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Immuno > EXAM 2 > Flashcards

EXAM 2 Flashcards

1
Q

T/F: If performing antibody testing in infectious mononucleosis and the EBNA IgG is negative, the patient has not had a recent (acute) infection.

A

True

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2
Q

This hepatitis is known as a severe and rapidly progressive liver disease with no proven effective therapy.

A

Hep A

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3
Q

The goal of vaccination is:

A
  • To produce artificially acquired, active immunity against a specific disease
  • To promote herd immunity
  • To prevent contagious infectious diseases worldwide

(no implanting tracking chips in people! LOL)

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4
Q

The viruses polio, hepatitis A, rabies, and Japanese encephalitis are examples of ________ vaccines.

A

Inactivated

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5
Q

Place in the correct order the model of vaccine development.

A

1) Identify and sequence the pathogen

2) Determine the target

3) Conduct preclinical trials

4) Initial human trials

5) Obtain regulatory approval

6) Establish manufacturing and distribution

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6
Q

Which type of infection has three forms which include: lymphatic, disseminated, and respiratory

A

Sporotrichosis

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7
Q

Which disease has the causative agent found mainly in soil contaminated with chicken, bird, or bat excreta.

A

Histoplasmosis

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8
Q

The SARS-CoV2 viral spike protein uses which receptor to enter epithelial cells.

A

ACE2

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9
Q

The sources of Toxoplasmosis include:

A
  • Fecal contamination of food and water
  • Inadequate handwashing
  • Raw milk
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10
Q

For the avidity test for IgG with Toxoplasmosis, match the avidity type with the infection indication:

Low avidity

A

infection within the past 8 months

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11
Q

For the avidity test for IgG with Toxoplasmosis, match the avidity type with the infection indication:

High avidity

A

infection 5 or more months before assay was performed

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12
Q

T/F: If a woman is considering becoming pregnant and is not immune to rubella, it is ok if she get the vaccine during her first trimester.

A

False

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13
Q

Which is the important antibody to test in suspected causes of congenital rubella

A

IgM

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14
Q

T/F: Rubeola is moderately contagious with a transmission rate of approximately 45%.

A

False

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15
Q

Herpes simplex virus 2 is generally found in and around oral cavities and skin lesions above the waist.

A

False

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16
Q

T/F: In immunohistochemistry, the indirect method is more versatile than the direct method.

A

True

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17
Q

A type I hypersensitivity reaction is:

A

Anaphylactic reaction

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18
Q

This type of reaction is cell-mediated.

A

IV

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19
Q

Arrange the sequence of events in anaphylaxis reactions:

  • The effects of mediator release produce vascular changes and activation of platelets, eosinophils, neutrophils, and the coagulation cascade
  • Offending antigen attaches to the IgE antibody fixed to cell membrane of basophiles and mast cells
  • Activated mast cells and basophils release various mediators
A

1) Offending antigen attaches to the IgE antibody fixed to cell membrane of basophiles and mast cells

2) Activated mast cells and basophils release various mediators

3) The effects of mediator release produce vascular changes and activation of platelets, eosinophils, neutrophils, and the coagulation cascade

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20
Q

What factors should be considered when testing for allergens

A
  • Person’s age
  • Symptoms
  • Home environment
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21
Q

Which type of cytotoxic injury is the mechanism of injury in antibody mediated glomerulonephritis.

A

Antibody-dependent, cell-mediated cytotoxicity

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22
Q

The most common cause for immediate hemolytic reactions is:

A

ABO incompatible blood

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23
Q

Farmer lung is an example of this type of reaction:

A

Immune complex disease

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24
Q

Type IV reactions are moderated by the link between:

A

T lymphocytes and phagocytic cell

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25
Q

The Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER) regulates:

A

Vaccine products

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26
Q

Anthrax vaccine:

A

Offers protection against bioterrorism

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27
Q

Hepatitis refers to inflammation of the:

A

Liver

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28
Q

This virus often superinfects with hepatitis B

A

HDV

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29
Q

This type of vaccine is the closest to exposure to natural infection:

A

Live, attenuated

30
Q

In the latent stage of syphilis, a clinical finding is:

A

Diagnosis only by serologic methods

31
Q

The FTA-ABS test is a

A

Treponemal method

32
Q

Syphilis was initially treated with:

A

Heavy metals (e.g., arsenic)

