Comp Med No. 2 2010

Question 1

Elimination of bicc1 function in the zebrafish causes —————–formation

a. Cyst
b. Kidney inflammation
c. Pronephric cilia
d. Kidney stones

Answer 1

A

Question 2

Zebrafish offer an attractive alternative to rodent PKD models due to: (Select the wrong answer)

a. The ease of visualizing organs and tissues in the transparent embryos and juveniles
b. The conservation of genetic pathways regulating organogenesis
c. The ability to rapidly assay loss- and gain-of-function phenotypes for any gene.
d. The Zebrafish is relatively small when compared to other models

Answer 2

D

Question 3

What was the primary goal of the study “Knockdown of Bicaudal C in Zebrafish (Danio rerio) Causes Cystic Kidneys: A Nonmammalian Model of Polycystic Kidney Diseases”?

a. To demonstrate conservation of Bicc1 function in the kidneys of zebrafish and mice
b. To demonstrate the gain of function phenotypes associated with Bicc1
c. To characterization of a zebrafish bicc1 splice variants
d. To demonstrate the usefulness of Zebra fish as model system

Answer 3

A

Question 4

Many genes involved in PKD code for proteins that localize to the:

a. Primary cilia or basal body
b. Kidney epithelium
c. Medullary collecting duct cells
d. Nephron

Answer 4

A

Question 5

T/F: Cystic phenotypes in zebrafish are a direct result of the loss of bicc1a function.

Answer 5

True

Question 6

The heart of clawed frog species (Xenopus) has how many chambers?

a. Three
b. Four
c. Two

Answer 6

Three – left and right atria plus a single ventricle

Question 7

Methods for noninvasive cardiac physiology studies include:

a. Echocardiography
b. Electrocardiography
c. Angiography/coronary catheterization
d. a and b
e. all of the above

Answer 7

D

Question 8

True or false: Topical isoflurane can be an effective and safe anesthetic in aquatic amphibians such as Xenopus species.

Answer 8

True – delivered by saturating the absorbent pad of an adhesive bandage with a measured amount of isoflurane and applying it to the frog’s dorsal surface.

Question 9

Anesthetic agents (1% tricaine immersion vs. topical isoflurane) were associated with significant differences in what cardiac physiology parameters in Xenopus?

a. Electrophysiology (relative wave and interval lengths)
b. Ventricular ejection fraction
c. Flow velocity across the AV valve
d. b and c
e. All of the above

Answer 9

a – tricaine anesthesia was associated with longer QRS duration and shorter QT interval than those of isoflurane anesthetized frogs

Question 10

True or false: Body weight and species are both factors that can be associated with variation in cardiac dimensions and electrophysiology in anesthetized Xenopus.

Answer 10

False: In anesthetized Xenopus there is a significant association of cardiac dimensions with body weight and species, but there is no significant difference in electrophysiology (conduction physiology).

Question 11

T/F The aim of pathogenicity models is to reproduce disease in vivo by challenging the select host with bacterial isolates.

Answer 11

T

Question 12

Uses of pathogenicity models include:

a. Disease monitoring
b. Comparison of pathogenicity of different bacterial isolates
c. Evaluation of efficacy of prophylactic and chemotherapeutic treatments
d. A and B
e. All of the above

Answer 12

E

Question 13

Prolonged time is required for disease development in various frog species after bath challenge with this fungal pathogen:

a. Litoria ewingii
b. Klebsiella pneumoniae
c. Aeromonas hydrophila
d. Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis

Answer 13

D

Question 14

ADAMTS12 has been implicated in all except which of the following processes or diseases?

a. Tumorigenesis
b. Asthma
c. Arthritis
d. Hematopoiesis
e. Angiogenesis

Answer 14

D

Question 15

On which chromosome is the ADAMTS12 gene located?

a. 14
b. 15
c. 16
d. 17
e. 18

Answer 15

B

Question 16

The CBA/CaH-T(14;15)6Ca/J mouse strain has which kind of translocation between chromosomes 14 and 15?

a. Balanced reciprocal
b. Unbalanced reciprocal
c. Homologous Robertsonian
d. Non-homologous Robertsonian
e. None of the above

Answer 16

A

Question 17

To which rodent parvovirus does hamster parvovirus (HaPV) bear the greatest genetic similarity?

a. MPV1, mouse parvovirus 1
b. MPV3, mouse parvovirus 3
c. MVM, minute virus of mice
d. H-1PV, parvovirus H1
e. Kilham rat virus

