Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Bacte Lec (Overview) [Prelims 1] > 1. Overview > Flashcards

1. Overview Flashcards

1
Q

What is the significance of Bacteriology?

A

Isolate, Identify, Analyze

  1. Culture of organism
  2. Classification and Identification of organisms
  3. Prediction and Interpretation of antimicrobial susceptibility pattern
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a Bacteria?

A
  • Prokaryotes
  • Unicellular
  • Lacks nucleus, and organelles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What do you call the cell wall of the bacteria?

A

Peptidoglycan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What do you call the cell wall of the Fungi?

A

Chitin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a parasite

A
  • Eukaryote
  • uni or multicellular
  • causes Acute Gastroenteritis or Diarrhea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the locomotive for parasite?

A

Flagella, Pseudopods, Cilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a Fungi?

A
  • Heterotrophic eukaryotes
  • Dimorphic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 2 forms of fungi?

A

Yeast and Mold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is yeast?

A
  • Unicellular
  • Asexual
  • Human body temp
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Mold?

A
  • Multicellular (Filamentous)
  • Sexual or asexual
  • Room temp
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Mycelia?

A
  • A group hyphae that forms a weave of mats which it forms a multicellular organisms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The dimorphic of fungi is based on what condition?

A

Temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a Viruses?

A
  • Acellular
  • Contains DNA or RNA core that surrounded by protein coat
  • Obligate intracellular parasite
  • Host cell specific
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is bacteriophage

A
  • A type of virus that targets a bacteria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 3 interrelated categories of taxonomy

A
  1. Classification
  2. Nomenclature
  3. Identification
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is classification?

A
  • An orderly classification of hierarchy in naming an organisms which is based on phenotype and genotype
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the order of classification?

A
  1. Domain
  2. Kingdom
  3. Phylum
  4. Class
  5. Order
  6. Family
  7. Genus
  8. Species
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Genotype?

A
  • genetic makeup of an organisms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is phenotype?

A
  • Observable physical na functional features of an microorganism
  1. Staining characteristics
  2. Nutritional requirement
  3. Physiologic and biochemical characteristics
  4. Susceptibility or resistance to antibiotics or chemicals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Nomenclature for Genus

A

Capital letter of the first word

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Nomenclature for Family

A

Capital letter of the first word with -aceae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Nomenclature for species

A

Small letters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is identification?

A
  • microorganisms key features based on genotyping and phenotyping which then assigned in genus and species names
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is Prokaryotes?

A
  • Unicellular
  • NO nucleus and nuclear membrane
  • Contains Nucleoid region
  • No Cilia
  • has Pili and Fimbriae
  • Peptidoglycan (Cell wall)
  • Cytoplasmic sturcture (70S)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What part of the bacteria is the basis for staining?

A

Cell Wall (Peptidoglycan)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is Eukaryotes?

A
  • Uni or multicellular
  • has Nucleus and nuclear membrane
  • may contain Cilia
  • has a cytoplasmic structure (80S)
  • Cell wall (Polysaccharides)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the cytoplasmic structure of bacteria?

A
  • Nucleoid
  • Plasmid
  • Ribosomes
  • Inclusions
  • Endospores
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is Plasmid?

A

Codes for antibiotic resistance, and virulence factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Site for proteins synthesis?

A

Ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the difference between Gram Positive and Gram Negative?

A

(+) - Thick peptidoglycan
(-) - Thin peptidoglycan with outer membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does inclusions contain?

A
  1. Glycogen
  2. Poly-B-hydroxybutyrate
  3. Polyphosphate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the types of inclusions?

A
  • Metachromatic granules
  • Polysaccharide granules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is metachromatic granules?

A
  • Can be seen in Corynebacterium diphtheriae
  • Reserves of polyphosphate that is used in synthesis for ATP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is polysaccharide granules?

A
  • Consist of glycogen and starch granules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is Endospores?

A
  • Can be seen in Bacillus and Clostridium
  • Highly resistant on varius factor
  • only be killed in autoclave
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the component for endospores

A

Calcium dipicolinate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is plasma membrane?

A
  • Phospholipid bilayer
  • Permeability barrier
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is Peptidoglycan?

A

Composed of cell wall macromolecules known as Murein Layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the repeating disaccharides that is attached by polypeptides in cell wall?

A

N-acetylglucosamine
N-acetylmuramic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Acid fast cell wall can only be seen in what bacteria?

A
  • Mycobacteria
  • Nocardia (Partially)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the major component for acid fast cell wall?

A

Mycolic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What happens if you gram stain the acid fast cell wall?

A

it will have a lightly gram positive because it repels the primary stain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the primary stain for Acid fast stain?

A

Carbol fuchsin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the decolorizer for Carbol fuchsin?

A

acid-alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the 3 domains in Classification?

A

Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the major reason why Archaeobacteria is not part of the domain bacteria?

A
  • they don’t have peptidoglycan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is Halophile?

A
  • Salt loving bacteria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is thermophile

A
  • Heat loving bacteria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the 3 methods of Acid Fast-staining?

A
  1. Ziehl-Neelsen stain
  2. Kinyoun stain
  3. Auramine-rhodamine stain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What happens if you stain bacteria without cell walls?

A
  • it cannot be identified
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the bacterias without cell wall?

A
  • Mycoplasma
  • Ureaplasma (contain sterols)
  • L-forms Bacteria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is periplasmic space?

A
  • Located between cell membrane and cell wall of gram negative bacteria
  • Contains enzyme for degrading and detoxifying macromolecules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is outer membrane

A

Mainly composed of lipopolysaccharides, lipoproteins and phospholipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the components of LPS

A
  1. Lipid A
  2. O-antigen
  3. Core polysaccharide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is Glycocalyx?

A
  • General substances that surrounds the cells
  • it acts as anti phagocytic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

2 types of glycocalyx?

A
  • Capsule
  • Slime layer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is Capsule?

A

Organized and firmly attached to cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is Slime layer

A

Unorganized and loosely attached to the cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is Flagella?

A

exterior protein filaments that is used for motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what are the 4 arrangements of flagella on the bacteria?

A
  • Monotrichous
  • Lophotrichous
  • Amphitrichous
  • Peritrichous
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is axial Filaments?

A

Bundles of fibrils anchored at one end of spirochete and spiral around the
cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the pair for cocci called?

A

Diplococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the chain for cocci called?

A

Streptococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the cluster for cocci called?

A

Staphylococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is a 4 cell arrangement for cocci called?

A

Tetrad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the cuboidal arrangement for cocci called?

A

Sarcinae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the pair for bacilli called?

A

Diplobacilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the chains for bacilli called?

A

Streptobacilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is a side by side arrangement for bacilli called?

A

Palisade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is a pointed end for bacilli called?

A

Fusiform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What do you call a pure culture that has different shapes and sizes?

A

Pleomorphic

72
Q

What do you call a slightly longer than they are wide bacilli.

A

Coccobacilli

73
Q

What do you call a comma shaped spirochetes

A

Vibrio

74
Q

What do you call a Loosely coiled spirochetes

A

Spirillum

75
Q

What do you call a Tightly coiled spirochetes

A

Treponema

76
Q

A stain that is use to differentiate bacteria into gram negative and gram positive bacteria

A

Gram stain

77
Q

Other name for gram staining

A

Differentiating stain technique

78
Q

What is the purpose of heating in gram staining

A

To fix the smear to prevent washing out specifically in decolorization

79
Q

What are the step in gram staining

A
  1. Crystal Violet (1 min)
  2. Gram’s iodine (1min)
  3. Alcohol or ethyl alcohol (30 sec - 1min)
  4. Safranin (30 sec - 1min)
80
Q

What is the result of Gram positive bacteria in gram staining

A

Purple/violet

81
Q

What is the result of gram negative bacteria in gram staining

A

Red

82
Q

In gram staining, what is the primary stain?

A

Crystal violet

83
Q

In gram staining, what is the mordant?

A

Iodine

84
Q

In gram staining, what is the decolorizer?

A

95% ethyl alcohol
Acetone

85
Q

In gram staining, what is the secondary stain?

A

Safranin

86
Q

All cocci are gram positive except?

A
  • Neisseria
  • Veillonella
  • Moraxella
87
Q

All bacilli are gram Negative except

A

Bacillus
Mycobacterium
Actinomyces
Corynebacterium
Clostridium
Nocardia
Erysipelothrix
Lactobacillus
Listeria

88
Q

All spiral are gram?

A

Negative

89
Q

Yeast are gram?

A

Positive

90
Q

What is Acid-Fast stain?

A

Stains bacteria with high content of lipids and wax (Mycolic acid)

91
Q

What targets Acid fast stain?

A

Mycolic acid

92
Q

What is the sample for acid-fast stain?

A

Sputum

93
Q

What is the counterstain for acid fast stain?

A

Methylene blue

94
Q

What is the result for acid fast stain?

A

Acid fast: Red
Non acid fast: Blue

95
Q

What is acridine orange and its purpose?

A
  • a fluorescent stain that is use to detect nucleic acid in cell wall on both gram neg and pos.
  • The purpose of this is usually use on bacteria that is hard to discern.
96
Q

What is Calcofluor white?

A
  • stain that binds to chitin of fungi.

