Anaesthetics: Pharmacology - Skeletal muscle relaxants Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the sequence of events in normal neuromuscular function

A
  1. Arrival of impulse at motor nerve terminal
  2. Ca2+ influx
  3. ACh release and diffusion into synaptic cleft
  4. 2x ACh bind a-B and d-a subunits of nicotinic receptor to induce channel opening
  5. Na+ influx and K+ efflux at motor end plate produces the end plate potential
  6. If stimulus is of sufficient magnitude, potential is propagated
  7. Excitation-contraction coupling occurs
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2
Q

What of the two mechanisms of neuromuscular blockade?

A
  1. Nondepolarising: via antagonism of ACh at nicotinic receptors
  2. Depolarising: via paradoxical effect of ACh excess
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3
Q

Describe the structure of nondepolarising muscle relaxants

A

Similar to ACh but conceals “double-acetylcholine” structure in one of two types of bulky, semi-rigid ring systems
Poor lipid solubility (and therefore CNS entry) due to presence of one or two quaternary nitrogens

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4
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of nondepolarising muscle relaxants. What level of receptor occupancy is required for full blockade? Is this effect surmountable?

A

Directly antagonises ACh at motor end plate, and at larger doses can enter pore of nicotinic receptor channel to produce more intense blockade
Full blockade requires 90% receptor occupancy
Because they act as competitive antagonists, effect is surmountable (e.g. with AChE inhibitors)

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5
Q

Describe the pharmacokinetics of nondepolarising muscle relaxants

A

Absorption: poor oral absorption (hydrophilic), must be given parenterally
Distribution: rapid initial distribution with slower elimination phase, Vd 80-140ml/kg; only slightly larger than blood volume due to hydrophilic and ionised nature, therefore inability to cross cell membranes, and poor peripheral binding; poor entry into CNS
Metabolism/elimination: duration of action correlates with elimination pathway; longer duration/elimination (>35mins) when excreted by kidney, shorter (20-25mins) when hepatic

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6
Q

Describe the difference in duration of action and elimination of longer-, intermediate-, and short-acting nondepolarising muscle relaxants. Give two examples of each

A

Longer-acting: eliminated by kidney, duration of action >35mins, e.g. d-tubocurarine (40% renal) and pancuronium (80% renal)
Intermediate-acting: eliminated by liver, duration of action 20-35mins, e.g. rocuronium and vecuronium (both 75-90% hepatic)

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7
Q

What is Hoffmann elimination and which neuromuscular blocking agent does it apply to? What is the clinical significance of this phenomenon?

A

Hoffmann elimination is a form of spontaneous breakdown which occurs with atracurium
Produces laudanosine, a metabolite that is slowly metabolised by the liver with a t1/2 of 50mins, and that crosses the BBB and can cause toxicity (seizures, increase in volatile anaesthetic requirement)

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8
Q

Why is cisatracurium widely used where atracurium is not?

A

Cisatracurium is less toxic as it has less dependence on hepatic inactivation, and produces less laudanosine and systemic histamine release

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9
Q

How are steroidal muscle relaxants metabolised and what is the clinical significance of this?

A

Metabolised to 3-hydroxy, 17-hydroxy, or 3,17-hydroxy metabolites
3-hydroxy metabolites are active with ~40-80% of potency of parent drug and a longer t1/2
Can accumulate with prolonged administration (e.g. in ICU) and cause prolonged paralysis

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10
Q

What are the effects of nondepolarising muscle relaxants on skeletal muscle?

A

Initial motor weakness followed by flaccid, unexcitable muscles
Larger muscles are more resistant to blockade and recover more quickly: diaphragm is the last muscle to be paralysed and the first to recover
No adverse effects if ventilated appropriately

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11
Q

What are the effects of the various nondepolarising muscle relaxants on CVS? Specifically mention pancuronium, tubocurarine and atracurium

A

Vecuronium, cistatracurium and rocuronium have little if any effects
Pancuronium causes moderate tachycardia and increased CO without change in TPR (primarily via vagolytic mechanisms)
Tubocurarine (and atracurium to lesser extent) causes hypotension due to systemic histamine release, which can be prevented by pre-medication with an antihistamine
Tubocurarine also causes ganglionic block with larger doses

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12
Q

What are the effects of nondepolarising muscle relaxants on the respiratory system?

