heading

E.g. outbound heading at 090, approaching between 060 and 120 allows you to fly over head the fix and then turn directly onto 090 and start the approach

Question 25

What is the Wx related alternate minima?

Answer 25

Cloud: more than SCT below HAT/MDA + 500ft
VIs: When below req vis on plate +2000m

Question 26

What level of tracking accuracy is required for an NDB approach?

Answer 26

ADF needle must be within 5º of required radials

Question 27

What is the different between HAA and HAT?

Answer 27

HAA = Height above aerodrome (used for circling areas)
HAT = Height above threshold (used for straight in approaches)

Question 28

What are the actions for a missed approach?

Answer 28

1. Press the GA (go around), IAS or ALT.A buttons as req
2. Set 7FLI
3. Engage NAV mode (if using GTN missed approach) OR HDG mode
4. ISA maintain 65KIAS
5. Preselected for MA alt, engage as req

Question 29

What is the circling area distance from the threshold for each respective class of IFR aircraft?

Answer 29

A = 1.68NM
B = 2.66NM
C = 4.20NM
D = 5.28NM
E = 6.94NM

Question 30

Under what conditions may a pilot descent below the circling MDA?

Answer 30

A: The aircraft is within the circling area; and
B: Maintains vis not less than the minimum specified on the chart; and
C: Maintains visual contact with the “landing runway environment”; and
D.1: By night OR day, when on the downwind, base or final legs able to make a continuous descent to the RWY, maintaining obstacle clearance until aligned with the RWY, using rates of descent and manoeuvres normal for the aircraft type
OR
D.2: In daylight only visual contact with obstacles along the flight path is maintained with obstacle clearance above the minimum until aligned with the runway

Question 31

In the hold, do you fly a heading or a track?

Answer 31

You fly a track

Question 32

Does an localiser approach use an MDA or a DH?

Answer 32

Localiser uses an MDA, ILS used a DH