Apple-green and Blue white fluorescence = (+)

97
Q

What is Methylene blue?

A
  • use to detect metachromatic granules of Corynebacterium diphtheriae
  • Also use for counter stain in acid fast
98
Q

What is Lactophenol cotton blue?

A
  • use to detect chitin in slide cultures
99
Q

What is India ink?

A
  • india ink and nigrosin are negative stain that is use to detect Cryptococcus spp. or microorganisms with capsule.
100
Q

What is Endospore stain?

A
  • Also known as Schaefer-Fulton spore stain that is commonly use to stain bacterial spores.
101
Q

What is the Primary stain for Schaefer-Fulton spore stain?

A

Malachite green

102
Q

What is the Counter stain for Schaefer-Fulton spore stain?

A

Safranin

103
Q

What are the nutritional requirement for GROWTH?

A

Carbon source: 50%
Nitrogen: 14%
ATP

Minerals:
- Phosphate (Nucleic acids)
- Phospholipids (Cell membrane)

Water : for faster replication

104
Q

2 Classifications of nutritional requirement?

A

Autotrophs and heterotrophs

105
Q

What is autotrophs?

A
  • required inorganic carbon such as Carbon dioxide
106
Q

What is Heterotrophs?

A
  • Utilizes Organic carbon such as glucose and carbohydrates in the human body
107
Q

What are the requirements for human pathogens in order for them to do damage?

A

Carbohydrates and glucose

108
Q

A growth medium that is simple and completely define?

This type of medium is not usually use in diagnostic lab

A

Minimal medium

109
Q

A complex medium that uses extracts of meats or soybeans?

A

Nutrient media

110
Q

A media that contains Growth factors such as blood and vitamins?

A

Enriched media

111
Q

A media that contains additives that inhibits the growth of some bacteria and only other bacteria grows?

A

Selective media

112
Q

A media that visualize the Metabolic difference of bacteria

A

Differential media

113
Q

What are the 3 main environmental factors influencing growth of bacteria?

A

pH, Temp, and Gaseous composition

114
Q

What is the pH for neutrophilic

A

7.0 - 7.5 (Pathogenic bacteria)

115
Q

What is the pH for acidophilic

A

<7 (Lactobacillus)

116
Q

What is the pH for basophilic

A

> 7.5 (Vibrio cholera)

117
Q

What is the temp for psychrophiles

A

0 - 20 Degrees Celsius

Listeria monocytogenes
Yersinia enterocolitica

118
Q

What is the temp Mesophiles?

A

20 - 40 degrees celsius

Pathogenic bacteria

119
Q

What is the temp Thermophiles

A

40 - 60 degrees Celsius

Thermus aquaticus

120
Q

A bacteria that requires oxygen for growth
Give example of this bacteria

A

Obligate aerobes

Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Micrococcus
Corynebacterium jeikeium

121
Q

A bacteria that cannot grow in the presence of oxygen
Give example of this bacteria

A

Obligate anaerobes

Bacteroides
Actinomyces
Staphylococcus saprophyticus

122
Q

A bacteria that can live in the presence of oxygen but does not utilize it
Give example of this bacteria

A

Aerotolerant anaerobes

Lactobacillus

123
Q

A bacteria that can live with or without oxygen
Give example of this bacteria

A

Facultative anaerobes

Salmonella typhi
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

124
Q

A bacteria that can live 5 - 10% of carbon dioxide
Give example of this bacteria

A

Capnophilic

Neisseria
Haemophilus
Streptococcus pneumoniae

125
Q

A bacteria that can live in a reduced amount of oxygen
Give example of this bacteria

A

Microaerophilic

Campylobacter spp.
Helicobacter spp.

126
Q

How bacteria replicate?

A

Binary fission

127
Q

Time required for one cell to divide, also known as doubling time

A

Generation time

128
Q

In growth curve, a phase where bacteria are preparing to divide, increase in size only

A

Lag phase/ Adjustment phase

129
Q

In growth curve, a phase where bacterial number are increase

A

Log phase/ Exponential phase

130
Q

In growth curve a phase where nutrients are limited and no growth occur

A

Stationary phase/plateau phase

131
Q

In growth curve, increase death rate

A

Death phase

132
Q

Method where it use count bacteria directly in the microscope, however, it does not distinguish life and death

A

Direct counting under the microscope

133
Q

This method is use to determine the number of colony in the sample

It can be use in determining the bacterial cell count in urine cultures

A

Direct plate count

134
Q

Measures the cloudiness or turbidity of the sample usually in the test tube

A

Density measurement

135
Q

In metabolism, Conversion of either organic and inorganic substance to carbon
source

A

Utilization of a variety of substrates as carbon sources

136
Q

In metabolism, this is an example for “Glucose breakdown would yield acetone”

A

Production of specific end products from various substrates

137
Q

In metabolism, this is an example where amino acid utilization result to alkaline

A

Production of an acid or alkaline in the test medium

138
Q

Determine the ability of an organism to use sodium citrate, malonate or
acetate as the sole source of carbon

A

Citrate, Malonate, or acetate utilization

139
Q

What is the indicator for Citrate, Malonate, or acetate utilization

A

Bromothymol blue

140
Q

Determines the end products of glucose fermentation

A

MR-VP (Methyl Red - Voges-Proskauer)

141
Q

What is the first pathway fo MR-VP?

