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Comp Med > Comp Med No. 4 2012 > Flashcards

Comp Med No. 4 2012 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the genus and species of the Red Drum Fish?

A

Sciaenops ocellatus

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2
Q

What kind of research are red drum fish most commonly used for?

a. Reproductive
b. Endocrine
c. Oncology
d. Nutritional
e. b and d

A

e. b and d - Endocrine & Nutritional

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3
Q

T or F: Ascorbic acid (Vitamin C) is heat labile and water soluble.

A

True

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4
Q

Which of the following is not true about otoliths in fish?

a. They detect motion
b. They are called “ear stones”
c. It is an auditory organ
d. They disappear as fish age

A

d. They disappear as fish age

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5
Q

Vibratory stimuli induces what response in fish & amphibians?

A

Startle response or tail-flip response

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6
Q

T or F: Red drum have excellent aquacultural potential because they can be cultured at a range of temperatures & salinities.

A

True

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7
Q

Which of the following are common signs of Vitamin C deficiency in teleost fish?

a. deformities of the spine, jaw, and cephalic regions
b. anophthalmia
c. shortened opercula
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above are signs of Vitamin C deficiency in fish

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8
Q

T or F: Vitamin C is a dietary requirement of most fish, including red drum.

A

True

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9
Q

T or F: The finding of an otolith in a fish should prompt a search for an underlying infectious etiology.

A

False: Otoliths are dense structures in the 3 chambers associated with the ear in teleost fish. They are involved in hearing and vestibular functions.

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10
Q

Name factors that may contribute to UD.

A

Environmental (dietary vitamin E and humidity), immunologic (preferential production of Th1 response by B6 mice) and bacteriologic (overgrowth of Staphylococcus xylosus)

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11
Q

Describe the classic histological description of UD.

A

Chronic ulceration with adherent serocellular crust and adjacent epidermal hyperplasia with marked inflammation (neutrophils, lymphocytes, macrophages, mast cells).

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12
Q

Describe the usual clinical presentation of UD.

A

Excoriations involving the face, ears, or dorsal cervicothoracic skin accompanied by pruritis

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13
Q

T or F: There are no current rodent models for balloon injuries using rats. This work is only done in large animals.

A

False: rat models are available using the carotid artery

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14
Q

T or F: The aorta responds the same in both thoracic injuries and abdominal injuries.

A

False, the abdominal aortic injuries showed higher degrees of intimal hyperplasia and stenotic remodeling.

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15
Q

T or F: The aorta in a 12+ week old rat is similar in size to clinically relevant vessels in human medicine (coronary a. and middle cerebral a.)

A

True.

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16
Q

T or F: You can utilize either the right or the left carotid artery to easily access the descending aorta in rats.

A

False, only the left carotid can be used for this technique as the aortic arch is mostly avoided.

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17
Q

T or F: Zucker rats are frequently used as animal models of obesity, dyslipidemia, and type 2 diabetes.

A

True - think “Fat Zuckers”

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18
Q

What is the significance of secretory phospholipase A2?

A

sPLA2 is expressed by several types of immune cells and can increase markedly in response to acute inflammation.

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19
Q

What is LPS and how is it commonly used in research?

A

Lipopolysaccaride – endotoxin derived from bacterial membranes commonly used in research to mimic endotoxemia and sepsis, and thus induce inflammation.

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20
Q

What is C-reactive protein and what is its use in research?

A

C-reactive protein – one of a group of acute phase proteins thought to be a biomarker of acute inflammation.

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21
Q

True or False. The family Sciuridae includes chipmunks, flying squirrels, ground squirrels, tree squirrels, prairie dogs, marmots, and woodchucks.

A

True

22
Q

What are the three glandular anatomic areas associated with scent-marking behavior in squirrels?

A

Oral-Cheek area, dorsal area, & anal area.

23
Q

What are the two most common neoplasms in the rodent family Sciuridae?

A

Woodchuck hepatocellular carcinomas and squirrel fibromas

24
Q

What is Spermophilus citellus?

A

European ground squirrel

25
Q

T or F: Apocrine gland tumors occur frequently in domestic animals, such as dogs and cats, but have not previously been reported to occur in squirrels.

A

True

26
Q

The major effect of bradykinins on blood vessels is:

a. No effect
b. They cause endothelial dysfunction
c. They cause vasodilation
d. They cause vasoconstriction

A

c. They cause vasodilation

27
Q

The following is true of Yucatan minipigs:

a. They are not a good cardiovascular disease model because they do not get atherosclerosis
b. They are an appropriate model for hypertension in humans caused by diets high in salt, fat and sugar
c. They are resistant to changes in blood pressure caused by a high-sodium diet
d. They cannot be fed a high salt, fat and sugar diet because they become obese and unmanageable, so are an inappropriate model for hypertension
e. They do not develop hypertension when fed a diet high in salt, fat, and sugar so are an inappropriate model

A

b. They are an appropriate model for hypertension in humans caused by diets high in salt, fat and sugar

28
Q

T or F: GPIbα is a secreted protein involved in the clotting cascade.

A

False: it is a membrane bound protein

29
Q

T or F: Sequence homology of GPIbα is almost identical between porcine and humans

A

F – sequence homology is 67% for DNA and even lower for the predicted amino acid sequence.

30
Q

The 3D protein backbone of GPIbα is almost identical between porcine and humans.

A

T – the 3D structure backbone is very similar despite the difference in sequence.

