CNS Unit 9 Brainstem 1: Anatomy and CN Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 structures of the Brainstem?

A

Midbrain, Pons and Medulla

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2
Q

What is the Rostral Limit of the brainstem?

A

Midbrain-Diencephalic Junction

This separates the Midbrain and the Diencephalon
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3
Q

What is the Midbrain-Pons junction?

What separates them?

A

Pontomesencephalic Junction

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4
Q

What is the Pons-Medulla junction?

What separates them?

A

Pontomedullary Junction

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5
Q

What is the Caudal Limit of the Brainstem?

A

Cervicomedullary Junction

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6
Q

When looking at the Dorsal View of the Brainstem, what makes up the Tectum “Roof”?

A

The Superior and Inferior Colliculi

These structures are in the Midbrain
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7
Q

When looking at the Ventral View of the Brainstem, what makes the Rostral End (Superior)?

A

The Midbrain is mostly formed by the Cerebral Peduncles, these are separated in the center by the Interpeduncular Fossa

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8
Q

When looking at the Vental View of the Brainstem, what may we find under the Pontomedullary Junction?

A

We’ll find the Pyramidal Decussation, and the Pyramids

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9
Q

When looking at the Lateral View of the Brainstem, what strucutres may we see?

A
  • The Pons; In the Pons we’ll see the 4th Ventricle (This extends from the pons to the rostral/superior portion of the medulla), Superior/Middle/Inferior Cerebellar Peduncles
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10
Q

Which Cranial Nerves do not Emerge from the Brainstem?

A
  • CN 1
  • CN 2
    *Although (in the pic) we can see it the Optic Nerve meet up at the Optic Chiasm forming the Optic tract, which wraps laterally around the midbrain to enter the LGN of the Thalamus *
Here we see all the CN
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11
Q

Where do CN 3-12 Exit the Brainstem?

A

Either Ventrally or Ventrolaterally
- One exception is CN 4, which exits from the dorsal midbrain

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12
Q

Where does CN 3 Emerge from?

A

Oculomotor emerges ventrally from the Interpenduncular fossa of the Midbrain; usually between the SCA and the PCA

Carries parasympathetics to pupillary constrictor and cillary muscles of lens

Ignore the circle
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13
Q

Where does CN 4 Emerge from?

A

Trochlear Emerges dorsally from the inferior tectum of Midbrain

Ignore the circle
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14
Q

Where does CN 5 Emerge from?

A

Trigeminal emerges from the ventrolateral pons
- This then enters a small fossa called Meckel’s cave; It has a Trigeminal ganglion (sensory ganglion) that divides and they each have different exits in the skill.

Ignore the circle
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15
Q

Where does CN 6 Emerge from?

A

Abducens exits ventrally at the pontomedullary junction

Ignore the circle
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16
Q

Where does CN 7-10 Emerge from?

A

Facial, Vestibulocochlear, Glossopharyngeal, and Vagus all exit ventrolaterally from the pontomedullary junction and the Rostral Medulla

Ignore the circle
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17
Q

Where does CN 11 and 12 Emerge from?

A

Spinal Accessory arises laterally from muliple rootlets along the upper cervical cord

Hypoglossal exits the medulla ventrally between the Pyramid and Olive of the Medulla

Ignore the circle
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18
Q

Where in the skull does CN 1 exit?

A

Cribiform Plate

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19
Q

Where in the skull does CN 2 exit?

A

Optic Canal

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20
Q

Where in the skull do CN 3, 4, V1, and 6 exit?

A

Superior Orbital Fissure

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21
Q

Where in the skull does V2 exit?

A

Foramen Rotundum

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22
Q

Where in the skull does V3 exit?

A

Foramen Ovale

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23
Q

Where in the skull does CN 7 exit?

A

CN 7 Traverses subarachnoid space then enters Internal Auditory Meatus (Canal) to enter auditory canal then the main portions exits via Stylomastoid Foramen

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24
Q

Where in the skull does CN 8 exit?

A

Enters subarachnoid space to enter the Internal Auditory Meatus (Canal) to enter Auditory canal

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25
Q

Where in the skull does CN 9-11 exit?

A

Jugular Foramen

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26
Q

Where in the skill does CN 12 exit?

A

Hypoglossal canal

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27
Q

During Embryological Development, where do CN lie?

What happens when the nervous system matures?

A

Adjacent to the Ventricular System

As Nervous System matures, there are 3 motor and 3 sensory columns related to CN nuclei that run through the lenth of the brainstem (Pic on the Right)

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28
Q

What is the Function of CN 1 (Olfactory N.)?

