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Year 1- Principles of Disease (FOM) > Clinically Relevant Gram Negatives > Flashcards

Clinically Relevant Gram Negatives Flashcards

1
Q

What is meant by strict aerobes?

A

Will not grow unless their is oxygen.

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2
Q

What is meant by microaerophilic bacteria?

A

Only require small amounts of oxygen to grow.

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3
Q

What is meant if a type of bacteria is strict anaerobic?

A

Cannot grow in oxygen at all.
Can be toxic.

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4
Q

Give an example of a strict aerobic gram negative bacteria.

A

Legionella sp.

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5
Q

Give an example of a gram negative cocci.

A

Neisseria

->either Neisseria gonorrhoea or Neisseria meningitis).

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6
Q

Name th large group of bacilli gram negative bacteria.

A

Coliforms

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7
Q

What are the two subdivisions of coliforms in the gut.

A

Gut pathogens
Gut commensals.

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8
Q

Name some bacteria found in the gut which colonise.

A

E.coli
Klebsiella

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9
Q

Name some bacteria found in the gut which can be disease causing pathogens.

A

Salmonella
Shigella

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10
Q

Describe the structure of the two types of microaerophilic bacilli.

A

-Small curved bacilli, such as campylobacter sp
-Spiral bacilli such as Helicobacter sp

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11
Q

Is they type of bacteria which is strict anaerobic cocci or bacilli?

A

Bacilli.

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12
Q

What are the two major genus’ of gram negative cocci?

A

Neisseria sp
Moraxella catarrhalis

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13
Q

What can Neisseria sp gram negative bacteria lead to?

A

Meningitis.

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14
Q

What is meningitis?

A

Inflammation of the meninges and often get associated septicaemia (blood poisoning).
Life threatening disease.

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15
Q

What would be important when trying to diagnose meningitis?

A

Blood cultures and CSF.

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16
Q

What does Neisseria gonorrhoeae cause?

A

Gonorrhoea.

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17
Q

What can occur in men with Gonorrhoea and women with Gonorrhoea?

A

Causes urethritis in men and pelvic inflammatory disease in
women

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18
Q

How is Gonorrhoea spread?

A

Sexual transmission.

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19
Q

Give an example of a gram negative coccus which is a causative agent of respiratory tract infections

A

Moraxella catarrhalis.

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20
Q

Moraxella catarrhalis is particularly prevalent in individuals with?/

A

Underlying lung pathology.

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21
Q

Define coliforms.

A

–Organisms which are in the family Enterobacteriaceae.
They colonise the gut.
Beneficial but can cause disease.

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22
Q

Name some of the virulence mechanisms of E.Coli.

A

Pili, capsule, endotoxin and exotoxins.

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23
Q

What can E.Coli. ferment?

A

Lactose.

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24
Q

What can E.coli cause?

A

UTI

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25
Q

What is Enterotoxogenic E.coli?

A

One of the most common bacterial causes of diahorrea.

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26
Q

Antibiotics can sometime make E.Coli worse…why?

A

Stimulates more toxin production.

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27
Q

What can Enterohaemorrhagic E.coli give rise to?

A

Bloody diahorrea.

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28
Q

How is Salmonella distinct from E.Coli?

A

Does not ferment lactose.

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29
Q

What is Salmonella Typhi the cause of?

A

Typhoid fever.

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30
Q

What are some symptoms of typhoid fever?

A

Fever and constipation in the early stages.

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31
Q

How can Salmonella Typhi be diagnosed in a lab?

A

Using blood cultures and faeces specimens.

32
Q

What does the coliform Shigella spp cause?

A

Cause of diarrhoea, dysentery – in UK usually travel related.

33
Q

What does the coliform Klebsiella spp cause?

A

– Cause of UTI and hospital acquired pneumonia.

34
Q

What does the coliform Proteus spp cause?

A

– Causes UTI – often associated with stones.

35
Q

What is the source of the Curved Gram Negative bacilli, Campylobacter spp?

A

Chickens and other domestic animals.

36
Q

How is Curved Gram Negative bacilli, like Campylobacter, spp.
spread?

A

Spread via faecal-oral route

37
Q

What is the most common cause of bacterial diahorrea in the UK?

A

Campylobacter spp.

38
Q

Name one common type of Curved Gram Negative bacilli.

A

Campylobacter spp.

39
Q

Describe Helicobacter pylori

A
  1. Curved rods.
  2. Natural habitat is human stomach.
    3.Damages mucosa and causes ulcers.
    4.Strong risk factor for gastric adenocarcinoma
40
Q

Give an example of a gram negative bacteria which is Cocco-bacilli.

A

Haemophilus influenzae

41
Q

What does Haemophilus influenzae cause?

