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Bacte Lec (Overview) [Prelims 1] > 2.1 Gram Positive, Catalase positive Bac > Flashcards

2.1 Gram Positive, Catalase positive Bac Flashcards

1
Q

What is the composition of peptidoglycan?

A

N-acetylglucosamine
N-acetylmuramic acid

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2
Q

Is peptidoglycan a singled or multilayered?

A

Multilayered

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3
Q

The 2 composition of peptidoglycan is connected by?

A

Peptide bonds

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4
Q

Gram positive cocci has a thick or thin layer of peptidoglycan?

A

Thick

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5
Q

Gram-positive infections are?

A

Pyogenic

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6
Q

How to differentiate gram positive Cocci?

A

Catalase test

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7
Q

What can be found in catalase positive for Gram positive cocci?

A

Micrococcaceae
Staphylococcaceae

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8
Q

What can be found in catalase Negative for Gram positive cocci?

A

Streptococcaceae

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9
Q

What is the characteristics of Staphylococci?

A

Catalase positive
Clusters
Nonmotile
Non-spore forming
Aerobic or Facultative anaerobes

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10
Q

What is the Gaseous composition for S. saprophyticus

A

Obligate Anaerobe

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11
Q

Is staphylococcus non capsulated?

A

Yes

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12
Q

Is staphylococcus Oxidase positive?

A

False

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13
Q

What environment does staphylococcus grow on?

A

7.5% NaCl (Salt tolerance test)

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14
Q

What reagent is used in catalase test?

A

3, 10, 30% hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)

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15
Q

What is the molarity of H2O2 in staphylococcus?

A

3%

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16
Q

How do we know if we isolated staphylococcus and micrococcaceae

A

Bubble formation

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17
Q

What organisms can be seen in negative catalase test?

A

Streptococcus

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18
Q

What are the clinically significant Normal flora species in Staphylococcaceae?

A

Aureus
Epidermidis
Saprophyticus

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19
Q

Staphylococcus aureus is a normal flora of what part of the body?

A

Nares

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20
Q

Staphylococcus epidemidis

A

Skin

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21
Q

Staphylococcus saprophyticus is a normal flora of what part of the body?

A

Genital tract

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22
Q

Most clinically significant species of Staphylococci

A

S. aureus

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23
Q

Staphylococcus is usually present in skin surfaces, is it normal?

A

no

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24
Q

S. aureus usually cause nosocomial infection?

A

True

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25
Q

What are the virulence factor for S. aureus?

A

Enterotoxins (A-E & G-J)
Exfoliative Toxin
Cytolytic toxins
Protein A
Beta Lactamase

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26
Q

Is S. aureus an opportunistic pathogens

A

True

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27
Q

A virulence factor of S. aureus that can survive 100 degrees Celsius for 30 mins which is a heat stable

A

Enterotoxins

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28
Q

What Enterotoxins of S. aureus are associated with Food poisoning?

A

A, B, D

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29
Q

Enterotoxin B of S. aureus is associated with what disease?

A

Pseudomembranous enterocolitis (colitis) / Ulcerative colitis

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30
Q

What does pseudomembranous colitis do in the lining of the intestine?

A

It produces pus which thickens the lining of the intestines.

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31
Q

A superantigen syndrome that stimulates T-cell proliferation which produce large amount of cytokines.

A

Toxic shock syndrome toxin-1

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32
Q

What enterotoxin is associated with TSST-1?

A

Enterotoxin F

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33
Q

TSST-1 can cause mensturating-associated TSS which is usually acquired by?

A

Unreplaced tampons

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34
Q

This virulence factor causes the skin to slough off which causes the SSS

A

Exfoliative toxin

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35
Q

Another name for exfoliative toxin

A

Epidermolytic toxin a and b

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36
Q

What disease or syndrome cause by exfoliative toxin

A

Scalded skin syndrome (Ritter disease)
Bullous impetigo (Blister-like)

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37
Q

A Cytolytic Toxin that can damage platelets, macrophages and can cause severe tissue damage.

A

Alpha hemolysin

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38
Q

A Cytolytic Toxin that acts on sphingomyelin in the plasma membrane of erythrocytes which is called “hot and cold” lysin

A

Beta hemolysin

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39
Q

What disease can be associated with gamma hemolysin?

A

Panton-Valentine Leukocidin

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40
Q

What is Panton-Valentine Leukocidin?