Answer 17

B

Question 18

2. Which of the following statements is not supported by the results of the authors’ study (Christie et al. Experimental Infection of Mice with Hamster Parvovirus: Evidence for Interspecies Transmission of Mouse Parvovirus 3, pp. 123-129) regarding the infectivity and pathogenesis of hamster parvovirus (HaPV) in mice?
   a. HaPV can induce productive infection in mice with a pathogenesis similar to that of MPV1 in mice
   b. Interspecies transmission of MPV3–HaPV from mouse to hamster is plausible
   c. Pathogenesis findings in hamsters suggest that the hamster is likely an aberrant natural host for HaPV
   d. The lack of repeat HaPV disease outbreaks or HaPV parvovirus isolations in hamster colonies suggest that the hamster is likely an aberrant host for HaPV
   e. This study provides additional justification for the common practice of separate housing for different rodent species in laboratory animal facilities

Answer 18

C

Question 19

Why is the guinea pig the typical animal model for studying inner ear biology?

Answer 19

Easy cochlear access

Question 20

How was chemical deafening achieved in this study? (Hankenson et al. Guinea Pig Adenovirus Infection Doges Not Inhibit Cochlear Transfection with Human Adenoviral Vectors in a Model Hearing Loss, pp. 130-135)

Answer 20

Chemical deafening was achieved via a SQ dose of Kanmycin, followed 2-4 hours later by ethacrynic acid injected in to the jugular vein.

Question 21

What reflex can be used to verify deafening in the guinea pigs?

Answer 21

Preyer reflex

Question 22

Define miRNA and its significance. How does it change with obesity?

Answer 22

MicroRNA regulates gene expression and has been known to enhance viral replication, suppress certain tumors, and be a biomarker of liver injury. Its level decreases with obesity.

Question 23

What is the estrus length and gestation length of a pig? Do these differ between minipigs and regular farm pigs?

Answer 23

Estrus-21d. Gestation-114d. (3mo, 3w, 3d) No difference between minipigs and farm pigs.

Question 24

What is the significance of an Ossabaw pig and in what types of studies are they commonly used?

Answer 24

The Ossabaw minipig is known for its ability to accrue and store more fat than other pigs fed the same diet. Therefore, they are often utilized on studies of Type II diabetes and metabolic disease.

Question 25

What is the type of sweat gland that cannot function to adjust body temperature?

a. Apocrine
b. Eccrine

Answer 25

a

Question 26

Rodent skin heals primarily by

a. Reepithelization
b. Contraction

Answer 26

b

Question 27

True or False: The horny layer of the skin is the main barrier to drug penetration.

Answer 27

True

Question 28

What is the predominant collagen of the dermis?

a. Collagen Type I
b. Collagen Type II
c. Collagen Type III

Answer 28

a

Question 29

The stain used for mast cells is

a. Silver stain
b. Fontana
c. Orcein
d. Toluidine blue

Answer 29

d

Question 30

What appears to be a common pathophysiologic finding in the development of urinary stones in humans and dolphins?

Answer 30

Insulin resistance (predisposes to uric acid calculi in humans and ammonium urate calculi in dolphins).

Question 31

In humans, what functions does urinary citrate serve?

Answer 31

Alkalinizer and chelator of calcium ions, both of which decrease the risk of stone formation.

Question 32

What is the predominant cause of morbidity and mortality in captive chimpanzees?

a. Renal disease
b. Cardiovascular disease
c. Renal amyloidosis
d. Hepatic disease

Answer 32

b - Cardiovascular disease (CVD), including cardiomyopathy, systemic hypertension, cardiac arrhythmias, congestive heart failure, premature ventricular complexes, and cardiac arrest.

Question 33

The current understanding of chimpanzee CVD appears to involve clinical progression from left ventricular hypertrophy to dilated cardiomyopathy, initiated by certain disease processes including:

a. Systemic hypertension
b. Amyloidosis
c. Obesity
d. Hepatic failure

Answer 33

a

Question 34

Which biomarker does not cross react in chimpanzee sera?

a. ICTP
b. PIIINP
c. TIMP1
d. MMP1
e. PIINP

Answer 34

d

Question 35

Which 2 commonly used biomarkers of fibrogenesis where found to identify chimpanzee CVD cases?

a. ICTP
b. PIIINP
c. TIMP1
d. MMP1
e. PIINP

Answer 35

a & b