Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BIOCHEMISTRY > ENERGY METABOLISM III AND IV > Flashcards

ENERGY METABOLISM III AND IV Flashcards

1
Q

functions as a rotary motor to form ATP

imbedded in the inner mitochondrial membrane

consists of Fo subcomplex, Gamma subunit, and F1 subcomplex

A

ATP synthase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

disk of c protein subunits

A

Fo subcomplex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

attached to Fo and F1 complexes

A

gamma subunitm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

made up of 3 alpha and 3 beta subunits

A

F1 subcomplex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

in ATP synthase

_____ ATPs are generated per revolution of beta subunits

A

3 ATPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

availability of ADP and and reduced substrate

A

state 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

availability of substrate only

A

state 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

the capacity of the respiratory chain itself when all substrates and components are present in saturating amounts

A

state 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

availability of ADP only (e.g. cells in the resting state)

A

state 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

availability of oxygen only

A

state 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

cell approaches during exercise to state ______ or ______

A

state 3 or 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

P-O ratio for NADH

A

2.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

P-O ratio for FADH2

A

1.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

function: e-transport inhibitor for Iron-sulfur center to CoQ

Complex 1

A

barbiturates (rotenone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

electron transport inhibitor

complex 1

A

amytal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

electron transport inhibitor
because of structural similarity between malonic acid and succinic acid

complex 2

A

malonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

electron transport inhibitor

complex III

A

antimycin A and dimercaprol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

electron transport inhibitor

complex IV

A

cyanide, hydrogen sulfide, carbon monoxide, azide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

uncoupling agent

removes the link between the ETC and oxidative phosphorylation

transmembrane H+ carrier

A

2,4 dinitrophenol

20
Q

uncoupling agent generates body heat

transmembrane H+ carrier

found in brown adipose tissue, functions to generate body heat/tissues of newborns and during hibernation in animals

A

thermogenin

21
Q

thyroid hormone, natural uncoupler, in patient with hyperthyroidism ___________ in blood and tissue is elevated which results in high body temp

A

thyroxine

22
Q

inhibits ATP synthase

OSCP of ATP synthase
blocks flow of protons through ATP synthase

A

oligomycin (antibiotic)

23
Q

due to mutation in the mitochondrial genes that encode 3 subunits of Complex I

A

leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy

24
Q

severe diminution or absence of most oxidoreductases of the ETC

A

fatal infantile mitochondrial myopathy and renal dysfunction

25
Q

due to NADH-Q oxidoreductase (Complex I) or cytochrome oxidase (Complex IV) deficiency caused by mutation in mitochondrial DNA

A

mitochondiral encephalopathy lactic acidosis and stroke

26
Q

iron is required to maintain normal amounts of hemoglobin, cytochroms and iron-sulfur complexes that are central to oxygen transport and energy metabolism

A

iron deficiency anemia

27
Q

may lead to anemia and cardiomyopathy die to failure to synthesize adequate amounts of cytochrome c oxidase and other enzymes including several cuproenzymes

A

copper deficiency in neonates

28
Q

occlusion of a major coronary artery during acute MI results in ischemia or lowered O2 supply

ETC is inhibited w/ concomitant decrease in ATP and activation of anaerobic glycolysis

A

ischemia

29
Q

when acute MI is managed by thrombolysis the removal of the thrombus results in reperfusion of oxygen to the affected myocardium

at this point many ROS will be formed because there will be more oxygen than the available electrons

increased superoxide, hydrogen peroxide, and hydroxyl radicals

A

reperfusion injury

30
Q

study of energy changes accompanying biochemical reactions

describes transfer and utilization energy

A

bioenergetics

31
Q

total energy of a system including its surroundings remain constant

energy can be converted from one form to another but it cannot be created or destroyed

A

1st law of thermodynamics: Law of conservation

32
Q

total entropy of a system must increase if a process is to occur spontaneously

law of increased entropy

entropy is the extent of disorder or randomness

A

2nd law of thermodynamics: law of entropy

33
Q

_________ is the extent of disorder or randomness of the system and its total amount in nature is increasing

A

entropy (S)

34
Q

refers to state known as absolute zero

not physically possible but it is the mathematic limit of the universe

A

third law of thermodynamics: state of absolute zero

35
Q

heat content in a system

A

enthalpy

36
Q

chemical potential/energy that is free to do work

A

free energy

37
Q

negative reaction is ____________ heat will be released to the surroundings

A

exothermic

38
Q

positive reaction is ________ heat will be absorbed from the surroundings

A

endothermic

39
Q

zero reaction is __________ no net exchange of heat occurs with the surroundings

A

isothermic

40
Q

standard state defined as having a pH of _________

A

7.0

41
Q

free energy change in free energy’
useful energy in a system also called chemical potential

as it approaches zero as reaction proceeds to equilibrium
predicts whether a reaction is favorable or not

A

gibbs free energy

42
Q

if deltaG is __________- reaction proceeds spontaneously with loss of free energy

reaction: exergonic (release of energy)

A

exergonic

43
Q

if delta G is _______ reaction proceeds only if free energy can be gained

reaction is endergonic

if magnitude of delta G is great the system is stable with little or no tendency for a reaction to occur

A

positive

44
Q

if delta G is ____

system is at equilibrium and no net change takes place (ISOERGONIC)

A

zero

45
Q

2 high energy phosphates bonds in ATP

A

beta high energy phosphate bond
gamma high energy phosphate bond

BIOCHEMISTRY (40 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions