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First Aid > Muscle/Skin/CT > Flashcards

Muscle/Skin/CT Flashcards

1
Q

Which layer of the epidermis is connected by desmosomes?

A

stratum granulosum

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2
Q

What is another name for tight junctions?

A

zona occludens

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3
Q

What two proteins are contained in zona occludens?

A

claudins and occludins

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4
Q

What is the function of integrins?

A

maintain integrity of basement membrane

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5
Q

Integrins connect to which two proteins outside of cell?

A

collagen and laminin

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6
Q

What does cadherins stand for?

A

Ca2+ dependent adhesion proteins

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7
Q

What is the function of cadherins?

A

to connect adjacent cells cytoskeleton

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8
Q

Loss of what protein promotes metastasis?

A

E-cadherins

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9
Q

What is another name for desmosomes?

A

macula adherens

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10
Q

What disease targets desmosomes?

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

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11
Q

Nerve that cant open doors?

A

thoracodorsal

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12
Q

What is the purpose of the hemidesmosome?

A

connest keratin to underlying basement membrane

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13
Q

Where does one aim for a pudendal nerve block?

A

ischial spine

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14
Q

What nerve innervates the supraspinatus? Roots of this nerve?

A

suprascapular nerve

C5-C6

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15
Q

What nerve innervates the infraspinatus? Function?

A

suprascapular

lateral rotation

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16
Q

What nerve innervates the teres minor? Function?

A

axillary

external rotation and adduction

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17
Q

What nerve innervates the subscapularis? Function of subscapularis?

A

subscapular nerve

internal rotation of humerus

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18
Q

What are two causes of low ALP?

A

pernicious anemia and hypothyroidism

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19
Q

What is the cofactor for collagenase?

A

zinc

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20
Q

Dislocation of what carpal bone can lead to acute carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

lunate

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21
Q

What nerve runs over hamate? What canal?

A

ulnar

Guyon canal

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22
Q

What two roots are damaged during Erb’s Palsy?

A

C5/C6

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23
Q

What four muscles are damaged during Erbs Palsy?

A

Infra and supra spinatus

Deltoid

biceps

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24
Q

What roots are damaged during Klumpke’s Paralysis?

A

C8/T1

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25
Q

How does Klumpke’s Paralysis present?

A

claw hand

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26
Q

What are the functions of the lumbricals?

A

flex MCP

extend DIP and PIP

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27
Q

What are the roots of the axillary nerve?

A

C5/C6

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28
Q

Two examples the axillary nerve can become damaged?

A

surgical neck of humerus fractuce

anterior dislocation of humerus

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29
Q

What is the dermatome for the lateral forearm?

A

C5

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30
Q

Midshaft fracture of the humerus would damage what nerve?

A

radial

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31
Q

What nerve roots make up the radial nerve?

A

C5-T1

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32
Q

What nerve roots make up the musculocutaneous nerve?

A

C5-C7

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33
Q

What is required for maximum finger flexion strength?

A

wrist extension

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34
Q

What three muscles are innervated by the median nerve?

A

opponens pollcis

abductor pollicis brevis

flexor pollicis brevis

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35
Q

What are the nerve roots of the obturator nerve?

A

L2-L4

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36
Q

What are the nerve roots of the femoral nerve?

A

L2-L4

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37
Q

A pelvic fracture would damage what nerve? What two actions would be inhibited?

A

femoral

thigh extension and leg extension

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38
Q

What are the nerve roots of the common peroneal nerve?

A

L4-S2

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39
Q

What are the nerve roots of the tibial nerve?

A

L4-S3

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40
Q

What are the nerve roots for the sciatic nerve?

A

L4-S3

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41
Q

What are the nerve roots for the superior gluteal?

A

L4-S1

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42
Q

What are the nerve roots for the inferior gluteal?

A

L5-S2

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43
Q

Does the hip drop on the same side or opposite side as the lesion during a Trendelenberg sign?

A

opposite

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44
Q

Difficulty climbing stairs and rising from a seated position would be indicative of a lesion to what nerve?

A

inferior gluteal

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45
Q

Which nerve is responsible for extending the hip?

A

inferior gluteal

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46
Q

What artery runs in relation to the radial nerve of the posterior surface of the humerus?

A

deep brachial

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47
Q

What artery runs in relation to the axillary nerve?

A

posterior humeral circumflex

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48
Q

What artery runs with the long thoracic nerve?

A

lateral thoracic

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49
Q

What artery runs with the median nerve in the cubital fossa?

A

brachial artery

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50
Q

What artery is posterior to the medial malleolus?

A

posterior tibial

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51
Q

What receptor on skeletal muscle mediates calcium release?

A

ryanodine receptor

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52
Q

What receptor is coupled to the ryanodine receptor? What is the receptor sensitive to?

A

Dihydropyrridine

voltage

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53
Q

What protein covers the actin binding sites of myosin during on resting muscle?

A

tropomyosin

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54
Q

Which color are the slow twitch fibers? Type?

A

red

one

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55
Q

Which color are the fast twitch fibers? Type?

A

white

two

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56
Q

Which fiber hypertrophies during weight training?

A

white

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57
Q

What protein does cGMP activate?

A

MLCP

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58
Q

What cell line do osteoclasts differentiate from?

A

macrophages

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59
Q

What causes Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica?

A

hyperparathyroidism

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60
Q

What process fails during Achondroplasia?

A

Endochondral ossification

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61
Q

What receptor is implicated during Achondroplasia? What happens to this receptor?

A

FGFR3

constitutive activity

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62
Q

How does Achondroplasia most often arise?

A

Sporadically

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63
Q

What common factor is Achondroplasia associated with?

A

advanced paternal age

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64
Q

What other kind of inheritance can Achondroplasia display?

A

Autosomal Dominant

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65
Q

What does a DEXA score have to be in order to diagnose osteoporosis?

A

> -2.5

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66
Q

What is Type I osteoporosis?

A

descreased estrogen

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67
Q

What is Type II osteoporosis?

A

old age

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68
Q

What antibody targets the RANK Ligand?

A

Denosumab

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69
Q

What is the PGE1 Analogue?

A

Alprostadil

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70
Q

What cell is defective during Osteopetorsis?

A

osteoclasts

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71
Q

What enzyme is absent during osteopetrosis?

A

Carbonic anhydrase two

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72
Q

What is the hematological consequence of osteopetrosis?

A

pancytopenia

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73
Q

What is the treatment for osteopetrosis?

A

bone marrow transplant

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74
Q

What cell is hyperactive during Osteomalacia?

A

osteoblasts

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75
Q

What would be the only laboratory abnormality during Pagets Disease of Bone disease?

A

highly increased ALP

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76
Q

What cells are defective during Pagets Disease of Bone?

A

osteoclasts and osteoblasts

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77
Q

What two patterns are taken by Pagets Disease of Bone?

A

Mosaic and lamellar

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78
Q

Pagets Disease of Bone increases the risk of what cancer?

A

osteosarcoma

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79
Q

What does Pagets Disease of Bone do to the circulation?

A

high-output heart failure

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80
Q

What does Pagets Disease of Bone do to the head?

A

thickening of the calvarium

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81
Q

What is the most common site of Avascular necrosis? Due to what vessel?

A

femoral head

medial femoral circumflex

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82
Q

What two drugs can cause Avascular Necrosis?

A

steroids

high-dose corticosteroids

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83
Q

What modifiable risk factor can lead to Avascular Necrosis?

A

alcoholism

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84
Q

What genetic disease can cause Avascular Necrosis?

A

sickle cell

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85
Q

What would the levels of ALP be during Osteomalacia?

A

high

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86
Q

What would the levels of PTH be during Osteomalacia?

A

high

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87
Q

What are the levels of phosphate during osteomalacia?

A

low

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88
Q

Where in the bone does a Giant Cell Tumor arise?

A

epiphysis

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89
Q

What is the key phrase for Giant cell Tumor?

A

soap bubble

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90
Q

What type of cells are seen during a Giant Cell Tumor?

A

Multinucleated giant cell

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91
Q

How does an osteochondroma arise?

A

lateral projection of growth plate (metaphysis)

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92
Q

What bone tumor displays bimodal distribution?

A

osteosarcoma

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93
Q

What defective protein is associated with osteosarcoma?

A

p53

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94
Q

What disease can give rise to an osteosarcoma?

A

Pagets Disease of Bone

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95
Q

What bone cancer could be caused by radiation?

A

osteosarcoma

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96
Q

Sunburst appearance is indicative of what bone cancer? What causes this?

A

osteosarcoma

‘lifting of periosteum’

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97
Q

What part of the bone does Ewing Sarcoma arise in?

A

diaphysis

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98
Q

What is the population demographic for Ewing Sarcoma?

A

boys under the age of 15

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99
Q

Small blue cells means?

A

Ewing

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100
Q

“Onion skin” means?

A

Ewings

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101
Q

What is the translocation present during Ewings?

A

t(11:22)

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102
Q

What can an osteochondroma transform into?

A

chondrosarcoma

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103
Q

What type of immune reactions take place during Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A

three and four

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104
Q

What type of necrosis takes place in rheumatoid nodules?

A

fibrinoid

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105
Q

What is the HLA during rheumatoid?

A

HLA-DR4

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106
Q

What is the more specific antibody for rheumatoid?

A

anti-cyclic citrullinated antibody

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107
Q

What part of the skeleton is a chondrosarcoma located?

A

axial skeleton

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108
Q

Where in the bone is a chondrosarcoma located?

A

inside medullary cavity

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109
Q

What are two unusual presentation of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

pleuritis

pericarditis

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110
Q

What two glands are destroyed during Sjogren Syndrome?

A

lacrimal and salivary

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111
Q

What are the two auto-antibodies present during Sjogrens Syndrome?

A

anti-SS-A (Ro)

anti-SS-B (La)

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112
Q

What do the auto-antibodies target during Sjogrens?

A

anti-nuclear

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113
Q

Which gland can enlarge during Sjogrens?

A

parotid

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114
Q

What is Sicca Syndrome?

A

only dry eyes and dry mouth of Sjogrens

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115
Q

What are the three causes of MALT Lymphoma?

A

Sjogrens

Hashimoto

H. pylori

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116
Q

Which immune cells invade the gland during Sjogrens Syndrome?

A

lymphocytic

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117
Q

Why could Von Gierke disease produce gout?

A

lactic acidosis and lactate competes with urate for excretion

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118
Q

What color are gout crystals under parallel light?

A

yellow

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119
Q

What color are gout crystals under perpendicular light?

A

blue

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120
Q

Why does alcohol exacerbate gout?

A

alcohol metabolites competes with same transporter in the kidney for excretion

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121
Q

Which three drugs can be used in acute gout exacerbation?

A

indomethacin

colchicine

glucocorticoids

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122
Q

What two drugs can be used for gout prevention?

A

allopurinol and feboxostat

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123
Q

What is deposited during pseudo?

A

calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate

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124
Q

What is the shape of pseudogout crystals?

A

rhomboid

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125
Q

Which is birefringent, gout or pseudogout?

A

pseudogout

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126
Q

Which joint is clasically effected by pseudogout?

A

knee

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127
Q

What three diseases are associated with pseudogout?

A

hemochromatosis

hyperparathyroidism

hypoparathyroidism

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128
Q

What three drugs are used for pseudogout?

A

steroids

NSAIDs

colchicine

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129
Q

What are the three common bacteria for infectious arthritis?

