Comp Med No. 5 2012

Question 1

Name the 5 disease components that characterize metabolic syndrome.

Answer 1

Obesity, insulin resistance, glucose intolerance, dyslipidemia, and hypertension

Question 2

On what do most IBCs base their decisions about biosafety with viral vectors use?

a) Pathogenic properties of parental wild type viruses
b) Characteristics of the particular viral vector subtype
c) Biologic activity of the expressed transgene or regulatory nucleic acid to be packaged
d) All of the above

Answer 2

d) All of the above

Question 3

What viral vector is the most persistent in the environment?

a) 3rd generation lentivirus
b) E1 deleted Adenovirus
c) recombinant adeno-associated virus

Answer 3

c) recombinant adeno-associated virus

Question 4

T/F: The recombinant adeno-associated virus has no known pathogenicity to humans.

Answer 4

True

Question 5

T/F: he composition of the GM varies substantially between even inbred mice, which may have an interindividual similarity in their GM of less than 80% due to both genetic and environmental reasons.

Answer 5

True

Question 6

T/F: Nc/Nga mice are a spontaneous model of Atopic Dermatitis.

Answer 6

True

Question 7

T/F: 3. In denaturing gradient gel electrophoresis, PCR products of similar size are separated on a gel with a denaturing gradient, resulting in a pattern of bands in which each band ideally represents a bacterial population.

Answer 7

True

Question 8

A lab group is waiting for their NOD mice to develop type 1 diabetes, and is checking nonfasted blood glucose samples daily. The glucometer reads 129 for two days in a row. Is this mouse considered diabetic?

Answer 8

No. Normal range is between 60 and 130 mg/dL (250 mg/dL for two consecutive days is commonly used to indicate a diabetic state).

Question 9

True or false: Male NOD mice are more likely to develop type 1 diabetes.

Answer 9

False

Question 10

In rats, which method of insulin administration (injections vs. continuous release) was found to maintain the most control over blood glucose? In mice?

Answer 10

Rats: BID injections Mice: continuous release via osmotic minipump implant

Question 11

True or False: In NOD mice and BBDP rats, long acting human insulin formulations (such as Lantus) provide the most stability in blood glucose levels.

Answer 11

False. PZI was found to be most effective in both NOD mice and BBDP rats.

Question 12

True/False: In rodents, the inguinal ring remains patent throughout life.

Answer 12

True

Question 13

Scrotal hernias are usually:

a. X-linked
b. Autosomal recessive
c. Autosomal dominant
d. Multigenic

Answer 13

d. Multigenic

Question 14

How could one prevent unwanted genetic drift in a rodent breeding colony?

a. Purchase mice from an outside source and start a new breeding colony
b. Intensive inbreeding
c. Outcrossing

Answer 14

c. Outcrossing

Question 15

A proximate active metabolite of nicotine, often measured in human smokers and animal models of nicotine addiction due to its longer half-life is

a. Cotinine
b. Serotonin
c. Arginine
d. Anabasine

Answer 15

a. Cotinine

Question 16

T/F. The Unbiased Conditioned Place Preference (CPP) test involves giving an animal a choice between two chambers with two distinctly different colors, patterns, or textures and determining which one an animal prefers.

Answer 16

True

Question 17

T/F. The Biased Conditioned Place Preference (CPP) test involves associating an animal’s non-preferred chamber with a positive stimuli, or the preferred chamber with an aversive stimuli, in order to quantify the positive (e.g. addictive) or aversive effects.

Answer 17

True

Question 18

Why may direct inoculation of antigen into the vascular system be more preferential (for some antigens)?

Answer 18

IV and IC routes deliver antigen primarily to spleen and secondary lymph nodes versus IP delivery where the antigen is taken to the draining lymph node and the thoracic duct. Intravascular inoculation is more preferential for polyclonal particulate antigens vs. IP inoculation is preferred with soluble antigens

Question 19

The most common ECG change in Watanabe rabbits with myocardial disease is which of the following:

a. ST elevation
b. Absent p waves
c. T wave inversion
d. None of the above

Answer 19

c. T wave inversion

Question 20

The term used often in myocardial ischemia research “LAD” refers to which of the following:

a. Interventricular branch of left coronary artery
b. Lateral anterior descending artery
c. Left apex deficiency
d. None of the above

Answer 20

a. LAD is used often in human medicine as an abbreviation for the left anterior descending artery (a branch of the left coronary artery). In veterinary medicine, this vessel is known as the interventricular artery or the paraconal interventricular artery.

Question 21

Watanabe rabbits are deficient in receptors for high density lipoprotein (T/F)

Answer 21

False: They are deficient in low density not high density receptors

Question 22

True/ False. Symptoms associated with portal hypertension are ascites, variceal bleeding and encephalopathy.

Answer 22

False - These symptoms are associated with cirrhosis of the liver. A precursor of which is portal hypertension.

Question 23

Define gyrencephalic and lissencephalic and give a non-human primate example of each:

Answer 23

Gyrencephalic-cerebral cortex has convolutions, rhesus macaques

Lissencephalic-lack of convolutions and gyri, aka agyria, marmosets

Question 24

Name techniques used in middle cerebral artery occlusion (MCAO)?

Answer 24

Craniotomy, extra cranial occlusion via carotid artery, trans-orbital surgical procedures, and endovascular catheterization

Question 25

Describe a major benefit of high throughput micro-array based genomics.

Answer 25

Ability to identify groups or clusters of genes and proteins with altered expression patterns in tissue or body fluids after stroke

Question 26

Locate the lesion based on the following information:

When light is shined into the left eye there is no direct or consensual PLR.

When light is shined into the right eye there is both a direct and consensual PLR.

a. Efferent lesion on the left side
b. Efferent lesion on the right side
c. Afferent lesion on the right side
d. Afferent lesion on the left side

Answer 26

d. Afferent lesion on the left side

Question 27

T/F: Meningiomas are usually benign but a small percentage may be malignant.

Answer 27

True

Question 28

Which cranial nerve innervates the lateral rectus and retractor bulbi eye muscles?

a. CN III
b. CN IV
c. CN V
d. CN VI

Answer 28

d. CN VI

Question 29

Which sentence describing Listeriosis in cattle is FALSE?

a. Known as “Circling Disease” or “Silage Disease”
b. CNS lesions are superficial involving the meninges and choroid plexus
c. In cattle, the organism gains entry through injury of the oral mucosa and travels to the brain along the cranial nerves.

Answer 29

b. CNS lesions are superficial involving the meninges and choroid plexus

Question 30

Which sentence describing Listeriosis in primates or humans is FALSE?

a. CNS lesions are superficial involving the meninges and ependyma.
b. Infection of brain in humans occurs via the hematogenous route.
c. The most common form of listeriosis in primates is spontaneous abortions or stillbirths.
d. Case fatality rate is low,

Answer 30

d. Case fatality rate is low,

Question 31

True/False. L. monocytogenes is resistant to penicillins and aminoglycosides.

Answer 31

3. False. L. monocytogenes is resistant to cephalosporins and first-generation quinolones.

Question 32

What statement about L. monocytogenes is FALSE?

a. Organism is widely distributed in the environment
b. The organism can survive for up to a year in moist soil.
c. In rabbits, infection with listeria is commonly characterized by tremors and other neurologic signs.
d. Hly, plcB, inlA and ActA are listerial proteins that enable survival and promote pathogenicity within the host cell.

Answer 32

c. In rabbits, infection with listeria is commonly characterized by tremors and other neurologic signs.