What is end product of your answer?

A

Produces mixed acid

Lactic
Acetic
Succinic
Formic acid

142
Q

What is the second pathway for MR-VP?

A

Produces acetoin = Alkaline

143
Q

What are the 2 mechanisms for carbohydrate utilization

A

Fermentation and Respiration

144
Q

An Anaerobic process of energy production but less efficient

A

Fermentation

145
Q

What are the end product for fermentation

A

LEAB
Acid pH

Lactic
Ethanol
Acetoin
Butyrate

146
Q

What is the final electron acceptor for fermentation?

A

Organic compound

147
Q

An Aerobic process of energy production that is more efficient

A

Respiration

148
Q

What is the final electron acceptor for respiration?

A

Oxygen

149
Q

What molecule maintains Kreb cycle?

A

NAD (Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide)

150
Q

What bacteria detects by MR-VP

A

Enterobacteriaceae

151
Q

In EMP (Embden-Meyerhof-Parnas), what are the bacteria utilizes this pathway?

A

Enterobacteriaceae
Mycobacteriaceae

152
Q

In Pentose phosphate pathway, what are the bacteria utilizes this pathway?

A

Lactobacilli(us)
Brucella Abortus

153
Q

In Entner-Doudoroff pathway,
what are the bacteria utilizes this pathway?

A

Pseudomonas (obligate aerobes)
Micrococcus
Mycobacterium
Alcaligenes
Enterococcus faecalis

154
Q

What are the 3 Biochemical Pathway utilized by the bacteria

A

® Embden-Meyerhof-Parnas
® Pentose phosphate pathway
® Entner-Doudoroff pathway

155
Q

What is the starting carbohydrate for bacterial fermentation or oxidation?

A

glucose

156
Q

What is the end product of alcohol fermetation?

A

Ethanol

157
Q

In alcohol fermentation, carbohydrates are broken down by what organisms

A

Yeast

158
Q

A type of fermentation where pyruvic acid is broken down to lactic acid

A

Homolactic fermentation

159
Q

What organisms uses Homolactic fermentation?

A

Streptococcus and lactobacillus

160
Q

Also known as Mixed acid pathway?

A

Heterolactic fermentation

161
Q

What bacteria uses heterolactic fermentation?

A

Lactobacillus

162
Q

A type of fermentation that break down pyruvic into propionic acid?

A

Propionic Acid Fermentation

163
Q

What bacteria uses propionic Acid fermentation?

A

Propionibacterium acnes

164
Q

In Mixed acid fermentation, what bacteria is positive in MR?

A

Escherichia
Salmonella
Shigella

165
Q

In Butanediol fermentation, what is the end product? (VP)

A

acetoin
2,3-butanediol

More on alkaline environment

166
Q

What bacteria utilizes Butanediol fermentation

A

Klebsiella
Enterobacter
Serratia

167
Q

What bacteria utilizes Butyric acid fermentation?

A

Clostridium
Fusobacterium
Eubacterium

(Obligate anaerobes)

168
Q

What is the end product of aerobic pathway or the krebs cycle?

A

ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate)

169
Q

It is a series of chemical reaction that is used by aerobic organisms to convert carbohydrate to carbon dioxide and produce ATP

A

Krebs cycle (Tricarboxylic acid cycle)

170
Q

What bacteria use for lactose fermentation?

A

Enterobacteriaceae

171
Q

What agar is used to ferment lactose?

A

MacConkey agar

172
Q

A Mechanism gene transfer that incorporates DNA from extracellular environment to recipient bacteria.

A

Transformation

173
Q

What do you call a cells that can take up naked DNA?

A

Competent

174
Q

A Mechanism gene transfer that uses bacteriophage as a medium for transfer of genes to the bacteria.

A

Transduction

175
Q

A Mechanism gene transfer where DNA is transfer through cell to cell contact (Pili)

A

Conjugation

176
Q

Enzymes that cut DNA on a specific area of plasmids

A

Restriction enzymes.

Bacte Lec (Overview) [Prelims 1] (34 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions