Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PHARM > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Filgrastim (Neupogen) side effects

A

bone pain, leukocytosis, splenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Adverse effects of Oprelvekin (Interleukin 11)

A
  1. Fluid retention
  2. anemia
  3. Cardiac dysrhythmias
  4. Severe allergic reactions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cyclosporine side effects

A

nephrotoxicity, hyperkalemia, infection.
additional: hepatotoxicity, lymphomas, HTN, tremors, hirsutism, leukopenia, gingival hyperplasia, gynecomastia, anaphylactic reactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Cyanocobalamin (vitamin B12) adverse effect

A

hypokalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Azathioprine adverse effects

A

blood dyscrasias (neutropenia and thrombocytopenia), N/V, mutagenic and teratogenic, neoplasms, pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Test dose for iron dextran (Dexiron)

A

25mg over 5 minutes and observe patient for at least 15 minutes prior to starting infusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Benefits of drug combination chemotherapy

A

benefits of drug combinations, suppression of drug resistance, increased cancer cell kill, reduced injury to normal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Medications that can be used for CINV

A

aprepitant (Emend), dexamethasone, Zofran

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Therapeutic use of Mesna (Mesnex)

A

protective agent to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis with use of cyclophosphamide (cytotoxan)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Tamoxifen contraindications

A

hypercalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Symptoms of Vincristine (Oncovin) toxicity

A

peripheral neuropathy, decreased reflexes, weakness, paresthesia, sensory losses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Toxicity effects of Daunorubicin

A

injury to the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

indications of ceftazidime (Fortaz)

A

If patient has neutropenia (<500) and fever get cultures and start on Ceftazidime (Fortaz) which is an IV abx against gram negative bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Adverse effects of activated factor VII

A

well-tolerated, no human proteins (no risk for transmitting human viruses), can cause thrombolytic events (arterial thrombosis, cerebral sinus thrombosis, MI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Dose of factor VII to stop bleeding in non-hemophiliacs

A

90mcg/kg repeated Q2H until bleeding stops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Immune Tolerance Therapy

A

tx for patients who develop inhibitors. Can eliminate inhibitor production. Usually successful in Hem A but not B. If unsuccessful, the use of drugs is employed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Adverse effects of Desmopressin

A

hyponatremia and fluid retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

2 types of antifibrinolytics agents used for hemophilia

A

aminocaproic acid and tranexamic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

3 treatment options for patients who develop inhibitors (Hemophilia)

A

Immune Tolerance Therapy (ITT)
Activated Factor VII
Anti-inhibitor coagulant complex (AICC)

20
Q

Immunosuppressants for preventing organ rejection

A

cyclosporine, sirolimus, and tracolimus

21
Q

cytotoxic meds for preventing organ rejection

A

Azathioprine

22
Q

Antibodies for preventing organ rejection

A

Basiliximab

23
Q

MOA of Cyclophosphamide

A

cell cycle non-specific; kills fast growing cancer cells by altering DNA structure and preventing cell production. Resistance is common.

24
Q

Tx of malignant hyperthermia

A

1mg/kg of Dantrolene

25
Q

Antidote for versed

A

Flumazenil (Romazicon) 0.2mg IVP

26
Q

AE of ondansetron

A

HA, diarrhea, dizziness, prolonged QT interval, risk of Trosade’s de pointes

27
Q

Azathioprine (Imuran) adverse effects

A

pancreatitis, blood dyscrasias (neutropenia and thrombocytopenia), progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML), N/V, mutagenic and teratogenic, neoplasms

28
Q

Effects of beta blockers on EKG

A
  1. Decrease automaticity of the SA node.
  2. Decreases the velocity of the conduction through the AV node.
  3. Decreases myocardial contractility
29
Q

symptoms of serotonin syndrome

A

clonus, mydriasis, diaphoresis, agitation, tachycardia, increased bowel sounds, diarrhea, autonomic instability often hypertensive

30
Q

MOA of HCTZ

A

promotes urine production by blocking reabsorption of Na and Cl in the early segment of the distal tubule. Retention of the NaCl causes water to be retained, producing increased flow of urine. Lower effect than loop diuretics.

*Ineffective if GFR < 15-20%

31
Q

AE of HCTZ

A

Hypokalemia, hyponatremia, hypochloremia, dehydration, hyperglycemia, hypomagnesemia

32
Q

MOA of Dabigatran (Pradaxa)

A

direct thrombin inhibitor

33
Q

AE of Dabigatran (Pradaxa)

A

bleeding, GI symptoms

34
Q

Advantages of Dabigatran (Pradaxa)

A

dose is fixed, rapid onset, no routine lab tests needed, less incidence of bleeding/hemorrhagic stroke, few drug-food interactions

35
Q

Disadvantages of Dabigatran (Pradaxa)

A

dose on time is important, no antidote, limited clinical experience

36
Q

Captopril maintenance dosage for HTN

A

25-50 mg BID/TID

37
Q

Indications for Epogen

A
  1. CRF
  2. Non-myeloid malignancies secondary to chemo
  3. HIV taking zidovudine
  4. Anemia facing surgery
38
Q

AE of Oprelvekin (Interleukin-11)

A

fluid retention, anemia, cardiac dysrhythmias, severe allergic rxns

39
Q

Vincristine (Oncovin) AE

A

peripheral neuropathy, decreased reflexes, weakness, paresthesia, sensory losses

40
Q

2 types of phosphate binders

A

calcium based phosphate binders and calcium-free phosphate binders

41
Q

Side effects of phosphate binders

A

GI upset

42
Q

Meds not to take with Ferrous sulfate

A

antacids, tetracycline

43
Q

Test dose for iron dextran (Dexiron) infusion

A

25mg over 5 minutes and observe patient for at least 15 min prior to starting infusion

44
Q

Hydrocortisone (solu-cortef) education

A
  • can increase risk of infection
  • hyperglycemia
  • usually taken in the morning
  • needs to be increased in time of stress/illness
45
Q

What is the adult dose of Ferrous sulfate?

A

65 mg TID

PHARM (35 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions