EXAM 2 Flashcards
T/F: If performing antibody testing in infectious mononucleosis and the EBNA IgG is negative, the patient has not had a recent (acute) infection.
True
This hepatitis is known as a severe and rapidly progressive liver disease with no proven effective therapy.
Hep A
The goal of vaccination is:
- To produce artificially acquired, active immunity against a specific disease
- To promote herd immunity
- To prevent contagious infectious diseases worldwide
(no implanting tracking chips in people! LOL)
The viruses polio, hepatitis A, rabies, and Japanese encephalitis are examples of ________ vaccines.
Inactivated
Place in the correct order the model of vaccine development.
1) Identify and sequence the pathogen
2) Determine the target
3) Conduct preclinical trials
4) Initial human trials
5) Obtain regulatory approval
6) Establish manufacturing and distribution
Which type of infection has three forms which include: lymphatic, disseminated, and respiratory
Sporotrichosis
Which disease has the causative agent found mainly in soil contaminated with chicken, bird, or bat excreta.
Histoplasmosis
The SARS-CoV2 viral spike protein uses which receptor to enter epithelial cells.
ACE2
The sources of Toxoplasmosis include:
- Fecal contamination of food and water
- Inadequate handwashing
- Raw milk
For the avidity test for IgG with Toxoplasmosis, match the avidity type with the infection indication:
Low avidity
infection within the past 8 months
For the avidity test for IgG with Toxoplasmosis, match the avidity type with the infection indication:
High avidity
infection 5 or more months before assay was performed
T/F: If a woman is considering becoming pregnant and is not immune to rubella, it is ok if she get the vaccine during her first trimester.
False
Which is the important antibody to test in suspected causes of congenital rubella
IgM
T/F: Rubeola is moderately contagious with a transmission rate of approximately 45%.
False
Herpes simplex virus 2 is generally found in and around oral cavities and skin lesions above the waist.
False
T/F: In immunohistochemistry, the indirect method is more versatile than the direct method.
True
A type I hypersensitivity reaction is:
Anaphylactic reaction
This type of reaction is cell-mediated.
IV
Arrange the sequence of events in anaphylaxis reactions:
- The effects of mediator release produce vascular changes and activation of platelets, eosinophils, neutrophils, and the coagulation cascade
- Offending antigen attaches to the IgE antibody fixed to cell membrane of basophiles and mast cells
- Activated mast cells and basophils release various mediators
1) Offending antigen attaches to the IgE antibody fixed to cell membrane of basophiles and mast cells
2) Activated mast cells and basophils release various mediators
3) The effects of mediator release produce vascular changes and activation of platelets, eosinophils, neutrophils, and the coagulation cascade
What factors should be considered when testing for allergens
- Person’s age
- Symptoms
- Home environment
Which type of cytotoxic injury is the mechanism of injury in antibody mediated glomerulonephritis.
Antibody-dependent, cell-mediated cytotoxicity
The most common cause for immediate hemolytic reactions is:
ABO incompatible blood
Farmer lung is an example of this type of reaction:
Immune complex disease
Type IV reactions are moderated by the link between:
T lymphocytes and phagocytic cell
The Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER) regulates:
Vaccine products
Anthrax vaccine:
Offers protection against bioterrorism
Hepatitis refers to inflammation of the:
Liver
This virus often superinfects with hepatitis B
HDV
This type of vaccine is the closest to exposure to natural infection:
Live, attenuated
In the latent stage of syphilis, a clinical finding is:
Diagnosis only by serologic methods
The FTA-ABS test is a
Treponemal method
Syphilis was initially treated with:
Heavy metals (e.g., arsenic)
Immunocompetent patients infected with T. pallidum produce:
- Specific antibodies against T. pallidum
- Nonspecific antibodies against the protein antigen group common to pathogenic spirochetes
- Reagin antibodies
All of the following characteristics are descriptive of M protein except:
Correct answer:
- No known biological role
- Found in association with the hyaluronic capsule
- Inhibits phagocytosis
- Antibody against M protein provides type-specific immunity
No known biological role
The classic tests to demonstrate the presence of streptococcal infection are:
ASO and anti-DNase B
EBV can cause all of the following except:
- Infectious mononucleosis
- Burkitt lymphoma
- Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
- Neoplasms of the bone marrow
Neoplasms of the bone marrow
The incubation period of infectious mononucleosis is:
10 to 50 days
Lyme disease is a _________ type of infection.
Bacterial
Unlike some procedure, the PCR assay can be used to detect Lyme disease causing organisms in:
Synovial fluid
One of the most common physical findings in adults with ehrlichiosis is:
Fever
Babesiosis is characterized by:
- Fever
- Fatigue
- Hemolytic anemia
West Nile virus causes:
Encephalitis
Serologic procedures for the diagnosis of recent infection should include:
Acute and convalescent specimens
Toxoplasmosis is a ___________ infection.
Parasitic
Before the licensing of rubella vaccine in the U.S. in 1969, epidemics occurred at _____ year intervals.
6 to 9
IgG antibodies to rubella virus increase rapidly for _______ days after the acquisition of the infection.
7 to 21
A characteristic of CMV immediate-early antigen is:
They appear within 1 hour of cellular infection
A distinguishing characteristic of the herpes virus is that:
- They are cell-associated viruses
- Human beings are the only known reservoir of infection
Up to _______ of infants develop antibody to HHV-6 by 10-11 months of age.
75%
A type II hypersensitivity reaction is a:
Cytotoxic reaction
With which cell type are anaphylactic reactions associated?
Mast
Type I hypersensitivity reactions can be associated with:
- Food Allergies
- Hay Fever
- Asthma
An example of a delayed nonhemolytic (type II hypersensitivity) reaction is:
Graft-vs-host disease
Under normal conditions, immune complexes protect the host because they:
- Facilitate the clearance of various antigens
- Facilitate the clearance of invading organisms
Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are responsible for all of the following except:
- Contact sensistivity
- Serum sickness
- Elimination of tumor cells
- Rejection of foreign tissue grafts
Serum sickness
Select the correct order of syphilis infections.
Primary, secondary, latent, tertiary
Which infectious disease can alter T lymphocyte subsets?
Select all of the diseases that must be reported to the CDC.
- Chlamydia
- Gonorrhea
- Syphilis
Treponema carateum is the causative organism associated with the disease
Pinta
Treponema pallidum is the causative organism associated with the disease
Syphilis
T/F: Pathogenic are cultivatable with consistency in artificial media
False
How can latent syphilis be detected?
Serological testing
Which symptomatic neurosyphilis involves inflammation of the pia mater?
Meningovascular
What is the enzyme that dissolves clots by converting plasminogen to plasmin?
Streptokinase
T/F: EBV causes an increase in CD8+ T cells.
True
What is the major virulence factor for S. pyogenes?
M protein
EBV-infected B lymphocytes express all the following new antigens except:
Cytoplasmic antigen (CA)
Microencephaly is a hallmark of infection with this disease.
Zika virus
T/F: Infants infected with EBV are less likely to experience symptomatic infection than EBV-infected adolescents.
True
The primary mode of EBV transmission is:
Exposure to oral-pharyngeal secretions