A

Tubocurarine can cause bronchospasm due to systemic histamine release

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13
Q

What underlies the increased risk of aspiration and decreased hypoxic drive that follows neuromuscular blockade with a nondepolarising agent?

A

There is subtle evidence of residual muscle paralysis that persists beyond clinically observed pharmacologic duration of effect

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14
Q

Which of the nondepolarising muscle relaxants has the most rapid time to onset?

A

Rocuronium with time to onset of 60-120secs

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15
Q

Why might you pre-medicate a patient with antihistamine prior to administering tubocurarine?

A

Decreases the risk of hypotension due to systemic histamine release with tubocurarine

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16
Q

Describe the structure of depolarising muscle relaxants

A

Similar to ACh: succinylcholine is 2x linked ACh molecules
Poor lipid solubility (and therefore CNS entry) due to presence of one or two quaternary nitrogens

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17
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of depolarising muscle relaxants

A

Two phases:
1. Phase I (depolarising)
- Binds to and opens nicotinic receptors causing Na+ influx and depolarisation
- This produces transient contraction of muscle motor units
- Succinylcholine is not metabolised effectively by AChE at the end-plate and so depolarisation persists and the membrane becomes unresponsive to subsequent impulses
- Because excitation-contraction coupling requires repolarisation (“repriming”) and repetitive firing, flaccid muscle paralysis results

  1. Phase II (desensitising)
    - With continued exposure, membrane repolarises even in presence of succinylcholine (mechanism unclear but may be due to channel blockade rather than agonist effect)
    - In this state the receptor is desensitised and requires a larger stimulus to become depolarised again
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18
Q

What is the effect of AChE inhibitors on nondepolarising vs depolarising muscle relaxants?

A

Nondepolarising: can overcome blockade
Depolarising: in phase I augments (not reverses) blockade by providing further depolarising stimulus, in late phase II receptor desensitisation can be overcome with sufficient ACh so AChE inhibitors can reverse blockade

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19
Q

Describe the pharmacodynamics of depolarising muscle relaxants

A

Absorption: poor oral absorption (hydrophilic), parenteral only
Distribution: does not cross BBB
Metabolism: broken down efficiently (and rapidly) by plasma (predominantly) and liver cholinesterases (e.g. pseudocholinesterase, butyrylcholinesterase); therefore short duration of action 5-10mins (dependent on succinylcholine diffusing away from NMJ as it is not metabolised by AChE)

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20
Q

What % of succinylcholine reaches the NMJ and what influences this? What is the clinical significance?

A

Only ~1% reaches NMJ, influenced by circulating levels of plasma cholinesterase
Succinylcholine action may be prolonged by genetic variant in plasma cholinesterase
Ability to metabolise succinylcholine can be measured as the “dibucaine number”

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21
Q

What are the effects of depolarising muscle relaxants on skeletal smooth muscle?

A

Initial transient muscle fasciculations (over chest and abdomen) within 30secs
Flaccid paralysis within 90secs

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22
Q

What are the effects of depolarising muscle relaxants on the CVS?

A

Stimulates autonomic receptors (including ganglionic nicotinic and in heart):
- Negative inotropy and chronotropy (reversible with anticholinergics, e.g. atropine)
- Bradycardia if second dose given <5mins after first
- Positive inotropy and chronotropy with large doses
- Can cause cardiac arrhythmias, especially when administered during halothene anaesthesia

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23
Q

Name five adverse effects of depolarising muscle relaxants and the mechanism of each

A
  1. Hyperkalaemia:
    - K+ released during fasciculations
    - Increased risk in patients with burns, trauma, closed head injury, and NMD due to proliferation of extrajunctional ACh receptors -> more K+ release, may be sufficient to cause cardiac arrest
  2. Raised IOP:
    - Mechanism unclear
    - Not contraindicated in eye surgery unless anterior chamber is open (i.e. open globe injury)
  3. Raised intragastric pressure (5-40cm H2O):
    - Due to fasciculations
    - Risk of emesis and aspiration
    - Increased risk in patients with delayed gastric emptying (e.g. diabetes), trauma, oesophageal dysfunction, and obesity
  4. Myalgia:
    - Due to muscle fasciculations
  5. Cardiac arrhythmia (especially during halotheme anaesthesia):
    - Due to stimulation of autonomic receptors
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24
Q

How do inhaled (volatile) anaesthetics interact with nondepolarising muscle relaxants?

A

Potentiate neuromuscular blockade via the following mechanisms:
- CNS depression
- Increased muscle blood flow due to peripheral vasodilation, enhancing delivery of muscle relaxant to NMJ
- Decreased sensitivity of postjunctional membrane to depolarisation

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25
Q

List volatile anaesthetics in terms of most to least likely to interact with nondepolarising muscle relaxants

A

Isoflurane
Sevoflurane
Desflurane
Halothane
Nitrous oxide

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26
Q

How do antibiotics interact with muscle relaxants?

A

Enhance neuromuscular blockade (particularly aminoglycosides)

27
Q

How do local anaesthetics interact with muscle relaxants in small vs large doses?

A

Small doses: depress post-tetanic potentation (enhance neuromuscular block)
Large doses: block neuromuscular transmission

28
Q

How do depolarising and nondepolarising muscle relaxants interact? What is the clinical significance?

A

Small dose of nondepolarising muscle relaxant can be given ahead of depolarising muscle relaxant to antagonise its end-plate depolarising effect -> prevents fasciculations to reduce post-operative myalgia

No longer widely practiced as increases the required dose of depolarising agent by 50-90%

29
Q

List two states which enhance nondepolarising blockade and two which diminish

A

Enhanced neuromuscular blockade in:
1. Myaesthenia gravis
2. Advanced age (due to decreased renal and hepatic metabolism; dose should be reduced if age >70yo)

Diminished nondepolarising blockade in:
1. Severe burns
2. Upper MND
(both probably due to proliferation of extrajunctional ACh receptors)

30
Q

What agents can be used to reverse nondepolarising blockade and how does each work?

A
  1. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors:
    - Neostigmine, pyridostigmine: inhibit AChE and also increase ACh release from motor nerve terminal (so more useful in profound blockade)
    - Edrophonium: inhibits AChE only (more rapid onset than neostigmine and pyridostigmine)
  2. Sugammadex:
    - Reverses steroidal nondepolarising agents only (rocuronium, vecuronium)
31
Q

Three adverse reactions to sugammadex

A
  1. Anaphylaxis
  2. Hypersensitivity reactions
  3. Reduced efficacy of hormonal contraceptives
32
Q

What is the underlying abnormality malignant hyperthermia?

A

Rare disorder due to hereditary alteration in Ca2+-induced Ca2+ release via RyR1 channel, or impairment in ability of sarcoplasmic reticulum to sequester Ca2+ via Ca2+ transporter

33
Q

What is the inheritance pattern in malignant hyperthermia?

A

Autosomal dominant

34
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of malignant hyperthermia

A
  1. Initial trigger (e.g. general anaesthesia, muscle relaxant)
  2. Sudden and prolonged Ca2+ release
  3. Massive muscle contraction with production of lactic acid and hyperthermia
35
Q

How is malignant hyperthermia treated?

A

Dantrolene 1mg/kg, repeated as necessary up to 10mg/kg

36
Q

Describe the structure of dantrolene

A

Hydantoin derivative related to phenytoin

37
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of dantrolene

A

Binds and inhibits RyR1 channel opening to prevent Ca2+ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum

38
Q

What is the effect of dantrolene on cardiac and smooth muscle?

A

Minimal, due to presence of RyR2 (not RyR1) at these sites

39
Q

Half-life of dantrolene

A

8hrs (oral)

40
Q

Three adverse effects of dantrolene

A

Muscle weakness
Sedation
Hepatitis

41
Q

Elimination and duration of action of atracurium and cisatracurium

A

Atracurium: spontaneous, 20-35mins
Cisatracurium: mostly spontaneous, 25-44mins

42
Q

Elimination and duration of action of tubocurarine

A

Kidney (40%)
>50mins

43
Q

Elimination and duration of action of pancuronium

A

Kidney (80%)
>35mins

44
Q

Elimination and duration of action of rocuronium and vecuronium

A

Both liver (70-95%) and kidney
20-35mins

45
Q

Elimination and duration of action of succinylcholine

A

Plasma cholinesterase (100%)
<8mins

46
Q

What is the effect of tubocurarine administration on rocuronium vs succinylcholine activity?

