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Microbiology > Antibiotic Resistance and Viral and Bacterial Disease > Flashcards

Antibiotic Resistance and Viral and Bacterial Disease Flashcards

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1
Q

Mechanism of drug resistance: alteration of what?

A

Antibiotic target (antibiotic can’t recognize new target)

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2
Q

Mechanism of drug resistance: binding what?

A

Binding to antibiotic inhibits it

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3
Q

Mechanism of drug resistance: what enzyme?

A

Antibiotic altering enzyme renders antibiotic useless

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4
Q

Mechanism of drug resistance: what pump?

A

Efflux pump transports antibiotic out of cell

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5
Q

R plasmids encode what mechanisms? How transferred from one bacterium to another?

A

Antibiotic resistance mechanisms

Transferred by transformation and conjugation

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6
Q

2 examples of superbugs

A

Vancomycin resistant Enterococcus

Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus

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7
Q

Vancomycin resistant Enterococcus: mechanism of resistance

A

Gene vanA encodes enzyme that replaces D-Ala with D-Lactate, which is not recognized by vancomycin

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8
Q

Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus: mechanism of resistance

A

Gene mecA encodes penicillin binding protein that is resistant to penicillin, enabling transpeptidation reaction to occur in presence of antibiotic

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9
Q

Do antibiotics mutate microbes? If not, how do microbes become antibiotic resistant?

A

Antibiotics don’t mutate microbes, but create environments that select for antibiotic-resistant mutants

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10
Q

5 mechanisms of overcoming antibiotic resistance

A 
Use drugs only when necessary
Take prescribed course
Don't use to treat viral infections
Give drug in high concentrations
Give 2 or more drugs at same time
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11
Q

2 examples of 2 drugs given at same time

A

Penicillin and streptomycin

Augmentin (penicillin and clavulanic acid)

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12
Q

Clavulanic acid inhibits production of what?

A

Penicillinase

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13
Q

4 ways science may use to combat antibiotic resistance

A 
New antibiotics produced by new microbes
New targets (type III secretion, quorum sensing, 2 component signalling)
New vaccines (cholera, malaria, HIV)
New approaches (phage therapy)
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14
Q

Listex

A

Listeria monocytogenes phage sprayed on meat, cheese, and produce

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15
Q

5 viral diseases spread by airborne route (coughing, sneezing, vocalizing)

A

Chickenpox
Influenza
Measles, mumps, rubella

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16
Q

4 arthropod-borne viral diseases

A

Yellow fever
West Nile fever
Dengue fever
Zika virus

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17
Q

5 viral diseases spread by direct contact

A 
Common cold
Mononucleosis
Warts
AIDS
Ebola
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18
Q

2 food and water-borne viral diseases

A

Gastroenteritis

Polio

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19
Q

Zoonotic viral disease example

A

Rabies

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20
Q

Chickenpox is caused by what virus from what family?

A

Varicella-zoster

Herpesviridae

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21
Q

3 main features of chickenpox virus

A

Icosahedral capsids
Envelope
DNA

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22
Q

How does chickenpox enter body (2 routes)? How does it spread through body (2 routes)?

A

Enters via inhalation or conjunctiva of eye

Spreads via blood and neuronal systems

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23
Q

After ___ days of infection, a person with chickenpox develops ____ ____.

A 
10 
Vesicular rashes (due to infection of skin)
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24
Q

Drug used to treat chickenpox: name and mechanism of action

A

Acyclovir

Targets DNA polymerase

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25
Q

Inactivated or killed vaccine: how prepared, what branch of adaptive immunity evoked, one drawback

A

Chemicals or heat used to inactivate virus
Humoral immunity
Requires booster

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26
Q

2 examples of inactivated vaccines

A

Influenza, rabies

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27
Q

Attenuated (live but avirulent) vaccine: how prepared, can virus reproduce, what branch(es) of adaptive immunity evoked, one drawback

A

Inactivation of specific genes used to attenuate
Virus is weakened, but can reproduce
Humoral and cell-mediated immunity
May revert to virulence

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28
Q

3 examples of attenuated vaccines

A

Chickenpox, MMR, intranasal influenza

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29
Q

Herd immunity

A

Protection of unvaccinated people in a population where most people are vaccinated due to lessened risk of disease transmission

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30
Q

Percentage of population immunized necessary to achieve herd immunization: what depends on, highly contagious diseases such as pertussis and measles require what percent

A

Depends on pathogen

80-90% for measles and pertussis

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31
Q

Are individuals who recover from chicken pox resistant to further infection by the virus?

A

Yes

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32
Q

Shingles: mechanism of action

A 
Viral DNA from chickenpox infection resides in latent state in nuclei of nerves and sensory neurons
Immunocompromised state (age, organ transplant, AIDS, stress, etc.) can reactivate virus in dorsal root ganglion, which travels down sensory nerve, leading to shingles
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33
Q

Influenza has a ____ _____ genome.

A

Segmented RNA

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34
Q

Replication cycle of influenza (4 steps)

A

Attachment via hemagglutinin
Entry via endocytosis
Viral RNA replicase replicates genome
Release via budding through neuraminidase

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35
Q

Change in antigenicity in influenza virus: 2 mechanisms

A 
Antigenic drift (minor changes in antigenicity)
Antigenic shift (major changes in antigenicity)
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36
Q

Antigenic drift in influenza virus: what it is and how it’s produced

A

Mutations in viral genes in a single strain

Produced by errors in error-prone viral RNA replicase

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37
Q

Antigenic shift in influenza virus: what it is and how it’s produced

A

Different strains (animal or human) infect that same cells
The cells’ genomes reassort, giving rise to a new strain
New strain may spread to humans who may have no immunity

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38
Q

Epidemic vs pandemic: main difference, caused by antigenic shift or antigenic drift

A

Epidemics (increase in disease) are more localized than pandemics (increase in disease worldwide)
Antigenic drift: epidemic
Antigenic shift: pandemic

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39
Q

Measles, mumps, and rubella: what type of viruses, what type of vaccine

A

RNA viruses

Attenuated (live) vaccine

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40
Q

Symptom of mumps

A

Salivary gland swelling

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41
Q

Of measles, mumps, and rubella, which is most contagious? What are 3 complications that can occur from this virus?

A

Measles is most contagious

Complications include pneumonia, brain defects, and death

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42
Q

Arboviruses

A

Viruses spread by insects

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43
Q

All 4 arthropod-borne viral diseases mentioned are caused by members of what family?

A

Flaviviridae

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44
Q

Flaviviridae viruses: enveloped or non-enveloped, shape of capsid, nucleic acid type, vector

A

Enveloped
Icosahedral
RNA
Mosquito vector

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45
Q

Year and place of Zika virus discovery

A

1947, Zika forest in Uganda

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46
Q

Symptoms of Zika virus (4)

A

Fever
Rash
Joint pain
Red eyes

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47
Q

Do most people infected with Zika virus show symptoms?

A

No

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48
Q

Infection with Zika virus during pregnancy can lead to what specific, amongst others, birth defect?

A

Microcephaly

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49
Q

4 possible routes of Zika virus transmission

A

Mosquito
Sexual
Pregnant woman to fetus
Blood transfusion (strong possibility)

50
Q

Common cold: name of virus that causes it, type of nucleic acid, enveloped or non-enveloped, capsid shape

A

Rhinovirus

RNA, naked (non-enveloped), icosahedral

51
Q

Common cold has over ___ different serotypes. What is a serotype?

A

100

Serotype: antigenic type

52
Q

Mononucleosis is caused by the ___-___ virus of the family ____.

A

Epstein-Barr

Herpesviridae

53
Q

How is mononucleosis transmitted? It initially enters and replicates in what cells before infecting what other kind of cells? What happens to the virus then?

A

Transmitted via saliva
Epithelial cells
B cells
Becomes latent

54
Q

Enlarged ___ cells called ___ cells respond to infected B cells in mononucleosis.

A

T

Downey

55
Q

What type of cancer can be caused by the Epstein-Barr virus? Where is this cancer primarily seen and in what type of patients?

A

Burkitt’s (B cell) lymphoma

Primarily in Africa in children with malaria

56
Q

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is what type of virus? What nucleic acid genome, enveloped or non-enveloped, capsid shape?

A

Retrovirus
Enveloped
RNA genome
Partly icosahedral with a cone-shaped core

57
Q

In HIV, ___ spike protein binds to ____ and co-receptor ___ of host T cells.

A

gp120
CD4
CCR5

58
Q

HIV life cycle (4 steps)

A
  1. After attachment, reverse transcriptase uses RNA genome of virus to make DNA
  2. Integrase integrates viral DNA into host genome
  3. Protease processes viral peptides into protein, which are assembled to make complete virion
  4. Virus is released by budding
59
Q

HAART targets which 3 HIV enzymes?

A

Reverse transcriptase
Integrase
Protease

60
Q

HIV transmission: 3 bodily fluids that can spread, 3 methods of bodily fluid intake

A

Bodily fluids: blood, semen, vaginal secretions

Intake: sex, transfusion, needle sharing

61
Q

HIV pathogenesis: depletion of what 3 immune cells

A

T cells
Macrophages
Dendritic cells

62
Q

HIV pathogenesis: 2 challenges in treating HIV

A

Viruses mutates rapidly, evading immune system

Memory T cells become latently infected

63
Q

CDC definition of Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS)

A

HIV infected individual with <200 CD4+ T cells/microliter of blood

64
Q

HAART HIV/AIDS treatment: 2 aims in reducing viral load

A

Increasing T cell count

Treating opportunistic infections and malignancies

65
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma is due to activated ____ in HIV patients.

A

Herpesvirus

66
Q

Ebola virus: shape of virus, enveloped or non-enveloped, nucleic acid

A

Filamentous
Enveloped
RNA

67
Q

Ebola virus is caused by members of the family _____.

A

Filoviridae

68
Q

Viral ebola proteins block ___ and ___ ___.

A

Interferon

Clot blood

69
Q

Transmission of ebola: 2 methods

A

Direct contact with blood or bodily fluids of infected symptomatic person
Zoonotic: primates or fruit bats

70
Q

2 major viral causes of gastroenteritis

A

Rotavirus

Norovirus

71
Q

Rotavirus and norovirus: enveloped or non-enveloped, nucleic acid

A

Non-enveloped (naked)

RNA

72
Q

2 methods of rotavirus and norovirus transmission

A

Fecal-oral

Person to person

73
Q

Poliovirus: what type of virus, nucleic acid

A

Enterovirus

RNA

74
Q

Poliovirus mechanism of infection: stable in what that is ingested, multiples in what 2 types of cells, targets what type of cells in what part of body, causing what

A

Stable in food and water, which are ingested
Multiplies in throat and intestinal cells
Targets motor nerve cells in spinal cord, leading to paralysis

75
Q

2 types of poliovirus vaccines

A

Salk (killed)

Sabin (live, oral)

76
Q

Rabies virus: shape, enveloped or non-enveloped, nucleic acid

A

Bullet shaped
Enveloped
RNA

77
Q

Rabies mechanism of infection: multiplies in what body part of what organisms, tropism for what 2 types of cells in humans, spreads via what to what body part, causing what symptom

A

Multiplies in salivary glands of animals
Tropism for muscle and neuronal cells in humans
Spreads via CNS to brain, causing paralysis

78
Q

How long is the incubation period of rabies?

A

2-16 weeks

79
Q

2 types of rabies vaccines

A

Pre-exposure (killed)

Post exposure

80
Q

5 types of airborne bacteria

A 
Diphtheria
Tuberculosis
Streptococcal diseases
Pertussis 
Meningitis
81
Q

2 arthropod-borne bacteria

A

Plague

Lyme disease

82
Q

2 direct contact bacteria

A

Anthrax

Staphylococcal diseases

83
Q

5 food and water-borne bacteria

A 
Cholera
Listeriosis
Botulism
E. coli
Salmonella
84
Q

Tuberculosis causative agent

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

85
Q

2 mechanisms of tuberculosis protection from immune system

A

Survival inside alveolar macrophages

Mycolic acids in cell wall provide protection

86
Q

Host response to tuberculosis forms ____. What are these?

A

Tubercles

Mass of latent bacteria, macrophages, T cells, and bacterial proteins

87
Q

Tubercles can ___, enabling bacteria to spread to ___ and ___.