31
Q

Porcine platelets are a lot less susceptible to aggregation with ristocetin than their human counterparts.

A

True

32
Q

Clycoprotein Ib-IX-V (GPIb-IX-V) is a platelet adhesion receptor complex that initiates platelet aggregation. What is the role of GPIbα in this complex?

A

The GPIbα is important because it is responsible for the attaching to the cytoskeleton and had the binding site for von Willebrand factor (vWF).

33
Q

What is the etiologic agent of edema disease in swine?

a. Clostridium difficile
b. Escherichia coli
c. Erysipelothrix rhusopathiae
d. Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus spp.
e. Streptococcus suis

A

b. Escherichia coli

34
Q

Which of the following diseases is not a differential diagnosis for edema disease in swine?

a. Haemophilus parasuis infection
b. Clostridium septicum infection
c. Porcine circovirus infection
d. Paramyxovirus infection
e. All of the above are possible differentials for edema disease.

A

e. All of the above are possible differentials for edema disease.

35
Q

What are the serotypes of E. coli most frequently implicated in edema disease? (Choose 3)

a. O138
b. O139
c. O140
d. O141
e. O157

A

a. O138
b. O139
d. O141

36
Q

Which two clinical signs led to a correct diagnosis of edema disease in this animal?

a. Vomiting and recumbency
b. Conjunctival edema and nasal discharge
c. Conjunctival edema and paraparesis/tetraparesis
d. Tetraparesis and inappetence
e. Seizures and orchitis

A

c. Conjunctival edema and paraparesis/tetraparesis

37
Q

Which of the following are common complications of hematopoetic cell transplantation (HCT) in humans?

a. Opportunistic infections
b. Post-transplantational lymphoproliferative disease
c. Thrombotic microangiopathy
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

38
Q

The reported prevalence of endometriosis in animals that have died at national primate centers is as high as 29% when only animals older than 10 y are included. What are the main problems related to endometriosis in rhesus macaques?

a. The disease is difficult to diagnose in its early stages.
b. Medical or surgical treatment of the disease resulting in hormonal suppression could affect the outcomes of aging studies.
c. A study subject with debilitating disease may be lost due to euthanasia.
d. All of the above.

A

d. All of the above.

39
Q

Which are the length of the female cycle and the length of the gestational period of the Rhesus Macaque?

a. 16 days and 133 days
b. 9.5 days and 150 days
c. 37 days and 235 days
d. 28 days and 164 days

A

d. 28 days and 164 days

40
Q

T or F: Just like cynomologus macaques, rhesus macaques are seasonal breeders.

A

False: cynos are not seasonal breeders, rhesus are seasonal breeders.

41
Q

Which of the following statement/s about Clindamycin is/are correct?

a. Clindamycin phosphate is for topical and intravenous application
b. Clindamycin hydrochloride is for oral administration
c. Clindamycin is bacteriostatic and in high concentrations bacteriocidal
d. Clindamycin is a macrolide antibiotic

A

a. Clindamycin phosphate is for topical and intravenous application
b. Clindamycin hydrochloride is for oral administration
c. Clindamycin is bacteriostatic and in high concentrations bacteriocidal

42
Q

Which of the following statement/s about the antibiotic Cefazolin is/are false?

a. Cefazolin has a very good oral absorption
b. Cefazolin is bacteriocidal
c. Cefazolin penetrates well into bone and bone marrow and is an excellent therapeutic for osteomyelitis
d. Cefazolin is a first-generation cephalosporin antibiotic

A

a. Cefazolin has a very good oral absorption

43
Q

True or False: muscle atrophy can occur within a week of immobilisation?

A

True

44
Q

T or F: Francisella tularensis is a small gram negative coccobacillus and is classified as a Category A Select Agent

A

True

45
Q

Tularemia can lead to severe disease in humans with as few as 10 cfu making this a highly infectious organism. What are 2 common sources of infection for humans?

a. Rabbits
b. House mice
c. Deer fly
d. a and c only
e. a, b and c
A

d. While there are several reservoir species in North America including, meadow voles, brown rats, deer mice, house mice and ground squirrels, the most common source of infection in humans are rabbits and deer flies. Tularemia in humans is also known as rabbit fever or deer-fly fever.

46
Q

The ONPRC found that most adult animals asymptomatically seroconvert. What signs can be seen in younger animals during an outbreak of Francisella tularemia?

a. Respiratory signs
b. Gastroenteritis
c. Sudden death
d. a and b
e. a, b and c
A

e. a, b and c

47
Q

T or F: Tularemia has a narrow host range, infecting primarily only humans and NHPs.

A

False: Tularemia has one of the broadest host ranges of all bacteria, encompassing well over 200 mammalian species, in addition to birds, amphibians, fish, and various arthropod vectors.

48
Q

T/F: Determining the type of stroke is unimportant when starting initial therapy.

A

False. Starting the wrong type of therapy could be deadly to the patient. Antiplatelet and anticoagulant drugs are used for ischemic strokes but contraindicated in hemorrhagic strokes

49
Q

Which of the following characteristics do not appear to be predisposing factors for stroke in chimpanzees:

a. Female
b. Elderly
c. Overweight
d. Male

A

d. Male

50
Q

Which diagnostic testing is the most beneficial for diagnosing stroke?

a. Advanced imaging (CT or MRI)
b. Echocardiography
c. Arteriogram
d. Physical exam

A

a. Advanced imaging (CT or MRI)

Comp Med (17 decks)

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