A

Special Sensory

Smell

  • Chemoreceptors detect odor and are located in Nasal Epithelium.
  • Short olfactory nerves head up through the cribiform plate
  • Then synapse in olfactory bulb, then information travels via olfactory tract to specific locations
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29
Q

What are the Dysfunction of CN 1?

A
  • Anosmia: Olfactory Sensory Loss of smell
  • With unilateral deficits, patients are rarely aware because the contralateral nostril compensates
  • Bilateral deficits are accompanied with decreased taste
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30
Q

Dysfunction of CN 1

What may cause Anosmia?

Loss of smell

A

Head trauma, viral infections, PD, Alxheimer’s (Az), Intracrainial lesions

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31
Q

What is the pathway for vision?

A
  • Retina
  • Optic nerve
  • Optic canal
  • Optic chiasm
  • Optic tract
  • Lateral Geniculate Nucleus
  • Visual cortex (Occipital Lobe)

Optic nerve travels from orbit to intracranial cavity via optic canal

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32
Q

What are the Functions of CN 3, 4 and 6?

A

They Control extraocular eye muscles

CN 3: - Motor to Superior/Inferior/Middle Rectus and
Inferior Oblique “Up and out” also elevates the eyelids
(This rotates the eyeball superiorly, inferiorly, and medially)
- As well as pupil constriction and accommodates lens of eye

CN 4: - Motor to Superior Oblique “Down and Out”
(This depresses, medially rotates and abducts eye)

CN 6: - Lateral Rectus {Abducts eye}
(This directs gaze laterally; looking lateral)

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33
Q

What are the Disorders of CN 3, 4, and 6?

A

CN 3: Loss of Pupillary reflex, Loss of constriction of the pupil in response to focusing near objects-no accomodation

CN 4: The patient will have a head tilt and chin tuck: the head will tilt away from affected eye (corrects extrosion), looking upward slightly (chin tuck) corrects hypertonia

CN 6: Left eye does not Abduct

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34
Q

With CN 3, 4, and 6, where are their nuclies located in the Brainstem?

A
  • CN 3 and 4 nuclei are located in the midbrain
  • CN 6 nucleus is in the Pons
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35
Q

What are the 3 division of CN 5 and where do they exit?
What is the function of CN 5?

A

3 division:
- Opthalmic (V1): Exits the inferior part of the Cavernous sinus to exit via Superior Orbital Fissure
- Maxillary (V2): Exits through Foramen Rotundum
- Mandibular (V3): Exits through Foramen Ovale

  • V1 and V2 are sensory Nerves to the face
  • V3 is a mixed nerve that does sensory to the face, Sensation to Anterior 2/3 of the tongue (Lingual) , as well as motor to the muscles of Mastication (small motor root)
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36
Q

What is a dysfuction of the Trigeminal Nerve (CN 5)?
With what population will you see this with?
What may cause this and what is the initial treatment?

A

This is referred to as Trigeminal Neuralgia, aka Tix Douloureux
- Recurrent episodes of brief severe pain last seconds to minutes (Most often involves V2 and V3 divisions)
- This is more commonly seen after the age of 35 and can be provoked by chewing, shaving, etc.
Sensation will be normal with this
- Causes are usually unknown, however can occur in MS patients, because of dymelination of CN 5 and the entry zone of the brainstem
- Initial treatment involves medication (Tegretol)

37
Q

What would happen if there is a lesion of the Trigeminal Nuclei of the Brainstem?

A

This would cause Ipsilateal loss of facial sensation to pain and temperature because the primary sensory fibers do not cross before entering the nucleus

38
Q

What is the Functions of CN 7?

Where is the Facial Nucleus found?

A
  • Control muscles of facial expressions (Somatic motor)
  • Lacrimation, salivation (Visceral Motor)
  • Taste of anterior 2/3 of tonge (Special sensory)
  • Skin over external auditory meatus (Sensory)

Facial nucleus located in Cuadal pons

39
Q

What are the Dysfunctions of CN 7?

A
  • Facial weakness: Consider both UMN and LMN
  • UMN to the face invovles the primary motor cortex as well as contol of the LMN contralateral to the face

Superior regions of the face are controlled by projections descending from the ipsilateral and contralateral motor cortex

- The UMN lesions tend to spare the forehead and cause only mild contralateral upper brow weakness, the inability to fully bury the the eyelashes on forced closure. Main issue is weakness in lower aspect of the face. If a pt had an UMN lesion, they might also have neighborhood affects, they may have hand/arm weakness, sensory loss, may be aphasic or have dysarthria (None of this would be present in LMN. - LMN has dual innervation to the top and bottom of the face; so there would be weakness in the top and bottom of the face.
40
Q

Facial Nerve Lesios

What is Bell’s Palsy? What are the clinical presentations, cause, and management?

A

Bell’s Palsy: Divisions of the CN 7 are impaired and then gradually recover
- Clinical Presentation: Unilateral LMN facial weakness, no affects of sensation
- Cause: Unknown; possible viral or inflammatory
- MRI: will yield normal results
- Medical Management: Oral steriods
~80% of pt. will have fully recovered within 3 weeks

This is the most common facial nerve disorder

During recovery, regenerating facial nerve fibers sometimes reach the wrong target:
- Synkinesis
- Crocodile Tear

41
Q

With Bell’s Palsy, what is a common compaint and what may they suffer from?

A

Patients often initally complain of some retroauricular pain

  • They may suffer from “dry eye”, resulting from decreased lacrimation with parasympathetic involvment
42
Q

What is Corneal Reflex?
What are the roles of the Afferent and Efferent Limbs?

A

This is a reflex elicited by gental stroke of each cornea with a cotton swab or by applying a drop of saline; the response is eye closure

  • The Afferent limb is conveyed by the Ophthalmic division to the chief sensory and spinal trigeminal nuclei
  • The Efferent limb is then carried by the Facial nerve to reach the orbicularis oculi muscles causing eye closure
43
Q

What is the Jaw Reflex?

A

This is elicited by tapping on the chin with the mouth slightly open; the jaw jerks forward in response.

  • The monosynaptic pathway for this reflex consist of primary sensory neurons in the mesencephalic trigeminal nucleus, which send axons to the pons to synapse in the motor trigeminal ncleus.
  • In Normal Individuals the Jaw Reflex is minimal or absent
44
Q

What is the Purpose of the CN 8?

A

Dual Purpose: Hearing and Vestibular Sense from the inner ear

45
Q

What is the Tensor Tympani innervated by?
What is the Stapedius innervated by?

A

Tensor Tympami: Trigeminal Nerve
Stapedius: Facial Nerve

46
Q

What are the structures of the Inner Ear?

A
  • Bony Labyrinth
  • Membranous Labyrinth, which contains:
    –Cochlea (Contains Organ of Corti)
    –Vestibule (Saccule and Utricle)
    –3 Semicircular Canals
47
Q

Cochlea anatomy

With the Cochlea, what is Tonotopic Representation?

A
  • Higher frequencies activate hair cells near oval window
  • Lower frequencies activate hair cells near apex of cochlea
48
Q

Cochlea anatomy

What does the Central Duct contain?

A

It contains the Organ of Corti: the Receptor organ for hearing

49
Q

Cochlea anatomy

With our central pathways for hearing there are lots of collaterals. Where do these collaterals go?

A
  • Lots of the collaterals cross to the other side (contralateral), some go to the Reticular Activating system, which projects to the cortex and some go to the spinal cord. This is the response to very loud sounds. These collaterals are also sent to the cerebellum in response to sudden noise.

There are also projections from the Inferior Colliculus to the Superior Colliculus to synapse with Tectospinal tract to mediate audiovisual reflex

50
Q

Cochlea anatomy

What happens if there is damage to the Primary Auditory Cotex?

A

This reduces the sensitivity of our hearing

51
Q

Cochlea anatomy

What happens if there was damage to one side of the Primary Auditory Cortex?

A

This has very little effect on our hearing, because of the significant amount of collateral/crossover connections from the Central Pathways

52
Q

Cochlea anatomy

With hearing, what happens if there is damage to the Association Auditory Cortex (Wernicke’s)?

A

This does not affect hearing

  • However it does affect the interpretation and meaning of sound that is being heard. Auditory comprehension is impaired.
53
Q

Vestibular Anatomy

Where would you find the vestibular anatomy?

What supplies this?

A

The inner ear

Consist of the Peripheral Sensory Apparatus, Membranous/Bony Labyrith, and Hair cells

Supplied by the Labyrinthine Artery, a branch of AICA (sometimes off of basilar)

54
Q

Vestibular Anatomy

What is the function of the Semicircular Canals?