A

Rocuronium: additive
Succinylcholine: phase I antagonistic, phase II augmented

47
Q

What is the effect of succinylcholine administration on rocuronium vs succinylcholine activity?

A

Rocuronium: antagonistic
Succinylcholine: phase I additive, phase II augmented

48
Q

What is the effect of neostigmine on rocuronium vs succinylcholine activity?

A

Rocuronium: antagonistic
Succinylcholine: phase I augmented, phase II antagonistic

49
Q

What is the initial skeletal muscle excitatory effect seen with rocuronium vs succinylcholine use?

A

Rocuronium: none
Succinylcholine: phase I fasciculations, phase II none

50
Q

What is the response of rocuronium vs succinylcholine to a tetanic stimulus?

A

Rocuronium: unsustained (fade)
Succinylcholine: phase I sustained (no fade), phase II unsustained (fade)

51
Q

Is post-tetanic potentiation seen with rocuronium and succinylcholine?

A

Rocuronium: yes
Succinylcholine: phase I no, phase II yes

52
Q

What is the rate of recovery from rocuronium vs succinylcholine?

A

Rocuronium: 30-60mins
Succinylcholine: phase I 4-8mins, phase II >20mins

53
Q

What is the effect of atracurium on autonomic ganglia, cardiac muscarinic receptors, and systemic histamine release?

A

Autonomic ganglia: none
Cardiac muscarinic receptors: none
Systemic histamine release: slight

54
Q

What is the effect of cisatracurium on autonomic ganglia, cardiac muscarinic receptors, and systemic histamine release?

A

Autonomic ganglia: none
Cardiac muscarinic receptors: none
Systemic histamine release: none

55
Q

What is the effect of tubocurarine on autonomic ganglia, cardiac muscarinic receptors, and systemic histamine release?

A

Autonomic ganglia: weak block
Cardiac muscarinic receptors: none
Systemic histamine release: moderate

56
Q

What is the effect of pancuronium on autonomic ganglia, cardiac muscarinic receptors, and systemic histamine release?

A

Autonomic ganglia: none
Cardiac muscarinic receptors: moderate block
Systemic histamine release: none

57
Q

What is the effect of rocuronium on autonomic ganglia, cardiac muscarinic receptors, and systemic histamine release? What other adverse effect can be seen with rocuronium?

A

Autonomic ganglia: none
Cardiac muscarinic receptors: slight
Systemic histamine release: none
Other: allergy reported

58
Q

What is the effect of vecuronium on autonomic ganglia, cardiac muscarinic receptors, and systemic histamine release?

A

Autonomic ganglia: none
Cardiac muscarinic receptors: none
Systemic histamine release: none

59
Q

What is the effect of gallamine on autonomic ganglia, cardiac muscarinic receptors, and systemic histamine release?

A

Autonomic ganglia: none
Cardiac muscarinic receptors: strong block
Systemic histamine release: none

60
Q

What is the effect of succinylcholine on autonomic ganglia, cardiac muscarinic receptors, and systemic histamine release?

A

Autonomic ganglia: stimulation
Cardiac muscarinic receptors: stimulation
Systemic histamine release: slight

61
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of baclofen

A

GABA(B) agonist, producing hyperpolarisation via:
1. Closure of presynaptic Ca2+ channels
2. Increased postsynaptic K+ conductance
3. Inhibition of dendritic Ca2+ influx channels
Overall causes decrease in release of excitatory neurotransmitters and therefore reduced activity of 1a sensory afferents, spinal interneurons, and motor neurons

62
Q

Describe the absorption and half-life of baclofen

A

Rapid and complete oral absorption
t1/2 = 3-4hrs

63
Q

How does baclofen compare to diazepam in terms of reduction in spasticity and sedative effect?

A

As effective at reducing spasticity
Less sedating

64
Q

Four adverse effects of baclofen

A
  1. Somnolence
  2. Respiratory depression
  3. Coma
  4. Withdrawal