A

Liquefy

Blood and organs

88
Q

Name of skin test for tuberculosis

A

Mantoux tuberculin skin test

89
Q

How TB skin test works

A 
Bacterial proteins injected into forearm
Immune response (induration) measured in mm after 48-72 hours
Induration is positive result
90
Q

Drawback to TB test

A

Potential for false positives

91
Q

Name of TB vaccine, live or killed, bacterial genus and species used, used in US or not

A

BCG vaccine (Bacille Calmette-Guerin)
Live
M. bovis
Not generally recommended in US

92
Q

4 methods of tuberculosis diagnosis

A

Bloody sputum
Chest x-ray
Acid fast staining
Culture

93
Q

What 2 antibiotics are used in treating tuberculosis?

A

Rifampin

Isoniazid (inhibits mycolic acid synthesis)

94
Q

Multiple drug resistant strains of tuberculosis are resistant to what 2 drugs? Extreme drug resistant strains are resistant to what drugs?

A

MDR: rifampin and isoniazid
XDR: rifampin, isoniazid, second-line drugs

95
Q

Streptococcal diseases: what genus and species, group ___, ___ hemolytic

A

Streptococcus pyogenes
Group A
Beta hemolytic

96
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes causes what 5 diseases/infections?

A 
Impetigo (skin)
Throat infections
Lung infections
Pneumonia
Ear (otitis media)
97
Q

2 classes of antibiotics used to treat streptococcal infections

A

Penicillins

Erythromycin

98
Q

2 methods of streptococcal disease diagnosis

A 
Culture
Strep test (using labeled antibody to detect cell wall carbohydrates)
99
Q

Group A streptococci: some strains make tissue destroying ___, which causes ___ ____

A 
Protease
Necrotizing faciitis ("flesh eating" bacteria)
100
Q

2 streptococcal virulence factors: purpose

A

Capsule and M protein (both promote adherence)

101
Q

Antibody to M protein in streptococcal disease can cross-react with ___ tissue, causing the autoimmune condition ___ ___.

A

Heart

Rheumatic fever

102
Q

Whooping cough is caused by what bacteria that is Gram ___?

A

Bordetella pertussis (Gram negative)

103
Q

When inhaled, pertussis bacteria colonize ___ cells of ___ tract.

A

Ciliated

Respiratory

104
Q

4 virulence factors of pertussis

A

Type III secretion
Pili
Siderophores
Pertussis toxin (AB toxin)

105
Q

Pertussis AB exotoxin has the same mechanism of action as what other toxin? What is the product of pertussis toxin?

A

Cholera

Increased mucus production

106
Q

Treatment for pertussis and prevention of pertussis

A

Macrolides

DTaP vaccine

107
Q

Meningitis is mainly caused by what bacteria that causes inflammation of what 2 body parts?

A

Neisseria meningitidis

Brain and spinal cord meninges (membranes)

108
Q

Can microbes other than bacteria cause meningitis? If so, what types?

A

Yes- fungi and viruses also

109
Q

Meningitis is spread by what 2 methods?

A

Person to person

Respiratory or throat secretions

110
Q

Neisseria meningitidis can cross ___ barrier into ___.

A

Mucosal

Blood

111
Q

3 virulence factors of Neisseria meningitidis

A

Pili
Capsules
Endotoxin (LPS)

112
Q

5 initial symptoms of meningitis

A 
Sore throat
Vomiting
Confusion
Stiffness in neck
Rash
113
Q

Diagnosis of meningitis (2 methods)

A

Gram stain spinal fluid (looking for Gram-negative diplococci)
Culture

114
Q

Antibiotics used to treat meningitis target what 2 parts/mechanisms of bacteria?

A

Cell wall synthesis

Protein synthesis

115
Q

Vaccine for meningitis is based on ___ ____.

A

Capsular polysaccharide

116
Q

Plague is caused by what bacteria? Gram positive or negative?

A

Yersinia pestis

Gram negative

117
Q

2 forms of plague: names, how spread, features

A

Bubonic (spread by fleas)

Pneumonic (person to person, flu-like, almost 100% fatal if not treated early)

118
Q

Plague is classified as a category ___ ____ agent

A

Category A bioweapons agent

119
Q

Major virulence factor of Yersinia pestis

A

Type III secretion

120
Q

Type III injectisome of Yersinia pestis delivers effector proteins called ___ into host cells including ____. What effect do these effector proteins have?

A

YOPs
Macrophages
Paralyze macrophages, so they can’t take up pathogens

Microbiology (24 decks)

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