A

They are our Dynamic Receptors; They respond to angular and/or rotational movement of our head and space

55
Q

In the Membranous labrinth, what do the Urticles and Saccules do?

A

They are our Static receptors

  • The Utricle signals the position of the head in space in response to gravity in the horizontal plane. (ex. when riding in a car)
  • The Saccule response to gravity in the vertical plane (ex. riding in a elevator)
56
Q

Vestibular Anatomy

What is inside both the Urticles and Saccules?

A

It has a primary sensory structure called the Macula. Embedded in the Macula are also hair cells

There are many more Macula in the Otolithic organs as compared to the Cupula and the Crista Ampullaris in the semicircular canals.
- Therefore, the otoliths are much more sensitive to the pull of gravity

57
Q

Vestibular Anatomy

What do Hair Cells do?
Depolarizaton vs Hyperpolarizaton

A

Hair cells are sensors that convert displacement of head movement into neural firing fluid. These are found in the Ampulla of each semicircular canal and in the otoliths
- Depolarization is when the sterocilia is bent Towards kinocilia
- Hyperpolarization is when the sterocilia is bent away from kinocilia

58
Q

Vestibular Anatomy

When referrencing the Ampulla of the Semicircular canal, what happens if the persons head were to rotate to the left?

A

The inertia of the endolymphatic fluid generates a force across the cupula (shifts to the right)
- The displacement induces either depolarization or hyperpolarization of the hair cells
- While displacement of the capula in the “normal” direction results in excitation of the hair cell, while displacement of the cupula in the reverse direction results in inhibition of the hair cell

The Patterns of excitation/inhibition of the hair cell are processed by our central pathways and are interpreted by neurons in the cerebellar an cerebral cortices for our sense of balance and equilibriun

59
Q

Vestibular Anatomy

What is the role of the Cerebellum, relating to vestibular function?

A

It monitors vestibular performance (keeps everything in check)

The Cerebellum has direct afferent signals
- The cerebellum keeps everything in check by projecting back onto the vestibular nuclei with an inhibatory or dampening response
- The input goes to the Vermis and Flocculus

60
Q

Vestibular Anatomy

What would happen if there is a problem with the Cerebellum?

What would happen if there was a lesion to the Vermis or the Flocculus?

A

The vestibular reflexes are going to be inefficient and ineffective

  • If there is a lesion to the Vermis they will have gait ataxia and trunk instability
  • If there is a lesion of the flocculus they will have issues with the gain of their VOR, further defined as the ration of eye movement to head movement
61
Q

Vestibular Anatomy: Mechanisms for Motor Output

What is the purpose of VOR?

A

To keep vision while the head is being moved

62
Q

Vestibular Anatomy: Mechanisms for Motor Output

What is the purpose of VSR?

A

To keep the head and body stabilized

63
Q

What is Unilateral hearing loss caused by?

A

Disorders of external auditory canal, middle ear, cochlea, CN 8, or cochlear nuclei

64
Q

What is Conductive Hearing loss?
What causes this?

A

This is abnormalities of external auditory canal or middle ear

  • Causes include Otitis, Tympanic Membrane perforation

Typically the patient is not going to have the clinical presentation of unilateral hearing loss because the patient has all of that collateral communication that crosses over.

65
Q

What is Sensorineaural Hearing loss?
What causes this?

A

This is a disorder of the cochlea or CN 8

  • Caused by exposure to loud sounds, Menier’s disease or tumor

Ménière’s disease is a disorder of the inner ear that causes severe dizziness (vertigo), ringing in the ears (tinnitus), hearing loss, and a feeling of fullness or congestion in the ear.

66
Q

What is Rinne Test?

A

Air conduction is compared to bone conduction
for each ear
.
We measure air conduction by holding a vibrating tuning fork just outside each ear, and bone conduction by placing a tuning fork handle on each mastoid process.
Normal individuals hear the tone better by air conduction.

67
Q

With the Rinne Test, if there is conduction hearing loss what would be greater bone or air conduction?

A

In conductive hearing loss, bone conduction is greater than air conduction because bone conduction bypasses problems in the external or middle ear.

68
Q

With the Rinne Test, if there is sensorineural hearing loss what would be greater bone or air conduction?

A

In sensorineural hearing loss, air conduction is greater than bone conduction in both ears (as in normal hearing); however, hearing is decreased in the affected ear

69
Q

What is Weber Test?

A

In the Weber test the tuning fork is placed on the vertex of the skull in the midline, and the patient is asked to report the side where the tone sounds louder. Normally, the tone sounds equal on both sides.

  • In sensorineural hearing loss, the tone is quieter on the affected side.
  • In conductive hearing loss, the tone is louder on the affected side,
70
Q

What is the Difference between Dizziness and Vertigo?
- What can a true diagnosis of vertigo involve?

A

Dizziness is a very broad term that can be caused by many different things.

Vertigo is more of a vestibular pathology. With this, there can be lesions anywhere along the vestibular pathway
- A true diagnosis of vertigo can involve a lesion in the labyrinth, Vestibular nerve, vestibular nuclei, our cerebellum, and even the parietal cortex

71
Q

What is the role of the clinician when it comes to vertigo?

A

To differentially diagnosis whether its a central or peripheral vestibular pathology.
- Peripheral pathologies involve the inner ear and it relates a lot to a deficit in the peripheral sensory apparatus
- Central pathologies usually indicative of some type of brain stem or cerebellum problem

72
Q

Additional Pheripheral Vestibular Diagnoses

What is Vestibular Neuritis? What may this cause?

A

Inflammation of vestibular ganglion or nerve

  • The patient is going to have intense vertigo for days, and loss of postural control for weeks to months, hearing is intact. At onset they are most likely going to be in bed
73
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Vestibular Labyrinthitis?

A

The clinical presentation is similar to Vestibular Neuritis, the only difference is the presence of hearing loss

74
Q

What is Meniere’s Disese?
What do they present as?

A

This is excess fluid and pressure in endolymphatic system

  • These present as “Meniere’s Attacks”, these are recurrent episodes of vertigo accompanied by fluctuating loss and tinnitus (ringing of the ear)
75
Q

What is Acoustic Neuroma?

A

Often referred as Vestibular Schwannoma

  • This is the slowest growing tumor in our body; this often occurs unilaterally
  • These patients will have hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo and LOB

Since this tumor is slow growing, the patients will have annual MRIs to continue to estimate the size.
- Surgery isn’t generally indicated until the tumor is large enough and causing issues related to loss of postural control

76
Q

What is the function of Glossopharyngeal?

A
  • Taste and senation of Posterior 1/3 of tongue (Special Sensory)
  • Supplies the stylopharyngeus muscle
  • Conveys input from baroreceptors and chemoreceptors in carotid body

Addition functions include:
- Salivation, carotid body reflexes

77
Q

What would happen if there was a lesion/disorder with Glossopharyngeal?

A

Decreased gag reflex and swallowing reflex

78
Q

Where does Glossopharyngeal exit the brainstem and the skull?

A
  • Exits the brainstem along the upper ventrolateral medulla between inferior olive and inferior cerebellar peduncle
  • This nerve runs transverse the subarachnoid space and exits the skull via Jugular Foramen
79
Q

What is the function of Vagus Nerve?

A

Vagus has the largest parasympathetic innervation to our organs
- Parasymp. fibers to heart, lungs, and digestive tract
- Motor fibers innervate pharyngeal and laryngeal muscles
- Sensation for the meninges, pharynx and external auditory meatus

80
Q

What would happen if there was a lesion/disorder with Vagus Nerve?

A
  • There would be difficulty swallowing and speaking, poor digestive due to decreased digestive enzyme and peristalsis movement
81
Q

What is the function of Spinal Accessory Nerve?

A
  • Innervates the SCM and Traps.
82
Q

What would happen if a patient were to have a LMN lesion to the Spinal Accessory Nerve?

A

This would cause Ipsilateral weakness of the traps and it will not allow the patient to turn their head away from the side of the lesion

83
Q

What is the function of the Hypoglossal Nerve?

A

Tongue movement

Except Palatoglossus, this is innervated by CN 10

84
Q

What would happen if there was an UMN lesion to Hypoglossal Nerve?

A

There would be contralateral weakness of the tongue

85
Q

What would happen if there was a lesion on the Hypoglossal nucleus or below (LMN pathology)?

A

There would be Ipsilateral weakness of the tongue

86
Q

What is the difference between Dysarthria and Dysphagia?

A

Dysarthria is abnormal articulation of speech

Dysphagia is impaired swallowing

87
Q

What are common causes of Dysarthria?

A

Infarct, MS, BS lesions, lesions of cerebellar and BG pathways

88
Q

What are common causes of Dysphagia?

What are Red Flags for this?

A

Neoplasms, esophageal strictures, neural components

Red flags for PT/OT are aspiration pneumonia

This often occurs along Dysarthria