A

Streptococcus

S. aureus

N. gonorrhoeae

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130
Q

What is ‘STD’ regarding Infectious Arthritis?

A

Synovitis of knee

Tenosynovitis of hand

Dermatitis

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131
Q

What does HLA-B27 code for?

A

MHC one

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132
Q

Which non-skeletal issues take place during Ankylosing Spondylti?

A

Uveitis

Aortitis

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133
Q

What four bugs can cause a GI infection what can lead to Reactive Arthritis?

A

Shigella/Salmonella

Campylobacter

Yersinia

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134
Q

What STD bug can lead to reactive arthritis?

A

Chlamydia

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135
Q

What race is more common to have SLE?

A

black

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136
Q

What nephritic syndrome does lupus present?

A

Diffuse Proliferative Glomerulonephritis

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137
Q

What nephrotic syndrome does lupus present?

A

membranous nephropathy

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138
Q

What are the three most common causes of death in Lupus?

A

Cardiac

Renal

Infection

139
Q

Which bug can a patient with lupus test positive for?

A

Treponema pallidum

140
Q

Are anti-dsDNA antibodies specific or sensitive for lupus? What do they indicate?

A

specific

renal disease

141
Q

What do anti-Smith antibodies target? Sensitive or specific?

A

snRNPs

specific

142
Q

Which antibody can give a false-positive test for syphillis?

A

anti-cardiolipin

143
Q

What do anti-cardiolipin antibodies cause?

A

prolonged PTT

144
Q

Which two complement proteins are decreased during lupus?

A

C3 and C4

145
Q

When is cyclophosphamide used for lupus?

A

presence of end organ damage

146
Q

What three drugs are used to treat lupus?

A

NSAIDs

glucocorticoids

hydroxychloroquine

147
Q

What is the key phrase for sarcoidosis in the lung?

A

bilateral hilar adenopathy

148
Q

How is sarcoidosis treated?

A

sterpoids

149
Q

What is sarcoidosis on the nose called?

A

lupus pernio

150
Q

Is sarcoidosis restrictive or obstructive?

A

restrictive

151
Q

What skin condition does sarcoidosis present with?

A

erythema nodosum

152
Q

Schaumann bodies are found in what disease?

A

sarcoidosis

153
Q

What are Schaumann bodies?

A

calcium and protein inclusions inside a granuloma

154
Q

Asteroid bodies are seen in what disease?

A

sarcoidosis

155
Q

Which cranial nerve can be affected during sarcoidosis?

A

seven

156
Q

How is sarcoidosis treated?

A

steroids

157
Q

What is Polymyalgia Rheumatica?

A

pain/stiffness in shoulders and hips

158
Q

What other disease is polymyalgia rheumatica associated with?

A

temporal cell arteritis

159
Q

What would the two abnormal labs be during polymyalgia rheumatica?

A

Increase ESR

Increase CRP

160
Q

What is the Tx for polymyalgia rheumatica?

A

low-dose steroids

161
Q

What two drugs are used to treat fibromyalgia?

A

TCAs and SNRI

162
Q

What -myositis involves a malar rash?

A

dermatomyositis

163
Q

What is the same muscular presentation of dermatomyositis and polymyositis?

A

bilateral proximal weakness

164
Q

What gets inflammed during dermatomyositis?

A

perimysium

165
Q

Which -myositis presents with an eyelid rash?

A

dermatomyositis

166
Q

What are the two antibodies present during polymyositis/dermatomyositis?

A

ANA

anti-Jo

167
Q

What cell invades during dermatomyositis?

A

CD4

168
Q

What cell invades during polymyositis?

A

CD8

169
Q

What gets inflammed during polymyositis?

A

endomysium

170
Q

What enzyme is present during dermatomyositis/polymyositis?

A

increased creatine kinase

171
Q

What drug is used to treat dermatomyositis/polymyositis?

A

steroids

172
Q

What two eye movements are found during Myasthenia Gravis?

