Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacology 1 > Exam 1 Drugs > Flashcards

Exam 1 Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

WHat drug would you use to tx Feline lower urinary tract Dz

A

Prazosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

WHat are the 3 amides

A
  1. lidocaine
  2. bupivacaine
  3. mepivacaine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the MOA of amantadine

A

analgesic effects are through NMDA receptor antagonism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

List some precautions of Selective Beta 2 agonists

A

Tachycardia

Uterine relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the MOA of Nor Epi

A

Direct acting catecholamine sympathomimetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the precautions of phenoxybenzamine

A

excessive alpha blockage leading to hypotension and reflex tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

MOA of Oxybutynin and propantheline

A

Direct acting parasympatholytic muscarinic receptor competitive antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the most important toxicity associated with acetaminophen

A

Methemoglobinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Who has a longer half life amides or esters

A

Amides 2-6hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the MOA of reserpine

A

Blocks NE uptake into vesicles wich reduces storate of NE and leads to mediator depletion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the MOA of gabapentin

A

Altering calcium influx in neuronal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the 2 categories of local anesthetics

A

amides and esters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

which of the local anestetics is the most cardiotoxic

A

bupivicaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

list the contraindication s of atropine

A

glaucoma
tachycardia
hypothermic brady cardic
gi dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

selective b2 agonist, used in Sm An Med, that comes in tab, or inj

A

Terbutaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the MOA of Epinephrine

A

Direct acting catecholamine sympathomimetic

competitive agonism at all A and B adrenergic receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Swine antipyretic for swine respiratory DZ

A

Flunixin meglumine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the moa of phenylephrine

A

Direct acting alpha 1 selective agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the MOA of dobutamine

A

Direct acting catecholamine sympathomimetic

synthetic beta 1 agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

T/F you don’t give Naproxin or phenylbutazone to cats

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

post-arrest vasopressor of choice

A

Dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Generally used to tx tachyarrhythmias

A

Propranolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the MOA of phenylbutazone

A

Non-selective COX inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A less common adjunctive analgesic in small animals

A

Amantadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Why give estrogen with phenylproanolamine

A

Up reg. alpha 1 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Precautions of NE

A

Cardiac arrhythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the MOA of Acetaminophen

A

interferes wiht conversion of endoperoxidases to other PGs and TX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the primary use for selective Beta 2 agonists

A

Bronchodilators in tx of lower airway dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Precautions for bethanechol

A

SLUDD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the MOA of Flunixin MEglumine

A

Non-Selective COX inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

most potent vasopressor

A

NE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Part of symptomatic tx plan for dysautonomia

A

Bethanechol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Can propantheine cross the bbb

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Catecholamine: Potent non specific beta agonist

A

Isoproterenol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

contraindications of phenylephrine

A

Renal and GI vasoconstriction may be undesirable,

no beta 2 effects so vasoconstriction may be severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Does glycopyrrolate cross the BBB

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the MOA of Prazosin

A

sympatholytic alpha 1 receptor agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Drug used to control neuropathic pain

A

Gabapentin (most common)

amantadine (less common)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

GI or urinary antispasmodic causing relaxation of the detrussor m.

A

Oxybutynin and propantheline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Contraindications of pyridostigmine

A

SLUDD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Local analgesics have effects on which parts of the nociception pathway?

A

modulation
transduction
transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Low dose dopamine

A

Dopamine agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What drug binds irreversibly to its receptors

A

Phenoxybenzamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Treats rumen atony

A

Neostimine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the MOA of propranolol

A

Non- selective/ non specific beta antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Treatment of musculoskeletal pain in horses

A

Phenylbutazone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the MOA of pyridostigmine

A

Indirect acting parasympathomimetic Ach-ase antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

drug that dec. SA node firing causing bradycardia and dec. AV conduction causing a dec. in CO

A

Propranolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What class is grapiprant in?

A

Piprants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The main activity of NE is though ____ agonism mostly

A

A1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Used in sm an med to tx urinary retention due to urethral hypertonicit

A

Prazosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Analgesic for visceral pain in cattle

A

Flunixin MEglumine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

T/F cats are extremely sensitive to acetaminiphen

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

may cause reflex bradycardia

A

phenylephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Used for maintenance fo MG

A

Pyridostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

hat is the MOA of phenoxybenzamine

A

Non-specific alpha antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

ultra short acting beta 1 antagonisst

A

Esmolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Tx of bradyarrhythmias, cardiac arrest, and reduces resp and GI secretions

A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Used in CRI to maintain blood pressure under anesthesia

A

Ephedrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

T/F Epi is a positive ionotrope

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

MOA of ISoproterenol

A

Direct Acting Catecholamine sympathomimetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

TOC of detrusor m. atony

A

Bethanechol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Beta 1

A

Myocardium and adipose
inc. HR
inc. Contractility
INC renin and BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

T/F Flunixin MEguline cannot be given IM in horses

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

MOA of Glycopyrrolate

A

Direct acting parasympatholytic muscarinic receptor competitive antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

WHich is more specific for alpha 1 blockage phenoxybenzamine or prazosin

A

Prazosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

who has a quicker onset of action lidocaine or bupivicaine

A

bupivicaine

68
Q

What are the 3 reversible anticholinesterases

A
  1. Neostigmine
  2. Pyridostigmine
  3. Edrophonium
69
Q

can oxybutynin cross the bBB

A

yes

70
Q

drug used in cardiopulmonary arest as well as anaphylaxis

A

Epi

71
Q

Tx o fanesthesia associated hypotesion where ionotropic support is indicated to maintain cardiac output and tissue perfusion

A

Dobutamine

72
Q

Perfered local anesthetic for infusion through thoracocostomy tubes or wound soaker catheters

A

Bupivicaine

73
Q

NSAIDS target which parts of the nociception pathway

A

Transduction and Modulation

74
Q

Reversal agent of choice for reversal of Competitive NMB

A

Neostigine

75
Q

Tx of hypotension due to inadequate vascular tone

A

Dopamine

76
Q

What is the MOA of Atenolol and Esmolol

A

Sympathetolytic beta 1 receptor antagonist

77
Q

What are the benefits of systemic admin of lidocaine

A 
Antiarrhythmic
preanestesia
analgesic and anti inflam properties
antioxident properties
stim. intestinal motility
78
Q

vasopressor support

A

dopamine

79
Q

Analgesic for colic and endotoxemia in horsed

A

Flunixin Meglumine

80
Q

Comparative duration of action of local analgesics from shortest to longest

A

Lidocaine < Mepivicaine < Bupivicaine

81
Q

What is the Selective COX 1 inhibitor

A

Asparin

82
Q

MOA of Edrophonium

A

Indirect acting parasympathomimetic Ach-ase antagonist

83
Q

What are some precautions of phenylproanolamine

A

urinary retention
tachycardia
hypertension

84
Q

where are esters metabolised

A

hydrolized by plasma esterases

85
Q

drug with cardiac stimulatory effects and bronchodilation

A

Isoproterenol

86
Q

reduces cholinergic adverse effects of imidocarb in horses

A

Glycopyrrolate

87
Q

Medium dopamine

A

Beta 1 agonist, positive inotrope and chronotrope

88
Q

In what spp is Phenylbutazone commonly used?

A

horse

89
Q

D2 receptors

A

n. terminals
glomeruli
adrenal cortex
indirect vasodilation

90
Q

Acts by directly stimulating detrusor m. contraction

A

Bethanechol

91
Q

What are the 2 Non-selective COX 1 and COX 2 inhibitors

A
  1. Phenylbutazone

2. Flunixin meglumine

92
Q

What is the MOA of Bethanechol

A

Direct acting parasympathomimetic

muscarinic receptor agonist

93
Q

Used for diagnostic nerve blocks in horses and for epidurals

A

Mepivicaine

94
Q

COX 2 inhibitor that comes in an oral paste for horses

A

Firocoxib

95
Q

used in dogs and cats to tx hypotension

A

phenylephrine

96
Q

Alpha 1 receptor

A

vasoconstriction
inc. bp
sphincter contracton

97
Q

What are the 4 direct acting parasympatholytics

A

Atropine
Glycopyrrolate
oxybutynin
propntheline

98
Q

Drug used for canine and feline compulsive disorders, and birds to tx feather picking

A

Clomipramine

99
Q

T/F you can give the human oral solution of gabapentin to dogs

A

F contains xylitol

100
Q

Which has a longer half life propranolol or atenolol

A

atenolol

101
Q

T/F Acetaminophen inhibits COX 1

A

F. nothing to do with cox

102
Q

which drug is contraindicated with left atrial rupture

A

Dobutamine

103
Q

Tensilon test

A

Edrophonium

104
Q

Increases peripheral vascular resistance through systemic vasoconstriction

A

Phenylephrine

105
Q

list some precautions of Epi

A

massive SNS output

inc myocardial workload

106
Q 
which NSAid has the longest half life in the dog
naproxin
melocxicam
salicylate
phenylbutaxone
robenacoxib
A

naproxin

107
Q

drug used to tx canine cognitive dysfunction and canine hyperadrenocorticism (cushings dz)

A

MAOIs

108
Q

What is the onset and duration of Proparacaine

A

onset less than 30 sec

duration is 10 min

109
Q

What is the MOA of reversible anticholinesterases

A

Competitive angagonism of acetylcholinesterase

110
Q

Tx of Ach-ase inhibitor toxicity and cholinergic crisis

A

Atropine

111
Q

High dose

A

Alpha 1 agonist, vasoconstriction

112
Q

What is the MOA of Phenylproanolamine

A

(proin)
mixed Sympathomimetic
D: A1 agonist
I: Inc. NE in bladder and urethra

113
Q

How long should you wait when switching from NSAID to corticosteroids

A

1-2 weeks

114
Q

increases wt gaing in food animals

A

ractopamine and zilpaterol

115
Q

Drug for tx of hypotension due to inadequate vascular tone

A

NE

116
Q

Local anesthetic that comes in an ophthalmic solution

A

Proparacaine

117
Q

What is the MOA of Ephedrine

A

Mixed Sympathomimetic
D: alpha 1 and beta 1 and some 2 agonism
I: inc NE release

118
Q

D1 receptors

A

smooth m. of blood vessels
direct vasodilation
natriuresis

119
Q

What is the MOA of Dopamine

A

Direct acting catecholamine sympathomimetic

acts on dopamine receptors with dose dependent effects on A and B

120
Q

What is the main precaution of Phenylbutazone?

