Haematology - Paediatric haematology Flashcards

1
Q

How should congenital leukaemia in Down’s syndrome be managed?

A

It will resolve spontaneously in first few months of life

although does relapse In about 25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why may there be Howel-Jolly bodies on the blood film in sickle cell disease?

A

They are produced when there is splenic infarction (hyposplenism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

If not identified in a Guthrie spot, at what age does sickle cell disease tend to present?

A

3-6 months,
coincides with
reduction in HbF & gamma chin production
increase in HbS production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In what age group might the hand-foot syndrome of sickle cell disease present?

A

<2 years
Infants with SCD may develop hand-foot syndrome, a dactylitis presenting as exquisite pain and soft tissue swelling of the dorsum of the hands and feet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why is there no risk of splenic sequestration in sickle cell disease once Howel-Jolly bodies have been identified on blood film?

A

Once there has been a splenic infarction (which will cause Howel Jolly bodies) you will get hyposplenism but there is no risk of sequestration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Recall 2 drugs that are required lifelong in all sickle cell disease patients?

A

Folic acid
Penicillin (for protection against encapsulated bacteria because of hyposplenism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In sickle cell disease, when is the highest risk of stroke?

A

In childhood (actually less common in adults with sickle cell)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the main risk of blood transfusions in treating thalassaemia?

A

Iron overload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Recall some inherited causes of haemolytic anaemia

A

Spherocytosis
Elliptocytosis
PKU deficiency
G6PD deficiency
Sickle cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the most common cause of acquired haemolytic anaemia in children?

A

E coli causing haemolytic uraemic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which inherited defect of coagulation often presents with mucosal bleeding?

A

Von willebrand disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How can you test for von willebrand disease?

A

Factor VIII assay

VWF ristocetin cofactor activity assay (VWF:RCo),

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the treatment for von willebrand disease?

A

Low purity factor VIII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In which haemoglobinopathy is there benefit to carotid doppler monitoring?

A

Sickle cell
Do doppler monitoring alongside exchange transfusion if there is turbulent carotid flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

genotype of SCA

A

HbSS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

genotype of SCTrait

A

HbAS - asymptomatic except under stress (cold, exercise)

17
Q

give 5 features of haemolysis in SCA

A

anaemia 60-80g/L
splenomegaly
folate def
gallstones
aplastic crises (parvo B19)

18
Q

give 7 features of a vaso-occlusive “sickled” crisis

A

stroke
crises (splenic sequestration, chest pain)
gallstones
retinopathy
dactylitis
mesenteric ischaemia
priapism

19
Q

what complications of SCA are more common in childhood vs adulthood

A
childhood = stroke! splenomegaly, dactylitis 
adulthood = hyposplenism, CKD, retinopathy, pulmonary hypertension
20
Q

what cells on blood film of sickle cell anaemia

A

sickle cells
target cells

21
Q

3 tests to diagnose sickle cell anaemia

A

Guthrie - neonate
sickle solubility test
Hb electrophoresis

22
Q

treatment of an acute sickle cell crisis?

A

opioid analgesia
blood/exchange transfusion

23
Q

give a drug that may be of benefit in SCA

A

hydorxycarbamide

24
Q

explain the pathophysiology of beta thalassemia

A

point mutation leading to decreased beta chain synthesis and excess alpha chains (HbA2)

(spectrum of disease)

25
Q

treatment of beta thal

A

minor and some intermediate may not require
otherwise - blood transfusions with iron chelation to stop overload, plus folic acid

26
Q

explain the pathophysiology of alpha thalassemia

A

reduced alpha chain synthesis, excess beta chains

27
Q

types of alpha thal

A

4 alpha genes in total, severity depend son how many deleted

trait = 1/2 deleted = asymptomatic, mild
HbH disease = 3 deleted
hydros foetalis = 4 deleted = incompatible w life

28
Q

3 phenotypical traits of beta thal

A

skull bossing
maxillary hypertrophy
hairs on end skull x ray

29
Q

inheritance of both thalassemia and SCA

A

all autosomal recessive

30
Q

which thalassemia type isn’t compatible with life

A

Hb Bart’s hydrops fetalis, also known as alpha thalassemia major, is the most severe form of alpha thalassemia. The term hydrops fetalis describes the accumulation of large amounts of fluid (edema) in the tissues and organs of a developing fetus.

31
Q

what causes the anaemia in SCA

A

the anaemia in sickle cell anaemia is NOT totally due to haemolysis alone

HbS is a low-affinity Hb meaning that it more readily releases O2 to tissues, so the EPO-drive is lower which results in anaemia

32
Q

what factor is affected in hameophilia A

A

8

33
Q

what factor is affected in haemophilia B

A

factor 9

34
Q

which haemophillia is more common

A

Haemophilia A is 4x more common than B