A

Respiratory Tract Infection.

42
Q

Where can the gram negative bacillus Pseudomonas spp colonise?

A

Sinks, mops, drains as is a water and soil coloniser.

43
Q

What is a danger of Pseudomonas spp?

A

May contaminate medical equipment.

44
Q

What is Pseudomonas spp responsible for?

A

Hospital acquired infections such as UTI, septicaemia, bacteraemia.

45
Q

Pseudomonas spp is particularly feared in individuals with what condition?

A

Cystic Fibrosis.

46
Q

What are gram negative anaerobes usually a part of?

A

Polymicrobial infection.

47
Q

Name some gram negative anaerobes.

A
  • Bacteriodes spp.
  • Prevotella
  • Porphyromonas
48
Q

What is Bacteroides fragilis and what does it cause?

A
  • Part of normal colonic flora.
  • Causes intra-abdominal abscess.
  • May spread to other sites.
49
Q

Name one of many oral anaerobes.

A

Prevotella

50
Q

What are Miscellaneous bacteria?

A

Bacteria which aren’t stained gram positive or gram negative.

51
Q

Why will some bacteria cells not be stained by Gram’s stain?

A

Gram’s stain targets the cell wall and some cells have a different composition.

52
Q

Give three examples of bacteria that do not get stained by Gram’s stain.

A

– Mycobacterium spp.
– Spirochaetes.
– Chlamydia / Chlamydophila.

53
Q

Name a group of bacilli which do not get stained by Gram’s stain.

A

Acid and alcohol fast bacilli.

54
Q

Which type of staining can you use to stain acid and alcohol fast bacilli, like mycobacteria?

A

Ziehl-Neelsen (ZN) or Auramine

55
Q

What disease can be found using Ziehl-Neelsen (ZN) or Auramine?

A

TB

56
Q

How quickly does mycobacteria grow?

A

Very slowly.
->2-4 weeks

57
Q

What disease does TB often occur alongside?

A

HIV

58
Q

Describe Spirochaetes

A

Miscellaneous bacteria (not included in any other pathogenic groups, are not commonly isolated but may cause disease).
Long, spiral-shaped bacteria.
* Not easily visualised by light microscopy.
* Very difficult to culture

59
Q

What techniques can be used to see Spirochaetes?

A

Dark ground microscopy or immunofluorescence.

60
Q

Name two diseases caused by Spirochaetes.

A

Lymes disease or Syphillus.

61
Q

How many stages of syphillus are there?

A

Four-
primary, secondary, latent and tertiary.

62
Q

Describe the primary stage symptoms of syphillus.

A

Non-painful skin lesion (chancre) at the site of infection (skin or mucous membranes)

63
Q

Describe the secondary symptoms of syphillus.

A

generalised systemic illness and rash
(6-8 weeks after primary symptoms):

64
Q

Describe the latent phase symptoms of syphills.

A

Symptomatic episodes may occur

65
Q

Describe the tertiary stage symptoms of sypillus. (usually a few years after the onset).

A

Danger with central .nervous system

66
Q

What is Lyme’s disease transmitted by?

A

Ticks

67
Q

Describe the three stages of Lyme’s disease.

A

Stage 1: Skin rash (erythema chronicum migrans) appears at the site of
the tick bite.
* Stage 2: Systemic illness occurs in some patients
weeks or months later when patients suffer cardiac
or neurological and musculoskeletal symptoms
* Stage 3: Chronic disease, occurring years later when patients present with
chronic skin, nervous system or joint abnormalities

68
Q

How can Lyme’s disease be diagnosed?

A

Diagnosed by clinical assessment and serology (antibody detection).

69
Q

What does Leptospirosis do?

A

Infects animals and concentrates in the kidneys.

70
Q

How is Leptospirosis transmitted?

A

Spread is via infected urine and other body fluids and
tissues (zoonosis).

71
Q

Name twi groups hat are most at risk of developing Leptospirosis.

A

Sewage workers.
Those who take part in watersprots.

72
Q

Name twi groups hat are most at risk of developing Leptospirosis.

A

Sewage workers.
Those who take part in watersports..

73
Q

Describe the symptoms of Weil’s disease, a type of leptospirosis which is caused by the infected urine of rats.

A

Febrile illness (showing symptoms of a fever) with systemic upset, liver
and renal failure, aseptic meningitis, 10 % mortality.

74
Q

How do you diagnose chlamidya?

A

nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) on first void urine or
vulval/vaginal swabs.

75
Q

What can chlamydia lead to?

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease and infertility in women.

76
Q

What is the most common STi in the UK?

A

Chlamidya

Year 1- Principles of Disease (FOM) (40 decks)

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