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Comp Med > Comp Med No. 3 2011 > Flashcards

Comp Med No. 3 2011 Flashcards

1
Q

How does the variable-criteria sequential-stopping rule (SSR) improve on other types of SSR’s?

a. It is not limited to use with null hypothesis significance tests.
b. It can be used on experiments where a very small effect size is expected.
c. It keeps the rate of Type 1 errors constant throughout the experiment.

A

c. It keeps the rate of Type 1 errors constant throughout the experiment.

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2
Q

At the end of the first stage of an experiment utilizing the variable-criteria SSR, under which circumstance would the experiment proceed to a second stage?

a. The P-value is less than the lower criterion.
b. The P-value is between the lower and upper criterion.
c. The P-value is greater than the upper criterion.

A

b. The P-value is between the lower and upper criterion.

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3
Q

With regard to statistical analysis, what is the sequential stopping rule (SSR)?

A

SSR allows the investigator to conduct an experiment in stages with numerous interim analyses of the data. This is in contrast to the “fixed stopping rule” where the experiment ends after a fixed number of subjects.

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4
Q

How is Mouse Norovirus spread? What type of sentinel program would best discover an outbreak?

A

MNV is transmitted by the oral-fecal route. A dirty bedding sentinel would likely become infected. According to Charlie Clifford…MNV is not reliably transmitted through soiled bedding sentinels.

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5
Q

MNV is lethal to what strain of mouse?

A

Lethal infection in STAT1 -/- (with or without RAG2 and PKR) and IFN Rαβγ -/-: produces hepatitis, interstitial pneumonia, encephalitis (only with intracerebral inoculation)

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6
Q

T or F: Helicobacter bilis can be responsible for proliferative typhlitis, colitis, and proctitis, and hepatitis.

A

True

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7
Q

T or F: MNV is a small, nonenveloped, ssDNA virus in the Caliciviridae.

A

False

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8
Q

T or F: MNV has the highest prevalence rate compared to any other murine virus in NA or Europe.

A

True

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9
Q

Mice infected with MNV shed virus for how long?

a. Days
b. Weeks
c. Months

A

Virus is shed for MONTHS after exposure, with only small amounts of virus shed after the first few days.

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10
Q

Is MNV stable in the environment for a long or short period of time…and why?

A

Stable for long periods of time because it is a non-enveloped virus.

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11
Q

T or F: SCID mice lack both functional T and B cells, and as a result, are highly susceptible to infection by pathogenic microorganisms.

A

True

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12
Q

Why are SCID mice considered an ideal animal model for human tumor xenograft growth and in vivo metastatic studies? Choose all correct answers.

a. Due to their high rate of spontaneous thymic lymphoma formation
b. They easily accept xenografts of human tumors
c. They develop spontaneous metastasis from human xenografts at a higher frequency than nude mice.
d. Due to their low rate of spontaneous non-thymic tumor development.

A

b. They easily accept xenografts of human tumors

c. They develop spontaneous metastasis from human xenografts at a higher frequency than nude mice.

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13
Q

T or F: Rhabdomyosarcomas are malignant tumors of skeletal muscles and are a common spontaneous neoplasm in laboratory rodents.

A

F. Rhabdomyosarcomas are one of the rarest spontaneous neoplasms in lab rodents. In one study, the tumor frequency in BALB/cJ mice was calculated to be 2.4/100,000 mice retained as breeders.

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14
Q

Describe the defect that produces immunodeficiency in SCID mice.

A

Defective DNA-dependent kinase that recombines gene segments coding for T (TcR) and B (Ig) cell receptors

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15
Q

Describe the phenotype of SCID mice.

A

Hypoplastic lymphoid tissues
No Ig or T cell responses
Sensitive to ionizing radiation because of defective DNA break repair

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16
Q

List the major uses of SCID mice.

A

V(D)J recombination studies
Tumor & xenograft transplantation
Lymphocyte subset transfer studies
Reconstitution of human hematopoietic system (Hu-PBL-SCID)

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17
Q

Which of the following describes the action of botulism neurotoxins (BoNT)?

a. Inhibit GABA release
b. Inhibit acetylcholine release
c. Inhibit glycine release
d. Inhibit Substance P release

A

b. Inhibit acetylcholine release

18
Q

How are mice injected for the mouse bioassay (MBA)?

a. IM
b. SC
c. IP
d. IV

A

c. IP

19
Q

Injection of which of the following muscles have been used to measure BoNT?

a. Gastrocnemius
b. Inguinocrual
c. Extensor digitorum longus
d. All of the above

A

d.— historically a. (gastrocnemius), b & c have recently been targeted as alternatives to MBA & for investigation of potential therapeutics

20
Q

What is considered the gold standard and only approved method for detection of botulinum neurotoxin in clinical samples?

A

mouse bioassay (MBA)

21
Q

True/False: MDCK cells are a popular immortal cell line due to the reproducibility and consistency of tumors they form

A

False. MDCK cell populations are known to be diverse in behavior and tumorigencity

22
Q

From what species did MDCK cells originate?

A

Madin-Darby CANINE Kidney cells

23
Q

What is the ATCC?

A

American Type Culture Collection

24
Q

T/F: Alleles associated with coat color may also influence development of the immune, nervous and visual systems.

A

True

25
Q

T/F: In addition to genotyping cats for coat color alleles, blood-type screening may also be prudent in breeds in which the B blood type is recognized.

A

True - to avoid the complication of neonatal isoerythrolysis in the breeding colony

26
Q

When establishing a breeding colony, PCR-RFLP may be a helpful tool to:

a. Genotype potential founding animals
b. To determine the presence of breed associated disease-causing alleles
c. Eliminate potentially confounding disease -causing alleles from breeding stock
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

27
Q

Name the feline line that is used as a model of primary congenital glaucoma in humans.

A

PCG - primary congenital glaucoma

28
Q

Name three experimental models of pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) other than pigs.

A

Rats, mice, dogs, sheep, cows, nonhuman primates

29
Q

Name two methods of experimentally creating pulmonary arterial hypertension.

A

Hypoxia, monocrotaline infusion, embolic occlusion, and creation of aortopulmonary shunts.

30
Q

Name some conditions that result in systemic to pulmonary arterial shunts and pulmonary arterial hypertension.

A

Patent ductus arteriosis
Potts shunts (anastomosis of the left pulmonary artery to the descending aorta)
Wateston shunts (anastomosis of the right pulmonary artery to the ascending aorta)
Large Blalock-Taussig shunts
Hemitruncus (origin of one of the pulmonary arteries from the ascending aorta.

31
Q

T/F. There is a direct relationship seen with focally extensive distal limb alopecia to bacterial or fungal skin infections.

A

False

32
Q

T/F. Rhesus macaques raised outside versus inside in a laboratory setting are less likely to develop focally extensive alopecia of the distal limb due to them being closer to nature.

A

False

33
Q

T/F. Rhesus macaques raised outside versus inside in a laboratory setting are more likely to develop focally extensive alopecia of the limbs due to the possibility of being exposed to more bacteria or fungi.

A

False

34
Q

T/F. Mast cells and CD3+ lymphocytes were not elevated in the alopecic skin when compared to the normal skin from the same animal.

A

True

35
Q

T/F. Males are more likely to develop focally extensive alopecia of the distal limbs than females.

A

False

36
Q

What is the advantage to using SHIV over SIV in macaques as a model for human HIV?

A

There is a reduced time to immunosuppression in infected animals, there is a significant loss of CD4+ T cells by 2-4 weeks after infection (as well as disturbances in the B cell compartment early on)

37
Q

Describe the significance of each marker: CD20, CD95, CD21, CD27

A 
CD20 = all B lymphocytes have this marker,
CD95 = activation marker, greater susceptibility to CD95 mediated apoptosis
CD21 = a component of the B cell coreceptor complex, elicits T cell help
CD27 = memory B cells
38
Q

T/F. M. gordonae is highly pathogenic and associated with lymphadenopathy in marmosets.

A

False

39
Q

T/F. A positive TST is specific for exposure to Mycobacerium tuberculosis.

A

False

40
Q

T/F. Old world monkeys are most susceptible to infections with M. tuberculosis.

A

True

41
Q

T/F. New world monkeys are more commonly colonized with non-tuberculosis mycobacteria.

A

True

Comp Med (17 decks)

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