33
Q

Immunocompetent patients infected with T. pallidum produce:

A
  • Specific antibodies against T. pallidum
  • Nonspecific antibodies against the protein antigen group common to pathogenic spirochetes
  • Reagin antibodies
34
Q

All of the following characteristics are descriptive of M protein except:
Correct answer:

  • No known biological role
  • Found in association with the hyaluronic capsule
  • Inhibits phagocytosis
  • Antibody against M protein provides type-specific immunity
A

No known biological role

35
Q

The classic tests to demonstrate the presence of streptococcal infection are:

A

ASO and anti-DNase B

36
Q

EBV can cause all of the following except:

  • Infectious mononucleosis
  • Burkitt lymphoma
  • Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
  • Neoplasms of the bone marrow
A

Neoplasms of the bone marrow

37
Q

The incubation period of infectious mononucleosis is:

A

10 to 50 days

38
Q

Lyme disease is a _________ type of infection.

A

Bacterial

39
Q

Unlike some procedure, the PCR assay can be used to detect Lyme disease causing organisms in:

A

Synovial fluid

40
Q

One of the most common physical findings in adults with ehrlichiosis is:

A

Fever

41
Q

Babesiosis is characterized by:

A
  • Fever
  • Fatigue
  • Hemolytic anemia
42
Q

West Nile virus causes:

A

Encephalitis

43
Q

Serologic procedures for the diagnosis of recent infection should include:

A

Acute and convalescent specimens

44
Q

Toxoplasmosis is a ___________ infection.

A

Parasitic

45
Q

Before the licensing of rubella vaccine in the U.S. in 1969, epidemics occurred at _____ year intervals.

A

6 to 9

46
Q

IgG antibodies to rubella virus increase rapidly for _______ days after the acquisition of the infection.

A

7 to 21

47
Q

A characteristic of CMV immediate-early antigen is:

A

They appear within 1 hour of cellular infection

48
Q

A distinguishing characteristic of the herpes virus is that:

A
  • They are cell-associated viruses
  • Human beings are the only known reservoir of infection
49
Q

Up to _______ of infants develop antibody to HHV-6 by 10-11 months of age.

A

75%

50
Q

A type II hypersensitivity reaction is a:

A

Cytotoxic reaction

51
Q

With which cell type are anaphylactic reactions associated?

A

Mast

52
Q

Type I hypersensitivity reactions can be associated with:

A
  • Food Allergies
  • Hay Fever
  • Asthma
53
Q

An example of a delayed nonhemolytic (type II hypersensitivity) reaction is:

A

Graft-vs-host disease

54
Q

Under normal conditions, immune complexes protect the host because they:

A
  • Facilitate the clearance of various antigens
  • Facilitate the clearance of invading organisms
55
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are responsible for all of the following except:

  • Contact sensistivity
  • Serum sickness
  • Elimination of tumor cells
  • Rejection of foreign tissue grafts
A

Serum sickness

56
Q

Select the correct order of syphilis infections.

A

Primary, secondary, latent, tertiary

57
Q

Which infectious disease can alter T lymphocyte subsets?

A
58
Q

Select all of the diseases that must be reported to the CDC.

A
  • Chlamydia
  • Gonorrhea
  • Syphilis
59
Q

Treponema carateum is the causative organism associated with the disease

A

Pinta

60
Q

Treponema pallidum is the causative organism associated with the disease

A

Syphilis

61
Q

T/F: Pathogenic are cultivatable with consistency in artificial media

A

False

62
Q

How can latent syphilis be detected?

A

Serological testing

63
Q

Which symptomatic neurosyphilis involves inflammation of the pia mater?

A

Meningovascular

64
Q

What is the enzyme that dissolves clots by converting plasminogen to plasmin?

A

Streptokinase

65
Q

T/F: EBV causes an increase in CD8+ T cells.

A

True

66
Q

What is the major virulence factor for S. pyogenes?

A

M protein

67
Q

EBV-infected B lymphocytes express all the following new antigens except:

A

Cytoplasmic antigen (CA)

68
Q

Microencephaly is a hallmark of infection with this disease.

A

Zika virus

69
Q

T/F: Infants infected with EBV are less likely to experience symptomatic infection than EBV-infected adolescents.

A

True

70
Q

The primary mode of EBV transmission is:

A

Exposure to oral-pharyngeal secretions

Immuno (23 decks)

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