A

Elimination of neutrophils and Macrophages

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41
Q

Other name of coagulase in Staphylococci

A

Staphylocoagulase

Fibrinogen to fibrin

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42
Q

Other name of fibrinolysin in staphylococci?

A

Staphylokinase

Breaks fibrin

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43
Q

Protease

A

Cleaves protein

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44
Q

A spreading factor of staphylococcus

Targets patient connective tissue

A

hyaluronidase

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45
Q

Hydrolyzes lipids

A

lipase

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46
Q

IT is considered virulence marker of staphylococcus which can differentiate from other Staphylococcus spp.

A

Staphylocoagulase

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47
Q

Virulence factor of Staphylococcus is the ability to bind the Fc to IgG which blocks Phagocytosis

A

Protein A

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48
Q

Virulence factor that is responsible for drug resistance factor for Staphylococcus

A

Beta Lactamase

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49
Q

Patient has High fever and low bp level. In addition, the patient has high DIC. Patient said that he frequently uses tampons. What is the disease or syndrome associated with?

A

Toxic Shock syndrome Toxin-1

50
Q

Earliest signs of TSST-1?

A

Exfoliative toxins

Ritter disease and Bullous Impetigo

51
Q

What happens if TSST-1 is left untreated?

A

Multiple organ failure

52
Q

What will happen if S.aureus penetrate to blood stream?

A

Endocarditis
Osteomyelitis
Arthritis
Nosocomial infection

53
Q

What is the virulence factor for S. epidermidis

A

Exopolysaccharide slide or biofilm

  • adheres to medical devices and provides refractoriness to host defense
54
Q

What are the disease associated with S. epidermidis

A

Hospital acquired UTI

Prosthetic valve endocarditis (not wearing gloves)

55
Q

How is hospital acquired UTI occur?

A

Unreplaced catheter

56
Q

What is the virulence factor for S. saprophyticus

A

Adhere to epithelial cell lining in urogenital tract

57
Q

What are the disease associated with S. saprophyticus

A

UTI

Common in young females

Sexual activity

58
Q

A bacteria that can cause both community associated and hospital acquired infection.

It more virulent in prosthetic valve endocarditis than epidermidis

A

S. lugdunensis

59
Q

What is the virulence facto of S. Lugdunensis?

A

Gene mecA

60
Q

What is gene mecA?

A

Oxacillin resistant

61
Q

It has a Vancomycin resistant as a virulence factor

A

S. Haemolyticus

62
Q

What are the specimen for Staphylococcaceae

A

Aspirate
Swabs

63
Q

Culture media for staphylococcus?

A

Blood agar
Colistin-Nalidixic acid
Phenylethyl alcohol agar
Mannitol salt agar
CHROM agar

64
Q

What is the purpose of Blood agar in Staphylococcus

A

Enriched isolation

65
Q

What is the purpose of Colistin-Nalidixic in Staphylococcus

A

Selective medium for gram positive cocci

66
Q

What is the purpose of Mannitol salt agar in Staphylococcus

A

Selective and differential

67
Q

What is the purpose of CHROM in Staphylococcus

A

Selective and Differential for Methicillin-resistant S. aureus

68
Q

It test the ability to breakdown Hydrogen peroxide into oxygen and water

A

Catalase test

69
Q

Amount of hydrogen peroxide use for Staphylococcaceae

A

3%

70
Q

where 30% H2O2 is use for in catalase test

A

Mycobacterium and Neisseria

71
Q

What organisms is positive for catalase in gram positive cocci?

A

Staphylococcus and micrococcus

72
Q

What organisms is negative for catalase test in gram positive cocci?

A

Streptococcus

73
Q

What is the indicator for catalase test if it is positive?

A

Bubbles

74
Q

A test for the ability of the bacteria to convert fibrinogen to fibrin

This test can differentiate from aureus to other Staphylococci

A

Coagulase test

75
Q

What are the 2 types of coagulase test?

A

Bound and free

76
Q

What is the best sample for Staphylococcaceae

A

Aspirate

77
Q

A type of coagulase test that uses slide method wherein plasma is put on the slide.

A

Bound coagulase

78
Q

A type of coagulase test that uses a tube method

A

Free coagulase

79
Q

How many hours to confirm if the free coagulase test is positive?

A

4-6 hrs

18-24 hrs if the there is no agglutination or clot on the first 4-6 hrs

80
Q

What is the positive indicator for coagulase test?

A

Clot or clumping

81
Q

What organisms is positive in coagulase test? why?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

Because of the presence of Staphylocoagulase

82
Q

This test differentiate S. epidermidis and S. saprophyticus

A

Novobiocin test

83
Q

It is a clear zone that surrounds the antibiotic which shows it’s effectiveness and the susceptibility of the bacteria to it.

A

Zone of inhibition (16mm) - novobiocin

84
Q

How many grams of Novobiocin is used in Novobiocin test?

A

5ug

85
Q

What organisms is resistant to Novobiocin?

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

86
Q

What organisms is susceptible to Novobiocin?

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

87
Q

What is being test for in Microdase test?

A

Cytochrome C

88
Q

What differentiates in microdase test?

A

Staphyloccoci and Micrococcus

89
Q

What is positive indicator for microdase test?

A

Blue to purple-blue

90
Q

What organisms is positive in microdase test?

A

Micrococcus spp.

91
Q

A selective and differential agar that uses NaCl

Ability to ferment mannitol

A

Mannitol salt agar

92
Q

How many percentage of NaCl in Mannitol salt agar?

A

7.5%

93
Q

What is the positive indicator for mannitol salt agar?

A

Fermentation (Yellow halo around growth)

94
Q

What organisms is positive in mannitol salt agar?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

95
Q

Other name for Bacitracin?

A

Bacitracin taxo A

96
Q

What is the purpose of Bacitracin?

A

Differentiates micrococcus spp. to Staphylococcus spp.

97
Q

What is the zone of inhibition for bacitracin

A

10mm

98
Q

What is the positive organisms for bacitracin?

A

Micrococcus spp.

99
Q

It test the ability to hydrolyze DNA

A

DNAse test

100
Q

What are the 2 methods for DNase test?

A

Toluidine blue w/ Methyl green

HCl precipitation

101
Q

What is the postive indicator for DNAse test?

A

Clear zone

102
Q

What organisms is positive for DNAse test

A

Staphylococcus aureus

103
Q

What is the principle for DNAse test?

A

Clearing

Break down DNA making a clearing zone

104
Q

Test for the ability of the organism to hydrolyze the substrate L-pyrrolidonylβ-napththylamide to l-pyrrolidone and β-naphthylamine,

A

Pyrrolidonyl aminopeptidase

105
Q

What is the positive indicator for pyrrolidonyl aminopeptidase?

A

Bright red after 5mins

106
Q

What organisms is positive for pyrrolidonyl aminopeptidase?

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis and saprophyticus

107
Q

What organisms is negative for pyrrolidonyl aminopeptidase?

A

Staphylococcus lugdunensis and haemolyticus

108
Q

It is considered Gold standard for bacteria identification

A

Real time Polymerase chain Reaction

109
Q

Next Gold standard considered after RTPCR in identifying bacteria?

A

Culture

110
Q

This targets the rRNA sequences for Staphylococcal identification from from blood cultures

A

Qualitative nucleic acid hybridization assays

111
Q

This detects turbidity of the bacteria and Continues to be integrated as U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
approval occur

A

Matrix-assisted laser desorption-ionization time-of-flight mass spectrometry

112
Q

Who issued the standard guidelines for antimicrobial susceptibility test

A

Clinical and Laboratory standards Institute (CLSI)

113
Q

This encodes penicillin-binding proteins (Oxacillin resistant)

A

mecA gene

114
Q

What antimicrobial is use to treat methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus?

A

Vancomycin and Oxacillin

115
Q

What is being use to determine methicillin resistance?

A

Cefoxitin

116
Q

How cefoxitin confirms MRSA?

A

NO zone of inhibition (Resistant to Cefoxitin)

117
Q

What is the drug of choice for MRSA?

A

Vancomycin

118
Q

This antimicrobial is frequently use for Staphylococcal skin infections

Can also be use to treat MRSA

A

Clindamycin

119
Q

What antimicrobial is use in D-zone test?

A

Erythromycin and Clindamycin disks

120
Q

What is the presence of D-shaped for clindamycin say?

A

Induced clindamycin resistant

Meaning, Clindamycin cannot be use for treatment for staphylococcus infection.

121
Q

Pseudomembranous ulcerative colitis is associated by what bacteria?

A

Staphylococcus aureus
Clostridium Difficile

Bacte Lec (Overview) [Prelims 1] (34 decks)

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