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EXAM 2 Flashcards

1
Q

T/F: If performing antibody testing in infectious mononucleosis and the EBNA IgG is negative, the patient has not had a recent (acute) infection.

A

True

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2
Q

This hepatitis is known as a severe and rapidly progressive liver disease with no proven effective therapy.

A

Hep A

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3
Q

The goal of vaccination is:

A
  • To produce artificially acquired, active immunity against a specific disease
  • To promote herd immunity
  • To prevent contagious infectious diseases worldwide

(no implanting tracking chips in people! LOL)

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4
Q

The viruses polio, hepatitis A, rabies, and Japanese encephalitis are examples of ________ vaccines.

A

Inactivated

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5
Q

Place in the correct order the model of vaccine development.

A

1) Identify and sequence the pathogen

2) Determine the target

3) Conduct preclinical trials

4) Initial human trials

5) Obtain regulatory approval

6) Establish manufacturing and distribution

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6
Q

Which type of infection has three forms which include: lymphatic, disseminated, and respiratory

A

Sporotrichosis

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7
Q

Which disease has the causative agent found mainly in soil contaminated with chicken, bird, or bat excreta.

A

Histoplasmosis

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8
Q

The SARS-CoV2 viral spike protein uses which receptor to enter epithelial cells.

A

ACE2

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9
Q

The sources of Toxoplasmosis include:

A
  • Fecal contamination of food and water
  • Inadequate handwashing
  • Raw milk
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10
Q

For the avidity test for IgG with Toxoplasmosis, match the avidity type with the infection indication:

Low avidity

A

infection within the past 8 months

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11
Q

For the avidity test for IgG with Toxoplasmosis, match the avidity type with the infection indication:

High avidity

A

infection 5 or more months before assay was performed

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12
Q

T/F: If a woman is considering becoming pregnant and is not immune to rubella, it is ok if she get the vaccine during her first trimester.

A

False

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13
Q

Which is the important antibody to test in suspected causes of congenital rubella

A

IgM

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14
Q

T/F: Rubeola is moderately contagious with a transmission rate of approximately 45%.

A

False

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15
Q

Herpes simplex virus 2 is generally found in and around oral cavities and skin lesions above the waist.

A

False

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16
Q

T/F: In immunohistochemistry, the indirect method is more versatile than the direct method.

A

True

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17
Q

A type I hypersensitivity reaction is:

A

Anaphylactic reaction

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18
Q

This type of reaction is cell-mediated.

A

IV

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19
Q

Arrange the sequence of events in anaphylaxis reactions:

  • The effects of mediator release produce vascular changes and activation of platelets, eosinophils, neutrophils, and the coagulation cascade
  • Offending antigen attaches to the IgE antibody fixed to cell membrane of basophiles and mast cells
  • Activated mast cells and basophils release various mediators
A

1) Offending antigen attaches to the IgE antibody fixed to cell membrane of basophiles and mast cells

2) Activated mast cells and basophils release various mediators

3) The effects of mediator release produce vascular changes and activation of platelets, eosinophils, neutrophils, and the coagulation cascade

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20
Q

What factors should be considered when testing for allergens

A
  • Person’s age
  • Symptoms
  • Home environment
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21
Q

Which type of cytotoxic injury is the mechanism of injury in antibody mediated glomerulonephritis.

A

Antibody-dependent, cell-mediated cytotoxicity

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22
Q

The most common cause for immediate hemolytic reactions is:

A

ABO incompatible blood

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23
Q

Farmer lung is an example of this type of reaction:

A

Immune complex disease

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24
Q

Type IV reactions are moderated by the link between:

A

T lymphocytes and phagocytic cell

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25
The Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER) regulates:
Vaccine products
26
Anthrax vaccine:
Offers protection against bioterrorism
27
Hepatitis refers to inflammation of the:
Liver
28
This virus often superinfects with hepatitis B
HDV
29
This type of vaccine is the closest to exposure to natural infection:
Live, attenuated
30
In the latent stage of syphilis, a clinical finding is:
Diagnosis only by serologic methods
31
The FTA-ABS test is a
Treponemal method
32
Syphilis was initially treated with:
Heavy metals (e.g., arsenic)
33
Immunocompetent patients infected with T. pallidum produce:
- Specific antibodies against T. pallidum - Nonspecific antibodies against the protein antigen group common to pathogenic spirochetes - Reagin antibodies
34
All of the following characteristics are descriptive of M protein except: Correct answer: - No known biological role - Found in association with the hyaluronic capsule - Inhibits phagocytosis - Antibody against M protein provides type-specific immunity
No known biological role
35
The classic tests to demonstrate the presence of streptococcal infection are:
ASO and anti-DNase B
36
EBV can cause all of the following except: - Infectious mononucleosis - Burkitt lymphoma - Nasopharyngeal carcinoma - Neoplasms of the bone marrow
Neoplasms of the bone marrow
37
The incubation period of infectious mononucleosis is:
10 to 50 days
38
Lyme disease is a _________ type of infection.
Bacterial
39
Unlike some procedure, the PCR assay can be used to detect Lyme disease causing organisms in:
Synovial fluid
40
One of the most common physical findings in adults with ehrlichiosis is:
Fever
41
Babesiosis is characterized by:
- Fever - Fatigue - Hemolytic anemia
42
West Nile virus causes:
Encephalitis
43
Serologic procedures for the diagnosis of recent infection should include:
Acute and convalescent specimens
44
Toxoplasmosis is a ___________ infection.
Parasitic
45
Before the licensing of rubella vaccine in the U.S. in 1969, epidemics occurred at _____ year intervals.
6 to 9
46
IgG antibodies to rubella virus increase rapidly for _______ days after the acquisition of the infection.
7 to 21
47
A characteristic of CMV immediate-early antigen is:
They appear within 1 hour of cellular infection
48
A distinguishing characteristic of the herpes virus is that:
- They are cell-associated viruses - Human beings are the only known reservoir of infection
49
Up to _______ of infants develop antibody to HHV-6 by 10-11 months of age.
75%
50
A type II hypersensitivity reaction is a:
Cytotoxic reaction
51
With which cell type are anaphylactic reactions associated?
Mast
52
Type I hypersensitivity reactions can be associated with:
- Food Allergies - Hay Fever - Asthma
53
An example of a delayed nonhemolytic (type II hypersensitivity) reaction is:
Graft-vs-host disease
54
Under normal conditions, immune complexes protect the host because they:
- Facilitate the clearance of various antigens - Facilitate the clearance of invading organisms
55
Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are responsible for all of the following except: - Contact sensistivity - Serum sickness - Elimination of tumor cells - Rejection of foreign tissue grafts
Serum sickness
56
Select the correct order of syphilis infections.
Primary, secondary, latent, tertiary
57
Which infectious disease can alter T lymphocyte subsets?
58
Select all of the diseases that must be reported to the CDC.
- Chlamydia - Gonorrhea - Syphilis
59
Treponema carateum is the causative organism associated with the disease
Pinta
60
Treponema pallidum is the causative organism associated with the disease
Syphilis
61
T/F: Pathogenic are cultivatable with consistency in artificial media
False
62
How can latent syphilis be detected?
Serological testing
63
Which symptomatic neurosyphilis involves inflammation of the pia mater?
Meningovascular
64
What is the enzyme that dissolves clots by converting plasminogen to plasmin?
Streptokinase
65
T/F: EBV causes an increase in CD8+ T cells.
True
66
What is the major virulence factor for S. pyogenes?
M protein
67
EBV-infected B lymphocytes express all the following new antigens except:
Cytoplasmic antigen (CA)
68
Microencephaly is a hallmark of infection with this disease.
Zika virus
69
T/F: Infants infected with EBV are less likely to experience symptomatic infection than EBV-infected adolescents.
True
70
The primary mode of EBV transmission is:
Exposure to oral-pharyngeal secretions

Immuno (23 decks)

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