A

can mask lameness

121
Q

List the Selective beta 2 agonists from most to least selective

A

albuterol> Terbutaline> Clenbuterol

122
Q

What is the MOA of Neostigmine

A

Indirect acting parasympathomimetic acetylcholinesterase antagonist

123
Q

Contraindications of Bethanechol

A

Urethral and GI obstruction

124
Q

How is acetaminophen metabolized

A

Hepatic

125
Q

give to hypersalivating animals

A

glycopyrrolate

126
Q

What two spp are more sensitive to lidocaine

A

Cats and sheep

127
Q

What is the use of local admin of lidocaine

A

regional and epidural anesthesia

128
Q

dug often used in inhalers

A

Albuterol

129
Q

______ is approved for single inj use in cats post OVH

A

Meloxicam

130
Q

Approved for use in dogs for tx of osteoarthritis

A

meloxicam

131
Q

precautions of Neostigmine

A

SLUDD signs

132
Q

What is the MOA of Grapiprant

A

PGE2 EP4 receptor antagonist

133
Q

What is the 1 ester

A

Proparacaine

134
Q 
Which NSAID has the longest half life in the cat
naproxin
meloxicam
salicylate
phenylbutaxone
robenacoxib
A

salicylate

135
Q

T/F phenylbutazone is commonly used to tx musculoskeletal pain in dairy cattle

A

F banned

136
Q

Why would you choos atenolol over propranolol

A

lack of beta 2 effects so greater safety and less side effects

137
Q

WHat drug do you give prior to phenochromocytoma sx

A

phenoxybenzamine

138
Q

MOA of atropine

A

Direct acting parasympatholytic muscarinic receptor competitive antagonist

139
Q

Lidocaine onset and duration of action

A

onset=5 min

dur= 40-60 min

140
Q

Precautions of Edrophonium

A

SLUDD

141
Q

What drug would you use to calm a horse

A

Reserpine

142
Q

Drug used in dogs to treat urinary incontinence due to urethral sphincter hypotonus/incompetence

A

Phenylproanolamine

143
Q

T/F you can give phenylbutazone either IM or SQ to horses

A

F. neither

144
Q

Drug used in Sm. An. med. to treat urinary retention due to urethral hypertonicity by relaxing the internal sphincter

A

Phenoxybenzamine

145
Q

increases GI motility, may aid in the treatment of some types of ileus such as seen with EGUS

A

Bethanechol

146
Q

Drug that readily crosses the BBB and has a significan first pass effect

A

PRopranolol

147
Q

slower onset of action but longer duration that atropine

A

Glycopyrrolate

148
Q

How is gabapentin excreted

A

renal

149
Q

Drug given in septic shoc

A

NE

150
Q

What are the precautions of gabapentin

A

May cause sedation and ataxia

151
Q

Neural sterroid used in dogs, cats, and horses

A

Gabapentin

152
Q

Non-anti-inflammatory, antipyretic, analgesic

A

Acetaminophen

153
Q

Uncommon Selective b2 agonist that is a vasodilator and uterine relaxant that is contraindicated in food animals

A

Clenbuterol

154
Q

What are the 6 Selective COX-2 Inhibitor NSAIDs

A
  1. carprofen
  2. deracoxib
  3. Robenacoxib
  4. Firocoxib
  5. Meloxicam
    6 Piroxicam
155
Q

Drug used for the control of pain and inflam. associated with osteoarthritis in dogs

A

Grapiprant

156
Q

Catecholamine use with anesthetics to produce regional vasoconstriction

A

Epi

157
Q

What are the 3 selective beta 2 agonists

A
  1. albuterol
  2. clenbuterol
  3. terbutaline
158
Q

Alpha 2

A

endocrine organs

dec. insulin
dec. renin
dec. NE release
dec. Pancreatic secretion

159
Q

Contraindications of Neostigmne

A

Peritonitis
GI obstruction
UT obstruction
Abortion

160
Q

Anti hyperalgesic drug

A

Gabapentin

161
Q

Does Atropine cross the BB

A

Yes

162
Q

what spp cannot have atropne

A

rabbits

163
Q

what is the moa of Ractopamine and zilpaterol

A

non selective agonism of b1 2 and 3

164
Q

Antiviral drug with NMDA receptor antagonist properties

A

Amantadine

165
Q

Where are amides metabolized

A

Liver

Pharmacology 1 (22 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions