Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Microbiology > Antibiotic Resistance and Viral and Bacterial Disease > Flashcards

Antibiotic Resistance and Viral and Bacterial Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Mechanism of drug resistance: alteration of what?

A

Antibiotic target (antibiotic can’t recognize new target)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Mechanism of drug resistance: binding what?

A

Binding to antibiotic inhibits it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Mechanism of drug resistance: what enzyme?

A

Antibiotic altering enzyme renders antibiotic useless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Mechanism of drug resistance: what pump?

A

Efflux pump transports antibiotic out of cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

R plasmids encode what mechanisms? How transferred from one bacterium to another?

A

Antibiotic resistance mechanisms

Transferred by transformation and conjugation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

2 examples of superbugs

A

Vancomycin resistant Enterococcus

Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Vancomycin resistant Enterococcus: mechanism of resistance

A

Gene vanA encodes enzyme that replaces D-Ala with D-Lactate, which is not recognized by vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus: mechanism of resistance

A

Gene mecA encodes penicillin binding protein that is resistant to penicillin, enabling transpeptidation reaction to occur in presence of antibiotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Do antibiotics mutate microbes? If not, how do microbes become antibiotic resistant?

A

Antibiotics don’t mutate microbes, but create environments that select for antibiotic-resistant mutants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

5 mechanisms of overcoming antibiotic resistance

A 
Use drugs only when necessary
Take prescribed course
Don't use to treat viral infections
Give drug in high concentrations
Give 2 or more drugs at same time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

2 examples of 2 drugs given at same time

A

Penicillin and streptomycin

Augmentin (penicillin and clavulanic acid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Clavulanic acid inhibits production of what?

A

Penicillinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

4 ways science may use to combat antibiotic resistance

A 
New antibiotics produced by new microbes
New targets (type III secretion, quorum sensing, 2 component signalling)
New vaccines (cholera, malaria, HIV)
New approaches (phage therapy)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Listex

A

Listeria monocytogenes phage sprayed on meat, cheese, and produce

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

5 viral diseases spread by airborne route (coughing, sneezing, vocalizing)

A

Chickenpox
Influenza
Measles, mumps, rubella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

4 arthropod-borne viral diseases

A

Yellow fever
West Nile fever
Dengue fever
Zika virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

5 viral diseases spread by direct contact

A 
Common cold
Mononucleosis
Warts
AIDS
Ebola
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

2 food and water-borne viral diseases

A

Gastroenteritis

Polio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Zoonotic viral disease example

A

Rabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Chickenpox is caused by what virus from what family?

A

Varicella-zoster

Herpesviridae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

3 main features of chickenpox virus

A

Icosahedral capsids
Envelope
DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How does chickenpox enter body (2 routes)? How does it spread through body (2 routes)?

A

Enters via inhalation or conjunctiva of eye

Spreads via blood and neuronal systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

After ___ days of infection, a person with chickenpox develops ____ ____.

A 
10 
Vesicular rashes (due to infection of skin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Drug used to treat chickenpox: name and mechanism of action

A

Acyclovir

Targets DNA polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Inactivated or killed vaccine: how prepared, what branch of adaptive immunity evoked, one drawback
Chemicals or heat used to inactivate virus Humoral immunity Requires booster
26
2 examples of inactivated vaccines
Influenza, rabies
27
Attenuated (live but avirulent) vaccine: how prepared, can virus reproduce, what branch(es) of adaptive immunity evoked, one drawback
Inactivation of specific genes used to attenuate Virus is weakened, but can reproduce Humoral and cell-mediated immunity May revert to virulence
28
3 examples of attenuated vaccines
Chickenpox, MMR, intranasal influenza
29
Herd immunity
Protection of unvaccinated people in a population where most people are vaccinated due to lessened risk of disease transmission
30
Percentage of population immunized necessary to achieve herd immunization: what depends on, highly contagious diseases such as pertussis and measles require what percent
Depends on pathogen | 80-90% for measles and pertussis
31
Are individuals who recover from chicken pox resistant to further infection by the virus?
Yes
32
Shingles: mechanism of action
``` Viral DNA from chickenpox infection resides in latent state in nuclei of nerves and sensory neurons Immunocompromised state (age, organ transplant, AIDS, stress, etc.) can reactivate virus in dorsal root ganglion, which travels down sensory nerve, leading to shingles ```
33
Influenza has a ____ _____ genome.
Segmented RNA
34
Replication cycle of influenza (4 steps)
Attachment via hemagglutinin Entry via endocytosis Viral RNA replicase replicates genome Release via budding through neuraminidase
35
Change in antigenicity in influenza virus: 2 mechanisms
``` Antigenic drift (minor changes in antigenicity) Antigenic shift (major changes in antigenicity) ```
36
Antigenic drift in influenza virus: what it is and how it's produced
Mutations in viral genes in a single strain | Produced by errors in error-prone viral RNA replicase
37
Antigenic shift in influenza virus: what it is and how it's produced
Different strains (animal or human) infect that same cells The cells' genomes reassort, giving rise to a new strain New strain may spread to humans who may have no immunity
38
Epidemic vs pandemic: main difference, caused by antigenic shift or antigenic drift
Epidemics (increase in disease) are more localized than pandemics (increase in disease worldwide) Antigenic drift: epidemic Antigenic shift: pandemic
39
Measles, mumps, and rubella: what type of viruses, what type of vaccine
RNA viruses | Attenuated (live) vaccine
40
Symptom of mumps
Salivary gland swelling
41
Of measles, mumps, and rubella, which is most contagious? What are 3 complications that can occur from this virus?
Measles is most contagious | Complications include pneumonia, brain defects, and death
42
Arboviruses
Viruses spread by insects
43
All 4 arthropod-borne viral diseases mentioned are caused by members of what family?
Flaviviridae
44
Flaviviridae viruses: enveloped or non-enveloped, shape of capsid, nucleic acid type, vector
Enveloped Icosahedral RNA Mosquito vector
45
Year and place of Zika virus discovery
1947, Zika forest in Uganda
46
Symptoms of Zika virus (4)
Fever Rash Joint pain Red eyes
47
Do most people infected with Zika virus show symptoms?
No
48
Infection with Zika virus during pregnancy can lead to what specific, amongst others, birth defect?
Microcephaly
49
4 possible routes of Zika virus transmission
Mosquito Sexual Pregnant woman to fetus Blood transfusion (strong possibility)
50
Common cold: name of virus that causes it, type of nucleic acid, enveloped or non-enveloped, capsid shape
Rhinovirus | RNA, naked (non-enveloped), icosahedral
51
Common cold has over ___ different serotypes. What is a serotype?
100 | Serotype: antigenic type
52
Mononucleosis is caused by the ___-___ virus of the family ____.
Epstein-Barr | Herpesviridae
53
How is mononucleosis transmitted? It initially enters and replicates in what cells before infecting what other kind of cells? What happens to the virus then?
Transmitted via saliva Epithelial cells B cells Becomes latent
54
Enlarged ___ cells called ___ cells respond to infected B cells in mononucleosis.
T | Downey
55
What type of cancer can be caused by the Epstein-Barr virus? Where is this cancer primarily seen and in what type of patients?
Burkitt's (B cell) lymphoma | Primarily in Africa in children with malaria
56
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is what type of virus? What nucleic acid genome, enveloped or non-enveloped, capsid shape?
Retrovirus Enveloped RNA genome Partly icosahedral with a cone-shaped core
57
In HIV, ___ spike protein binds to ____ and co-receptor ___ of host T cells.
gp120 CD4 CCR5
58
HIV life cycle (4 steps)
1. After attachment, reverse transcriptase uses RNA genome of virus to make DNA 2. Integrase integrates viral DNA into host genome 3. Protease processes viral peptides into protein, which are assembled to make complete virion 4. Virus is released by budding
59
HAART targets which 3 HIV enzymes?
Reverse transcriptase Integrase Protease
60
HIV transmission: 3 bodily fluids that can spread, 3 methods of bodily fluid intake
Bodily fluids: blood, semen, vaginal secretions | Intake: sex, transfusion, needle sharing
61
HIV pathogenesis: depletion of what 3 immune cells
T cells Macrophages Dendritic cells
62
HIV pathogenesis: 2 challenges in treating HIV
Viruses mutates rapidly, evading immune system | Memory T cells become latently infected
63
CDC definition of Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS)
HIV infected individual with <200 CD4+ T cells/microliter of blood
64
HAART HIV/AIDS treatment: 2 aims in reducing viral load
Increasing T cell count | Treating opportunistic infections and malignancies
65
Kaposi's sarcoma is due to activated ____ in HIV patients.
Herpesvirus
66
Ebola virus: shape of virus, enveloped or non-enveloped, nucleic acid
Filamentous Enveloped RNA
67
Ebola virus is caused by members of the family _____.
Filoviridae
68
Viral ebola proteins block ___ and ___ ___.
Interferon | Clot blood
69
Transmission of ebola: 2 methods
Direct contact with blood or bodily fluids of infected symptomatic person Zoonotic: primates or fruit bats
70
2 major viral causes of gastroenteritis
Rotavirus | Norovirus
71
Rotavirus and norovirus: enveloped or non-enveloped, nucleic acid
Non-enveloped (naked) | RNA
72
2 methods of rotavirus and norovirus transmission
Fecal-oral | Person to person
73
Poliovirus: what type of virus, nucleic acid
Enterovirus | RNA
74
Poliovirus mechanism of infection: stable in what that is ingested, multiples in what 2 types of cells, targets what type of cells in what part of body, causing what
Stable in food and water, which are ingested Multiplies in throat and intestinal cells Targets motor nerve cells in spinal cord, leading to paralysis
75
2 types of poliovirus vaccines
Salk (killed) | Sabin (live, oral)
76
Rabies virus: shape, enveloped or non-enveloped, nucleic acid
Bullet shaped Enveloped RNA
77
Rabies mechanism of infection: multiplies in what body part of what organisms, tropism for what 2 types of cells in humans, spreads via what to what body part, causing what symptom
Multiplies in salivary glands of animals Tropism for muscle and neuronal cells in humans Spreads via CNS to brain, causing paralysis
78
How long is the incubation period of rabies?
2-16 weeks
79
2 types of rabies vaccines
Pre-exposure (killed) | Post exposure
80
5 types of airborne bacteria
``` Diphtheria Tuberculosis Streptococcal diseases Pertussis Meningitis ```
81
2 arthropod-borne bacteria
Plague | Lyme disease
82
2 direct contact bacteria
Anthrax | Staphylococcal diseases
83
5 food and water-borne bacteria
``` Cholera Listeriosis Botulism E. coli Salmonella ```
84
Tuberculosis causative agent
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
85
2 mechanisms of tuberculosis protection from immune system
Survival inside alveolar macrophages | Mycolic acids in cell wall provide protection
86
Host response to tuberculosis forms ____. What are these?
Tubercles | Mass of latent bacteria, macrophages, T cells, and bacterial proteins
87
Tubercles can ___, enabling bacteria to spread to ___ and ___.
Liquefy | Blood and organs
88
Name of skin test for tuberculosis
Mantoux tuberculin skin test
89
How TB skin test works
``` Bacterial proteins injected into forearm Immune response (induration) measured in mm after 48-72 hours Induration is positive result ```
90
Drawback to TB test
Potential for false positives
91
Name of TB vaccine, live or killed, bacterial genus and species used, used in US or not
BCG vaccine (Bacille Calmette-Guerin) Live M. bovis Not generally recommended in US
92
4 methods of tuberculosis diagnosis
Bloody sputum Chest x-ray Acid fast staining Culture
93
What 2 antibiotics are used in treating tuberculosis?
Rifampin | Isoniazid (inhibits mycolic acid synthesis)
94
Multiple drug resistant strains of tuberculosis are resistant to what 2 drugs? Extreme drug resistant strains are resistant to what drugs?
MDR: rifampin and isoniazid XDR: rifampin, isoniazid, second-line drugs
95
Streptococcal diseases: what genus and species, group ___, ___ hemolytic
Streptococcus pyogenes Group A Beta hemolytic
96
Streptococcus pyogenes causes what 5 diseases/infections?
``` Impetigo (skin) Throat infections Lung infections Pneumonia Ear (otitis media) ```
97
2 classes of antibiotics used to treat streptococcal infections
Penicillins | Erythromycin
98
2 methods of streptococcal disease diagnosis
``` Culture Strep test (using labeled antibody to detect cell wall carbohydrates) ```
99
Group A streptococci: some strains make tissue destroying ___, which causes ___ ____
``` Protease Necrotizing faciitis ("flesh eating" bacteria) ```
100
2 streptococcal virulence factors: purpose
Capsule and M protein (both promote adherence)
101
Antibody to M protein in streptococcal disease can cross-react with ___ tissue, causing the autoimmune condition ___ ___.
Heart | Rheumatic fever
102
Whooping cough is caused by what bacteria that is Gram ___?
Bordetella pertussis (Gram negative)
103
When inhaled, pertussis bacteria colonize ___ cells of ___ tract.
Ciliated | Respiratory
104
4 virulence factors of pertussis
Type III secretion Pili Siderophores Pertussis toxin (AB toxin)
105
Pertussis AB exotoxin has the same mechanism of action as what other toxin? What is the product of pertussis toxin?
Cholera | Increased mucus production
106
Treatment for pertussis and prevention of pertussis
Macrolides | DTaP vaccine
107
Meningitis is mainly caused by what bacteria that causes inflammation of what 2 body parts?
Neisseria meningitidis | Brain and spinal cord meninges (membranes)
108
Can microbes other than bacteria cause meningitis? If so, what types?
Yes- fungi and viruses also
109
Meningitis is spread by what 2 methods?
Person to person | Respiratory or throat secretions
110
Neisseria meningitidis can cross ___ barrier into ___.
Mucosal | Blood
111
3 virulence factors of Neisseria meningitidis
Pili Capsules Endotoxin (LPS)
112
5 initial symptoms of meningitis
``` Sore throat Vomiting Confusion Stiffness in neck Rash ```
113
Diagnosis of meningitis (2 methods)
Gram stain spinal fluid (looking for Gram-negative diplococci) Culture
114
Antibiotics used to treat meningitis target what 2 parts/mechanisms of bacteria?
Cell wall synthesis | Protein synthesis
115
Vaccine for meningitis is based on ___ ____.
Capsular polysaccharide
116
Plague is caused by what bacteria? Gram positive or negative?
Yersinia pestis | Gram negative
117
2 forms of plague: names, how spread, features
Bubonic (spread by fleas) | Pneumonic (person to person, flu-like, almost 100% fatal if not treated early)
118
Plague is classified as a category ___ ____ agent
Category A bioweapons agent
119
Major virulence factor of Yersinia pestis
Type III secretion
120
Type III injectisome of Yersinia pestis delivers effector proteins called ___ into host cells including ____. What effect do these effector proteins have?
YOPs Macrophages Paralyze macrophages, so they can't take up pathogens

Microbiology (24 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions