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Buzzwords Flashcards

1
Q

which enzyme builds up in porphyria cutanea tarda?

A

uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase

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2
Q

which porphyria is associated with a child with tingling/burning skin in direct sunlight?

A

erythropoietic protoporphyria

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3
Q

what is the first line treatment for acne vulgaris?

A

benzoyl peroxide

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4
Q

what is the first line treatment for acne rosacea?

A

topical metronidazole

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5
Q

which enzyme builds up in acute intermittent porphyria?

A

PBG deaminase

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6
Q

what skin condition has a stuck on appearance and looks like a brain?

A

basal cell papilloma

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7
Q

what skin condition is associated with coeliac disease?

A

dermatitis herpetiformis

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8
Q

what condition causes ash leaf spots, epilepsy and peringum slceroma?

A

tuberous sclerosis

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9
Q

what condition causes honey-coloured crusting?

A

impetigo

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10
Q

what condition causes small, umbilicated, translucent papules that look fluid filled but are solid?

A

molluscum contagiosum

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11
Q

what condition causes a heliotrope rash?

A

dermatomyositis

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12
Q

what condition causes target lesions?

A

erythema multiforme

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13
Q

what condition is acanthosis nigricans associated with?

A

addison’s disease

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14
Q

what is the most common bone tumour?

A

osteosarcoma

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15
Q

a painful arc suggests damage to which rotator cuff muscle?

A

supraspinatus

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16
Q

what nerve supplies the trapezius?

A

spinal accessory nerve

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17
Q

what is used to treat shaft of femur fractures?

A

thomas splint

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18
Q

which biologic causes reactivation of latent TB?

A

infliximab

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19
Q

what does tingling in the ring and pinky fingers suggest?

A

cubital tunnel syndrome

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20
Q

what is the first line treatment for necrotising fasciitis?

A

surgical debridement

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21
Q

which rheumatoid drug causes black, tarry stool?

A

NSAIDs

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22
Q

which rheumatoid drugs are nephrotoxic?

A

gold

penicillamine

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23
Q

visual loss, oral and genital ulcers suggest which disease?

A

behcet’s syndrome

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24
Q

which fracture typically produces a dinner fork deformity?

A

colles fracture

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25
Q

which structures may be damaged in a colles fracture?

A

median nerve
extensor pollicis longus
carpal bones

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26
Q

which fingers feel funny in carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

thumb
index finger
middle finger
half of the ring finger

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27
Q

how many x-ray views are taken for a scaphoid fracture?

A

two obliques
AP
lateral

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28
Q

a patient presents with bone pain, deformity and deafness, what is the likely differential?

A

paget’s disease

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29
Q

name three side effects of methotrexate

A

bone marrow suppression
liver cirrhosis
pneumonitis

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30
Q

when is methotrexate contrainidcated?

A

pregnancy

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31
Q

name two side effects of sulfalazine

A

rash

oligospermia

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32
Q

name two side effects of hydroxychloroquine

A

retinopathy

corneal deposits

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33
Q

name four side effects of prednisolone

A

cushing’ syndrome
osteoporosis
impaired glucose tolerance
cataracts

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34
Q

name two side effects of gold and penicillamine

A

proteinuria

nephropathy

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35
Q

what disease produces a pencil in cup appearance on x-ray?

A

psoriatic arthritis

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36
Q

what disease causes wrist drop?

A

radial nerve palsy

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37
Q

what syndrome classically causes arthritis, uveitis and urethritis?

A

reiter’s syndrome

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38
Q

damage to which nerve causes foot drop?

A

common fibular nerve

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39
Q

what is another name for the common fibular nerve?

A

peroneal nerve

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40
Q

how is an intracapsular hip fracture managed?

A

hemiarthroplasty

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41
Q

what does a sagging rope sign suggest?

A

AVN

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42
Q

what does an onion-peel sign suggest?

A

ewing’s sarcoma

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43
Q

what does sunray spiculation on x-ray suggest?

A

osteosarcoma

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44
Q

what does popcorn calcification on x-ray suggest?

A

chondrosarcoma

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45
Q

what does a soap bubble appearance on x-ray suggest?

A

giant cell tumour

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46
Q

what does a rosary bead sign suggest?

A

polyarteritis nodosa

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47
Q

what does a shepherd’s crook deformity suggest?

A

fibrous dysplasia

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48
Q

how do you treat endometrial polyps?

A

myomectomy

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49
Q

which insulin do you give once a day?

A

basal (long acting)

i.e. Lantus

50
Q

which diabetic drug is weight neutral?

A

DPP-IV inhibitor

e.g. sitagliptin

51
Q

what does strawberry milkshake blood suggest?

A

hyperlipidaemia

52
Q

describe the calcium, phosphate and ALP levels in paget’s disease

A

calcium normal
phosphate normal
ALP high

53
Q

which hormone forms the basis of pregnancy tests?

54
Q

which hormone tests for fertility?

A

progesterone

55
Q

describe the calcium, phosphate and ALP levels in osteomalacia

A

calcium low
phosphate low
ALP high

56
Q

where is the site of spermatogenesis?

A

seminiferous tubules

57
Q

which cells, acted on by LH, secrete testosterone?

A

leydig cells

58
Q

which cells, acted on by FSH, enhance spermatogensis?

A

sertoli cells

59
Q

what disease causes catecholamines in urine, headaches and hypertension?

A

pheochromocytoma

60
Q

what causes moon face?

A

cushing’s disease

61
Q

what causes orphan annie nuclei?

A

papillary thyroid cancer

62
Q

what causes psammoma bodies?

A

papillary thyroid cancer

63
Q

what causes anosmia and GnRH deficiency?

A

kallman’s syndrome

64
Q

at what age should a child have a social smile?

65
Q

at what age can a child build a tower of three bricks and enjoy picture books?

A

eighteen months

66
Q

which artery provides oxygenated blood in the foetus?

A

placental vein

67
Q

what is a recent vaccine introduced in children?

68
Q

what chromosome is affected in edward’s syndrome?

69
Q

what chromosome is affected in patau syndrome?

70
Q

what chromosome is affected in down syndrome?

A

twenty one

71
Q

what does the ADHD triad consist of?

A

hyperactivity
impulsivity
inattention

72
Q

what does the autism triad consist of?

A

communication
behaviour
language

73
Q

what happens as a result of compression of CN VII in the facial canal?

A

bell’s palsy

74
Q

which syndrome is due to reactivation of VZV in the geniculate ganglion of CN VII?

A

ramsay hunt syndrome

75
Q

list the factors that make up the centor criteria

A

no cough
fever
cervical lymphadenopathy
tonsillar exudate

76
Q

what does fluid level behind the ear drum/retracted drum suggest?

A

otitis media with effusion

77
Q

what does difficulty at school and hearing loss suggest?

78
Q

what does a feeling of fullness in the ear suggest?

A

meniere’s disease

79
Q

what does a loss of corneal reflex with sensorineural hearing loss suggest?

A

vestibular schwannoma

80
Q

what does bilateral vestibular schwannoma in a child suggest?

A

neurofibromatosis type II

81
Q

what does cheesy ear discharge suggest?

A

cholesteatoma

82
Q

what does saddle nose suggest?

A

wegener’s granulomatosis

83
Q

what motor neuron disease is associated with optic neuritis?

A

multiple sclerosis

84
Q

what does LR6 mean?

A

lateral rectus is supplied by CN VI

85
Q

what does SO4 mean?

A

superior oblique is supplied by CN IV

86
Q

what does AO3 mean?

A

recti, levator palpebrae superioris and sphincter pupillae are all supplied by CN III

87
Q

what does a cherry red spot on the macula suggest?

A

central retinal artery occlusion

88
Q

what does a teardrop sign suggest?

A

blow out fracture

89
Q

what does failure to adduct in the affected eye and nystagmus in the abducting eye suggest?

A

internuclear ophthalmoplegia

an issue with medial longitudinal fasiculus

90
Q

what does “curtain coming down” suggest?

A

amaurosis fugax

91
Q

what does “curtain coming down” longer than five minutes suggest?

A

retinal detachment

92
Q

what do flashes and floaters suggest?

A

retinal detachment

93
Q

what do gritty eyes suggest?

A

bacterial conjunctivitis

94
Q

what do watery eyes and enlarged preauricular lymph nodes suggest?

A

viral conjunctivitis

95
Q

what does a loss of red reflex and a red eye suggest?

A

haemorrhage

96
Q

what does neovascularization and haemorrhage suggest?

97
Q

what causes follicular conjunctivitis?

98
Q

what causes pinpoint pupils?

A

opiate overdose

99
Q

what causes “down and out” eyes?

A

CN III palsy

100
Q

what causes roth spots?

A

infective endocarditis

101
Q

what causes brushfield spots?

A

down’s syndrome

102
Q

what dauses drusen?

103
Q

what is the first line treatment fo BPH?

A

alpha blockers

i.e. tamsulosin

104
Q

what is the first line investigation for hydrocele?

A

doppler USS with colour

105
Q

which glomerulonephritis is associated with henoch-schonlien purpura?

A

IgA nephropathy

106
Q

true or false: membranous nephropathy causes malignancy

107
Q

what is the official name for viagra?

A

sildenafil

108
Q

where does the bulbourethral gland lie?

A

posterior to the membranous urethra

109
Q

splitting of which structure would prevent seminal fluid from entering the urethra?

A

bladder sphincter

110
Q

what covers the testes?

A

tunica vaginalis

111
Q

true or false: peritoneal dialysis causes weight gain

112
Q

which vessel gives rise to the gonadal arteries?

A

abdominal aorta

113
Q

which vessel gives rise to the right gonadal vein?

114
Q

which vessel gives rise to the left gonadal vein?

A

left renal vein

115
Q

what causes cannonball metastasis?

A

renal cell carcinoma that metastasises to the lungs

116
Q

what causes a “sea anemone” sign?

A

transitional cell carcinoma

117
Q

what organism causes foul smelling urine?

A

proteus sp.

118
Q

what causes muddy brown casts?

A

acute tubular necrosis

119
Q

what causes a “potato tumour”?

A

testicular seminoma

120
Q

what causes a blue dot sign?

A

hydatid of morgagni

121
Q

what causes an apple-green birefringence congo red stain?

A

amyloidosis

Y2 Revision (95 decks)

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