Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

First Aid > Virology > Flashcards

Virology Flashcards

1
Q

What is viral recombination?

A

exchange of genes between two chromosomes that have significant base pair homology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is viral reassortment?

A

when viruses with segmented genomes exchange segments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is viral complementation?

A

when two viruses co-infect a cell and one virus contributes a functional protein to the other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the eight live attenuated viruses?

A

Measles/Mumps/Rubella

Sabin

Smallpox

Yellow fever

varicella

intranasal flu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the four killed viruses?

A

Rabies

Influenza

Polio

hAv

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What three nonlinear DNA viruses?

A

papilloma

polyoma

hepadna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the two polyoma viruses?

A

JC and BK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the only dsRNA virus?

A

Reoviridae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the positive stranded RNA viruses?

A

Retro

Toga

Flavi

Corona

Hepevirus

calcivirus

Picornavirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the two types of nucleic acid that are infective?

A

dsDNA and (+) ssRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The dsDNA of which two viruses is not infective?

A

HBV and poxvirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where do DNA viruses replicate? Except?

A

nucleus

Pox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where do all RNA viruses replicate? Two exceptions?

A

cytoplasm

retro and influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the eight non-enveloped viruses?

A

Papilloma

Adeno

parvo

Polymo

Calvi

Picorna

Reo

Hepeviridae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which virus gains its envelope from the nuclear membrane?

A

Herpes viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which are the DNA containing non-enveloped?

A

Papillo

Adeno

Parvo

polymo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which are the RNA containing non-enveloped?

A

calvi

picorna

reo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which are the seven DNA viruses?

A

Hepadna

Herpes

Adeno

Parvo

Pox

papilloma

polymo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which DNA virus contains its own DNA dependent RNA polymerase?

A

Pox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which virus is HHV5?

A

CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which virus is HHV6?

A

roseola

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are two common presenting symptoms of HHV6?

A

fever for 3-5 days followed by truncal rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which virus is one of the most common causes of febrile seizure in kids?

A

Roseola

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Is HBV circular or linear?

A

circular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which DNA virus has reverse transcriptase?

A

HBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which virus causes pink eye?

A

Adeno

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the most common presenting symptom of parvovirus in adults?

A

arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where does the rubella rash start? Where do it go?

A

head

down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What virus can cause lymphadenopathy in the mother?

A

Rubella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What two locations can Rubella cause lymphadenopathy?

A

occipital and posterior auricular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Is dynein retrograde or anterograde?

A

retro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Cowdry A bodies are indicative of which three viruses?

A

HSV

CMV

VZV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which virus can cause swelling of the gums?

A

Herpes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How is VZV transmitted?

A

respiratory secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which cell surface receptor does EBV bind?

A

CD21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Ampicillin can cause a rash in people infected with what virus?

A

EBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What CD molecule is contained on the atypical Tcells on peripheral smear during EBV infection?

A

CD8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Would mononucleosis-like illness caused by CMV be monospot negative or positive?

A

negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Kaposis sarcoma is a neoplastic proliferation of what cell type?

A

endothelial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What two locations can Kaposi’s sarcoma infect other than the skin?

A

GI and lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How is roseola transferred?

A

Saliva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the four symptoms of Dengue Fever?

A

leukopenia

thrombocytopenia

retro-orbital pain

ecchymoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which virus causes Herpangina?

A

Coxsackie A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the five picornavirus?

A

Polio

Echo

Rhino

Coxsackie

HAV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the only hepevirus?

A

HEV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the only calcivirus?

A

Noro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the two retroviruses?

A

HIV and HTLV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the four Paramyxoviridae?

A

Parainfluenza

Mumps/Measles

RSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the two Filoviruses?

A

Ebola and Marburg (hemorrhagic fever)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the four Bunyaviruses?

A

California encephalitis

sandfly/rift valley

crimean-congo hemorrhagic fever

Hanta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which two picarnoviruses are known to cause aseptic meningitis?

A

Echo

Coxsackie

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Where is rhinovirus destroyed?

A

stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which mosquito transmits Yellow Fever?

A

Aedes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the three symptoms of Yellow Fever infection?

A

high fever

black vomitus

jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What two viruses are Reoviruses?

A

Rota and Colti

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Is granuloma inguinale painful or painless?

A

painless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the function of hemagglutinin?

A

promote viral entry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the function of neuraminidase?

