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AU17: Gen Pathology > Genitourinary > Flashcards

Genitourinary Flashcards

1
Q

What is a hypospadias?

A

Opening along the ventral side of the penis

Can result in more UT infection

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2
Q

What is epispadias?

A

Opening along the dorsal side of penis

Can cause UT infection and incontinence

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3
Q

T/F: Hypospadias is more common than epispadias.

A

True

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4
Q

What is the most common penile neoplasm?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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5
Q

What are some risk factors for penile neoplasms?

A
  1. Uncircumcised and over 40
  2. HPV infection
  3. Red/white plaque
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6
Q

Carcinoma in-situ in the penis is called _________.

A

Bowen Disease

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7
Q

Although rare, the most common neoplasm in the scrotum would be _______.

A

squamous cell carcinoma

chimney sweeps

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8
Q

Incomplete descent of the testis from the abdomen to the scrotum is termed ________.

A

cryptorchidism

may lead to sterility

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9
Q

As well as possibly leading to sterility, cryptorchidism has what effect on cancer risk?

A

3-5 fold increased risk for testicular cancer

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10
Q

What procedure can be done to reduce the risk of sterility and cancer in patients with cryptorchidism?

A

Orchiopexy

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11
Q

________ infections of the epididymis are much more common than ________ infections of the testis proper.

A

Epididymitis; orchitis

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12
Q

Inflammatory lesions of the testis are often associated with _____ and _____.

A

STDs and mumps

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13
Q

Torsion causes an obstruction of ________ in the testis.

A

venous drainage

Emergency!

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14
Q

Someone with a ________ deformity is more likely to experience torsion.

A

bell clapper

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15
Q

When is a male most likely to get testicular cancer?

A

15-34 years old

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16
Q

T/F: Testicular neoplasms will cause pain.

A

False

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17
Q

95% of testicular tumors arise from the _______ and are malignant.

A

germ cells

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18
Q

5% of testicular tumors are ________ and are generally benign.

A

sex cord-stromal tumors

sertoli or leydig cells

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19
Q

_______ respond well to chemotherapy and rarely spread.

A

Seminomas

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20
Q

__________ spread quickly.

A

Non-seminomatous tumors

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21
Q

Non-seminomatous tumors present with which two markers?

A

AFP and HCG

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22
Q

T/F: Although the prognosis for non-seminomatous tumors is worse than seminomas, both have fairly good prognosis.

A

True

95% cured of early seminoma

90% nonseminomatous achieve remission

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23
Q

T/F: Most prostatitis cases are related to E. coli from UTI.

A

False

90-95% are nonbacterial

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24
Q

Which area of the prostate is effected by nodular hyperplasia of the prostate?

A

inner periurethral zone

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25
Q

T/F: Nodular hyperplasia is fairly rare.

A

False

20% at age 40; 90% at age 70

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26
Q

What are the clinical symptoms of nodular hyperplasia?

A

Hesitancy, urgency, poor stream, multiple urinary tract infections

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27
Q

There is a local increase in _________ related to nodular hyperplasia.

A

androgens

Other than that etiology is not understood

28
Q

How is nodular hyperplasia treated?

A

Drugs or surgery (TURP)

29
Q

What is the most common cancer of men over the age of 50 in the USA?

A

Prostate adenocarcinoma

30
Q

Where does prostate cancer most commonly arise?

A

Outer glands; palpable by rectal exam

31
Q

In prostate cancer, there is an elevated level of _______.

A

prostate specific antigen (PSA)

But this could be seen in non-cancer patients

32
Q

T/F: Overall, prognosis for prostate cancer is normally good.

A

True

33
Q

The majority of bladder cancers are ___________.

A

Urothelial carcinoma

34
Q

How is urothelial carcinoma often first seen?

A

Blood in urine but no pain

35
Q

Syphilis is caused by infection from _____________.

A

T. Pallidum

36
Q

T/F: Syphilis is 30x more prevalent in African Americans than whites.

A

True

37
Q

Syphilis is highly infectious by which mode of transmission?

A

Direct contact with cutaneous/mucosal lesions

38
Q

What are the various areas that can be affected by the different stages of syphilis?

A

Primary - chancre at infection site

Secondary - lymphadenopathy and mucocutaneous lesions

Tertiary - aortitis, neurosyphilis, gummas

39
Q

T/F: If left untreated, 25% of primary syphilis patients will develop secondary syphilis.

A

True

40
Q

Maculopapular rash, condyloma lata, and mucous patches are all associated with _________.

A

Secondary syphilis

41
Q

After secondary syphilis the patient will enter the _________.

A

Latent phase

42
Q

How long will it typically take to develop tertiary syphilis?

A

1/3 of untreated patients will develop tertiary syphilis in 5-20 years

43
Q

What is the most common form of tertiary syphilis?

A

Aortitis (cardiovascular syphilis)

44
Q

What are the three patterns of congenital syphilis?

A
  1. Stillbirth
  2. Infantile syphilis - secondary syphilis at birth
  3. Late congenital syphilis - symptoms seen after 2 years old
45
Q

What is Hutchinson’s triad?

A

Uncommon trio of symptoms with congenital syphilis

  1. Hutchinson’s teeth (notched incisors/mulberry molars)
  2. Interstitial keratitis
  3. 8th cranial nerve deafness
46
Q

What are two screening tests for syphilis?

A

RPR and VDRL

Often negative in early stages and can be false-positives

47
Q

What is a very specific test for syphilis?

A

FTA

Will remain positive even after treatment

48
Q

How is syphilis treated?

A

Penicillin

49
Q

What bacterial agent causes gonorrhea?

A

N. Gonorrhoeae

50
Q

Gonorrhea often provokes a ____________, however many people (esp. females) can be asymptomatic.

A

Purulant exudate

51
Q

Untreated gonorrhea can lead to __________.

A

Sterility

52
Q

Acute salpingitis is ovary inflammation often caused by ___________.

A

Gonorrhea

53
Q

Secondary scarring due to gonorrhea is termed _________.

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease

54
Q

What is gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum?

A

Blindness at birth due to gonorrhea

55
Q

The majority of nongonococcal urethritis and cervicitis is caused by ___________.

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

56
Q

If the disease continues to persist during antibiotic treatment for suspected gonohhrea what is to be expected?

A

Chlamydia

57
Q

How is chlamydia treated?

A

Antibiotics stronger than penicillin (ceftriaxone, doxycycline)

58
Q

What is a complication of chlamydia?

A

Reactive arthritis (Reiter syndrome)

59
Q

Most herpes infections are caused by ______.

A

HSV-2

60
Q

T/F: Initial herpes infection can be asymptomatic or can have painful mucocutaneous eruptions.

A

True

61
Q

___________ are small painful vesicles that quickly ulcerate.

A

Herpes recurrent lesions

62
Q

T/F: Neonatal herpes occurs in children born to mothers with genital herpes and has a low mortality.

A

False

High mortality

63
Q

Diagnosis of ________ involves viral cytopathic effect, which will show large, multinucleate _________.

A

Herpes; “Tzanck cells”

64
Q

What is the most common HPV infection?

A

Condyloma acuminatum

65
Q

T/F: Condyloma acuminatum is caused by HPV 6 and 11.

A

True

66
Q

T/F: Condyloma acuminatum can lead to malignant transformation of genital lesions.

A

True

But rare

67
Q

Condyloma acuminatum will cause papillary proliferation of squamous epithelium exhibiting __________ change.

A

Koilocytic

AU17: Gen Pathology (22 decks)

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