A

ptosis

diplopia

173
Q

What muscles are weakened during Lambert-Eaton?

A

proximal muscles

174
Q

What organ is implicated during Myasthenia Gravis?

A

thymoma

175
Q

Which neuromuscular junction disease presents with muscle weakness?

A

Lambert-Eaton

176
Q

What is Myositis Ossificans?

A

metaplasia of skeletal muscle following trauma

177
Q

What auto-antibody is present during Scleroderma? Against what?

A

anti-Scl-70

anti-DNA topoisomerase

178
Q

What is parakeratosis? Seen in what disease?

A

hyper-keratosis with retention of nuclei in stratum corneum

psoriasis

179
Q

Which two layers of the epidermis increase in size during Acanthosis?

A

spinosum

granulosum

180
Q

Melanocytes are derived from what cell type?

A

neural crest

181
Q

What causes Auspitz sign?

A

exposure of dermal papillae

182
Q

Which layer of the epidermis increases during psoriasis?

A

spinosum

183
Q

Which layer of the epidermis decreases during psoriasis?

A

granulosum

184
Q

Keratin filled cysts is indicative of what disease?

A

Seborrheic keratosis

185
Q

Other than GI, Leser-Trelat can be indicative of what type of malignancy?

A

lymphoid

186
Q

What are the two common bacterial causes of impetigo?

A

S. aureus

S. pyogenes

187
Q

What bacteria causes bullous impetigo?

A

S. aureus

188
Q

Is impetigo superficial or deep?

A

superficial

189
Q

Is cellulitis superficial or deep?

A

deep

190
Q

What two bacterial species are known to cause cellulitis?

A

S. aureus

S. pyogenes

191
Q

What bacteria causes Necrotizing Fasciitis?

A

S. pyogenes

192
Q

Which cell layer is destroyed during SSSS?

A

stratum granulosum

193
Q

What virus drives Hairy Leukoplakia?

A

EBV

194
Q

Which immunoglobulin mediaes pemphigus vulgaris?

A

IgG

195
Q

What protein is targeted by pemphigus vulgaris?

A

desmoglein of desmosomes

196
Q

Which cell layer is destroyed in pemphigus vulgaris?

A

stratum spinosum

197
Q

Which blistering skin disorder involves the oral mucosa?

A

Pemphigus Vulgaris

198
Q

Which immunoglobulin is involved in bullous pemphigoid?

A

IgG

199
Q

Which protein is targeted durign bullous pemphigoid?

A

hemidesmosomes

200
Q

What type of immune cell is found during bullous pemphigoid?

A

eosinophils

201
Q

What skin condition is caused by mycoplasma and herpes?

A

erythema multiforme

202
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is SJS?

A

type III

203
Q

Which four anti-epileptic drugs are known to causes SJS?

A

carbamazepine

ethosuximide

Lamotrigine

phenytoin

204
Q

Acanthosis nigricans could be indicative of what type of malignancy?

A

gastric adenocarcinoma

205
Q

What undergoes hyperplasia during acanthosis nigricans?

A

epidermis

206
Q

Is actinic keratosis benign or premalignant? For what?

A

premalignant

squamous cell carcinoma

207
Q

Where does Erythema Nodosum most often appear?

A

anterior shins

208
Q

What two yeasts can produce erythema nodosum?

A

Histoplasmosis

Coccidioiodomycosis

209
Q

What bacteria can cause Erythema Nodosum?

A

Streptococcal

210
Q

What autoimmune disease can cause Erythema nodosum?

A

Crohns

211
Q

What bacteria can produce erythema nodosum?

A

Leprosy/TB

212
Q

What infective disease is known to cause Lichen Planus?

A

HCV

213
Q

Christmas tree spread is indicative of what disease?

A

Pityriasis rosea

214
Q

What are Munro Abscesses?

A

collection of neutrophils in the stratum corenum

215
Q

When are Munro Abscesses seen?

A

Psoriasis

216
Q

Palisading Nuclei are seen in what disease?

A

BCC

217
Q

Arsenic exposure can cause what type of cancer?

A

SCC

218
Q

Immunosuppression is associated with what type of skin cancer?

A

Squamous

219
Q

Chronic draining sinuses are associated with what type of skin cancer?

A

squamous

220
Q

What type of skin metaplasia can grow rapidly and regress over months?

A

Keratoacanthoma

221
Q

Keratoacanthoma is what subset of what type of skin cancer?

A

squamous cell

222
Q

What is the marker for melanoma?

A

S100

223
Q

What correlates with melanoma metastasis?

A

depth of invasion

224
Q

What enzyme is over-active in melanoma?

A

BRAF kinase

225
Q

What is the poor prognostic enzyme in melanoma? Drug for this?

A

BRAF V600E

Vemurafenib

226
Q

Which enzyme yields leukotrienes?

A

Lipo-oxygenase

227
Q

Which leukotriene is a neutrophil chemoattractant?

A

LTB4

228
Q

What are the three function of LTC4/LTD4/LTE4?

A

bronchoconstriction

vasoconstriction

increase vascular permeability

229
Q

What are the two functions of PGI2?

A

inhibits platelet aggregation

vasodilation

230
Q

What two pro-inflammatory enzymes are inhibited by glucocorticoids?

A

PLA2 and COX2

231
Q

What drug blocks lipo-oxygenase?

A

zileuton

232
Q

What two drugs inhibit leukotrienes bring their receptor?

A

Montelukast

Zafirlukast

233
Q

What does aspirin do to PT and PTT?

A

nothing

234
Q

Which structures are medial and lateral in the carotid sheath?

A

CC= medial

IJ = lateral

235
Q

What nerve is posterior in the carotid sheath?

A

vagus

236
Q

What blood gas abnormality does aspirin overdose cause originally?

A

respiratory alkalosis

237
Q

What drug is used to close a PDA?

A

Indomethacin

238
Q

What are the two locations of COX?

A

vascular endothelium and inflammatory cells

239
Q

Patients with allergies to what drug should not take celecoxib?

A

sulfa

240
Q

In what organ is acetominophen active?

A

CNS

241
Q

What drug is given to children to avoid Reye Syndrome?

A

acetominophen

242
Q

What are bisphosphonates analogues of?

A

pyrophosphate

243
Q

What compound do bisphosphonates bind?

A

hydroxyapatite

244
Q

What are the two major side effects of bisphosphonates?

A

corrosive esophagitis

osteonecrosis of jaw

245
Q

Which two drugs can increase in their concentrations with the use of allopurinol?

A

azathioprine and 6MP

246
Q

What are the two inhibitors of Xanthine Oxidase?

A

allopurinol

febuxostat

247
Q

What drug does probenecid inhibit the secretion of?

A

penicillin

248
Q

What two drugs are used for acute gout attacks?

A

NSAIDs or indomethacin

249
Q

Which class of drugs can inadvertently decrease uric acid clearance?

A

salicylates

250
Q

What is the MOA of etanercept?

A

TNF decoy receptor

251
Q

What are the two TNF monoclonal antibodies?

A

Infliximab

Adalimumab

252
Q

Is TXA1 synthesis dependent on COX1 or COX2?

A

COX1

253
Q

Which muscle of the rotator cuff can be injured when pitching ?

A

infraspinatus

254
Q

What part of the brachial plexus is injured during Thoracic Outlet Syndrome? Same as?

A

lower trunk

Klumpke

255
Q

Deficits in which two nerves could produce clawing?

A

median or ulnar

256
Q

What nerve does polio preferentially effect?

A

superior gluteal

257
Q

What nerve can be severed by a posterior his dislocation?

A

inferior gluteal

258
Q

Which three muscle bands shink on contraction?

A

H

eye

zee

259
Q

On what organelle is the ryanodine receptor located?

A

endoplasmic reticulum

260
Q

Which type of muscle has higher mitochondria content?

A

Type 1

261
Q

Which type of muscle can perform more anaerobic glycolysis?

A

Type Two

262
Q

Which type of muscle can perform more oxidative phosphorylation?

A

Type one

263
Q

Which two sets of bones undergo membranous ossification?

A

facial and calvarium

264
Q

What cells do osteoblasts differentiate from?

A

mesenchymal

265
Q

What two mechanisms does estrogen protect bones?

A

inhibits apoptosis or osteoblasts

promotes apoptosis or osteoclasts

266
Q

What are two common locations of fracture due to osteoporosis?

A

femoral neck

distal radius

267
Q

What is the only laboratory disturbance during severe osteopetrosis?

A

decreased calcium

268
Q

What is the only lab disturbance in Pagets Disease of Bone?

A

increased ALP

269
Q

Where in the bone does osteosarcoma occur?

A

metaphysis

270
Q

Is Sjogren Syndrome usually unilateral or bilateral?

A

bilateral

271
Q

What could a unilateral Sjogren Syndrome mean?

A

MALT lymphoma development

272
Q

Which other autoimmune disease is commonly associated with Sjogren Syndrome?

A

Rheumatoid

273
Q

What are the antibodies in CREST?

A

anti-centromere

274
Q

What two joints are most commonly affected during Psoriatic Arthritis?

A

PIP of hand and foot

275
Q

Drug for Ankylosing Spondylitis?

A

Infliximab

276
Q

What are the mnemonics to remember the different presentations of Lupus?

A

RASH OR PAIN

277
Q

What is the R of RASH OR PAIN?

A

rash (malar or discoid)

278
Q

What is the A of RASH OR PAIN?

A

arthritis

279
Q

What is the S of RASH OR PAIN?

A

Serositis

280
Q

What is the H of RASH OR PAIN?

A

Hematological disorders

281
Q

What is the O of RASH OR PAIN?

A

Oral/nasopharyngeal ulcers

282
Q

What is the R of RASH OR PAIN?

A

renal or reynaud

283
Q

What are the two Ps of RASH OR PAIN?

A

Photosensitivity

Positive for VDRL

284
Q

What is the A of RASH OR PAIN?

A

Antinuclear antibodies

285
Q

What is the I of RASH OR PAIN?

A

Immunosuppressants

286
Q

What is the N of RASH OR PAIN?

A

neurological disorders

287
Q

What does paradoxical mean regarding anti-Phospholipid Syndrome?

A

donor plasma does not reverse it

288
Q

What autoimmune disease can produce Bell’s Palsy?

A

Sarcoidosis

289
Q

How could sarcoidosis manifest in the eyes?

A

Uveitis

290
Q

What are Gottron Papules?

A

diffuse erythematous rash over MCP and ICP

291
Q

In what disease are Gottron Papules seen?

A

Dermatomyositis

292
Q

Which has an increased risk of maligancy, dermatomyositis or polymyositis?

A

dermatomyositis

293
Q

Does Polymyalgia Rheumatica have high, low or normal Creatinine Kinase?

A

normal

294
Q

Is CREST limited or diffuse scleroderma?

A

limited

295
Q

What does acantholysis mean?

A

separation of epidermal layer

296
Q

What autoimmune disease often features parakeratosis?

A

psoriasis

297
Q

What cell proliferates during Seborrheic Keratosis?

A

squamous epithelial cell

298
Q

What is destroyed during Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis?

A

dermal/epidermal junction

299
Q

What three drugs can cause Erythema Multiforme?

A

phenytoin

beta-lactam

Sulfa

300
Q

What two tumors can give rise to Paraneoplastic Pemphigus?

A

Chronic lymphocytic lymphoma

NHL

301
Q

What two autoimmune diseases can produce erythema nodosum?

A

Crohns and Sarcoidosis

302
Q

Which disease produces ‘Sawtooth’ infiltrate? What cell is infiltrating? Where?

A

Lichen Planus

Lymphocytes

dermal-epidermal junction

303
Q

Melanoma is associated with the loss of which two proteins?

A

p21

p16

304
Q

How long does it take for new platelets to be formed?

A

7 days

305
Q

Carbamazepine strongly inhibits what type of receptor?

A

cholinergic

306
Q

TNF antagonism blocks activation of what cell?

A

Macrophages

307
Q

What protein are desmosomes composed of?

A

keratin

308
Q

Not being able to open doors is indicative of a lesion to where?

A

thoracodorsal nerve

309
Q

Would a fracture of the 12th rib on the right be more likely to fracture the kidney or spleen?

A

kidney

310
Q

What part of the nerve can hyalinize during diabetes?

A

Endoneurium

311
Q

Is sensation to the palm affected during CTS? Why?

A

no

recurrent branch splits off before transverse carpal ligament

312
Q

Does skeletal muscle rely on extra-cellular calcium for contraction?

A

no

313
Q

Where in the bone can osteoblasts be found?

A

periosteum

314
Q

Would osteomalacia/rickets have increased or decreased ALP?

A

increased

315
Q

What group of drugs have been linked to osteoporosis?

A

PPIs

316
Q

What can be found in the urine during Pagets Disease?

A

hydroxyproline

317
Q

What age range is affected by Osteochondromas?

A

men under 25

318
Q

Which HPV serotypes cause plantar warts?

A

1-4

319
Q

Why does Von Gierkes cause gout?

A

increased lactic acid competes with uric acid for excretion

320
Q

Which auto-antibody is present with diffuse scleroderma?

A

Anti-topoisomerase One (scl-70)

321
Q

What is the function of snRNPs?

A

form spliceosome

322
Q

Is sarcoidosis driven by CD4 or CD8 cells?

A

CD4

323
Q

Which has autonomic nervous system symptoms, MG or EL?

A

Eaton Lambert

324
Q

What is hyperkeratosis?

A

thickening of stratum corneum

325
Q

What is spongiosis? Seen in what disease?

A

epidermal accumulation of fluid

eczematous dermatitis

326
Q

Is the number of melanocytes normal or low during albinism?

A

normal

327
Q

What produces vitiligo?

A

autoimmune destruction of melanocytes

328
Q

Where is a junctional nevus located?

A

along dermal/epidermal junction

329
Q

What is a compound nevus?

A

nevus that crosses into dermis?

330
Q

Which CDK molecule is associated with melanoma?

A

CDK2NA

331
Q

What cell layer is destroyed by SSSS toxin?

A

stratum granulosum

332
Q

What is the synthetic PGE1?

A

Epoprostenol

333
Q

What is the synthetic PGE2?

A

dinoprosol

334
Q

What is the synthetic PGF2?

A

carbaprost

335
Q

Which two prostaglandins increase uterine tone?

A

PGE2 and PGF2a

336
Q

Which sedative can shut down the HPA?

A

etomidate

337
Q

What is the MOA of acetaminophen?

A

reversible inhibition of COX

338
Q

What property does acetaminophen not possess?

A

anti-inflammatory

339
Q

What are the three uses of bisphosphonates?

A

Hycercalcemia

Osteoporosis

Pagets

340
Q

What reaction is catylzaed by Rasburicase? What drug also functions similarly?

A

uric acid to allantoin

Peglitocase

341
Q

What is another drug that functions similarly to probenecid?

A

Sulfipyrazone

342
Q

What drugs binds excess phosphate?

A

Sevalamer

343
Q

Which skin layer is absent on the soles of feet and palms of hands?

A

stratum lucidum

344
Q

Which steroid can be used for psoriasis? By inhibiting the growth of what cell?

A

calcipotriene

keratinocyte

First Aid (21 decks)

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