A

promote virion release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the three main presenting symptoms of rubella in the neonate?

A

PDA/pulmoary stenosis

Cataracts

deafness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Is measles an ascending or descending rash?

A

descending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is used to prevent severe exfoliative dermatitis during a measles infection?

A

Vitamin A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the three inflammatory sites of mumps?

A

Orchitis

Parotiditis

Meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Where are the two locations of Negri bodies?

A

Purkinje cells of cerebellum

hippocampal neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What receptor does rabies bind?

A

NAchR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is a mnemonic to remember that HAV and HEV are fecal-oral?

A

Vowels hit your Bowels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Does HBV or HCV incorporate itself into the host virus?

A

HBV

67
Q

How does HCV cause HCC?

A

chronic inflammation

68
Q

Which hepatitis is the only DNA containing virus?

A

HBV

69
Q

What are the two antibodies present in the Window Period?

A

anti-HBe

anti-HBc

70
Q

Which is higher during viral hepatitis, ALT or AST?

A

ALT

71
Q

Which hepatitis virus has a polymerase that contains both DNA and RNA activity?

A

HBV

72
Q

IFN-alpha and what drug for hepatitis B?

A

Lamivudine

73
Q

IFN-alpha and what drug for hepatitis C?

A

Ribavirin

74
Q

What is the function of gp120?

A

binds CD4

75
Q

What is the function of gp41?

A

fusion and entry

76
Q

Which antibody can cross the placenta during HIV?

A

anti-gp120

77
Q

CD4 count below what for P. jiroveci?

A

200

78
Q

CD4 count below what for Toxo?

A

100

79
Q

CD4 count below what for MAC?

A

50

80
Q

Which two proteins form the HIV envelope?

A

gp120 and gp41

81
Q

Which virus has a diploid genome?

A

diploid

82
Q

How is transmission of HIV from mothers to offpspring diagnosed?

A

PCR

83
Q

What are the two common locations of Kaposi?

A

skin and GI tract

84
Q

Where does HIV replicate during the Latent Phase?

A

Lymph nodes

85
Q

What are the two markers for MAC?

A

ALP and LDH

86
Q

What temperature can MAC grow at?

A

41

87
Q

What structure is unique to Candida?

A

pseudohyphae

88
Q

What is the CD4 count for candida to manifest orally?

A

400

89
Q

What is the CD4 count for candida to manifest in the esophagus?

A

100

90
Q

What virus causes hairy leukoplakia?

A

EBV

91
Q

What kind if proliferation does Bartonella Heneslae produce?

A

superficial vascular

92
Q

What immune cell invades during Bartonella Heneslae vaccination?

A

neutrophil

93
Q

Which organism can produce acid fast cysts?

A

Cryptosporidium parvum

94
Q

What does the CD4 count drop below for Cryptosporidium parvum to mainfest?

A
95
Q

What immune cell invades during HHV8 vaccination?

A

lymphocyte

96
Q

Which virus can cause pneumonia in immunocompromised people?

A

CMV

97
Q

Which two cells does CMV maintain latency in?

A

monocytes or lymphocytes

98
Q

Name three symptoms of West Nile?

A

febrile

rash

flaccid paralysis

99
Q

How can the rash between rubella and measles be differentiated?

A

rubella doesnt effect hands or feet

100
Q

Which virus can cause giant cell pneumonia?

A

measles

101
Q

Which virus has a polymerase with both DNA and RNA polymerase properties?

A

HBV

102
Q

Does HBV or HCV causes cirrhosis?

A

HCV

103
Q

Would newborns have mildly elevated or drastically elevated liver enzymes if prenatally infected with HBV?

A

mildly

104
Q

Where in the HIV molecule p24 found?

A

capsid

105
Q

What three genes are found within HIV pol?

A

reverse transcriptase

integrase

aspartase protease

106
Q

Does HIV reverse transcriptase synthesize ssDNA or dsDNA?

A

dsDNA

107
Q

Is CCR5 early or late?

A

early

108
Q

Is CXCR4 early or late?

A

late

109
Q

Which two GP molecules of HIV undergo constant antigenic variation?

A

gp120 and gp41

110
Q

Which GP molecule of HIV binds the co-receptor?

A

gp120

111
Q

Which two picornaviruses do not cause meningitis?

A

Rhino and HAV

112
Q

What is Phenotypic Mixing?

A

when two viruses share surface proteins

113
Q

What type of vaccine for Rota virus?

A

live attenuated

114
Q

What two viruses have recombinant vaccines?

A

HBV and HPV

115
Q

Which virus can cause hemorrhagic cystitis?

A

adeno

116
Q

What is the largest DNA virus?

A

pox virus

117
Q

Which lymph nodes are notorious for being infected during Mononucleosis?

A

posterior cervical

118
Q

Which protein can HHV8 Inactivate?

A

Rb

119
Q

A second infection of Dengue causing severe symptoms is caused by what?

A

different serotypes

120
Q

Which two picarnovirus causes aseptic meningitis?

A

Echo and Coxsackie

121
Q

What are the five Flaviviruses?

A

HCV

Yellow fever

Dengue

St. Louis Encephalitis

West Nile

122
Q

What are the three Toga viruses?

A

Rubella

Eastern Equine

Western Equine

123
Q

What are the two Arenaviruses?

A

Lassa fever

Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus

124
Q

What animal carries Lassa Fever?

A

mouse

125
Q

Which virus family does Hantavirus belong to?

A

Bunya

126
Q

What are symptoms of Hantavirus infection?

A

pulmonary edema

hypotension

coagulopathy

127
Q

“Owl Eye” inclusions are indicative of what virus?

A

CMV

128
Q

A large translated polypeptide is indicative of what viral family?

A

Picorna

129
Q

Which is the only Picornavirus that does not spread Fecally/Orally?

A

Rhino

130
Q

What zone of the liver is affected by Yellow Fever?

A

Zone two

131
Q

What causes an epidemic, genetic shift or genetic drift?

A

drift

132
Q

What causes an pandemic, genetic shift or genetic drift?

A

shift

133
Q

Where on the body does Rubella produce a rash?

A

trunk

134
Q

What is the antibody for all Paramyxoviridae? Against what?

A

Palivizumab

Fusion Protein

135
Q

Does Croup produce an inspiratory or expiratory stridor?

A

inspiratory

136
Q

What is another name for Measles?

A

Rubeola

137
Q

Where on the body does Measles begin?

A

neck and hairline

138
Q

Does Measles effect hands and feet?

A

yes

139
Q

Does Rubella effect hands and feet?

A

no

140
Q

HCV displays antigenic variation of what structure?

A

envelope proteins

141
Q

Why does HCV display such a degree of antigenic variation?

A

RNA dependent RNA polymerase has no 3’-5’ exonuclease activity

142
Q

Which virus is “bullett-shaped”?

A

rabies

143
Q

Ground Glass cytoplasm is what hepatitis virus?

A

HBV

144
Q

Lymphoid Aggregates is indicative of which hepatitis virus?

A

HCV

145
Q

What is super-infection?

A

same time

146
Q

What is CO-infection?

A

different times

147
Q

Which hepatitis virus has a polymerase with DNA and RNA polymerase activities?

A

HBV

148
Q

Regarding HBV, does the host or virus polymerase complete the dsDNA molecule?

A

virus

149
Q

Regarding HBV, does the host or virus polymerase complete the mRNA molecule?

A

host

150
Q

What type of drug is Lamivudine?

A

NRTI

151
Q

Which two proteins of HIV form the envelope?

A

gp120

gp41

152
Q

What is the HIV Matrix Protein?

A

gp17

153
Q

Which protein of HIV is the first to rise in an infection?

A

P24

154
Q

HIV testing results in false negatives during which months?

A

1-2 months

155
Q

Is CCR5 on Tcells or macrophages?

A

macrophages

156
Q

Is CXCR4 on Tcells or macrophages?

A

Tcells

157
Q

What are the two events for the early infective period of HIV?

A

wide dissemination of virus

seeding of lymphoid organs

158
Q

What are the two infectious sources of RIng Enhancing Lesions?

A

Toxo

EBV lymphoma

159
Q

What brain tumor can produce a ring enhancing lesion?

A

GBM

160
Q

Which is glycosylated, gp160 or gp120 or gp41?

A

gp160

161
Q

Which elevates transaminases more, HBV or HCV?

A

HBV

162
Q

Does HbsAg appear before or after the onset of symptoms?

A

before

163
Q

What produces hemoptysis, Aspergillus or P. jirovecii?

A

Aspergillus

First Aid (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions