Muscle/Skin/CT Flashcards
1
Q
Which layer of the epidermis is connected by desmosomes?
A
stratum granulosum
2
Q
What is another name for tight junctions?
A
zona occludens
3
Q
What two proteins are contained in zona occludens?
A
claudins and occludins
4
Q
What is the function of integrins?
A
maintain integrity of basement membrane
5
Q
Integrins connect to which two proteins outside of cell?
A
collagen and laminin
6
Q
What does cadherins stand for?
A
Ca2+ dependent adhesion proteins
7
Q
What is the function of cadherins?
A
to connect adjacent cells cytoskeleton
8
Q
Loss of what protein promotes metastasis?
A
E-cadherins
9
Q
What is another name for desmosomes?
A
macula adherens
10
Q
What disease targets desmosomes?
A
Pemphigus vulgaris
11
Q
Nerve that cant open doors?
A
thoracodorsal
12
Q
What is the purpose of the hemidesmosome?
A
connest keratin to underlying basement membrane
13
Q
Where does one aim for a pudendal nerve block?
A
ischial spine
14
Q
What nerve innervates the supraspinatus? Roots of this nerve?
A
suprascapular nerve
C5-C6
15
Q
What nerve innervates the infraspinatus? Function?
A
suprascapular
lateral rotation
16
Q
What nerve innervates the teres minor? Function?
A
axillary
external rotation and adduction
17
Q
What nerve innervates the subscapularis? Function of subscapularis?
A
subscapular nerve
internal rotation of humerus
18
Q
What are two causes of low ALP?
A
pernicious anemia and hypothyroidism
19
Q
What is the cofactor for collagenase?
A
zinc
20
Q
Dislocation of what carpal bone can lead to acute carpal tunnel syndrome?
A
lunate
21
Q
What nerve runs over hamate? What canal?
A
ulnar
Guyon canal
22
Q
What two roots are damaged during Erb’s Palsy?
A
C5/C6
23
Q
What four muscles are damaged during Erbs Palsy?
A
Infra and supra spinatus
Deltoid
biceps
24
Q
What roots are damaged during Klumpke’s Paralysis?
A
C8/T1
25
How does Klumpke's Paralysis present?
claw hand
26
What are the functions of the lumbricals?
flex MCP
extend DIP and PIP
27
What are the roots of the axillary nerve?
C5/C6
28
Two examples the axillary nerve can become damaged?
surgical neck of humerus fractuce
anterior dislocation of humerus
29
What is the dermatome for the lateral forearm?
C5
30
Midshaft fracture of the humerus would damage what nerve?
radial
31
What nerve roots make up the radial nerve?
C5-T1
32
What nerve roots make up the musculocutaneous nerve?
C5-C7
33
What is required for maximum finger flexion strength?
wrist extension
34
What three muscles are innervated by the median nerve?
opponens pollcis
abductor pollicis brevis
flexor pollicis brevis
35
What are the nerve roots of the obturator nerve?
L2-L4
36
What are the nerve roots of the femoral nerve?
L2-L4
37
A pelvic fracture would damage what nerve? What two actions would be inhibited?
femoral
thigh extension and leg extension
38
What are the nerve roots of the common peroneal nerve?
L4-S2
39
What are the nerve roots of the tibial nerve?
L4-S3
40
What are the nerve roots for the sciatic nerve?
L4-S3
41
What are the nerve roots for the superior gluteal?
L4-S1
42
What are the nerve roots for the inferior gluteal?
L5-S2
43
Does the hip drop on the same side or opposite side as the lesion during a Trendelenberg sign?
opposite
44
Difficulty climbing stairs and rising from a seated position would be indicative of a lesion to what nerve?
inferior gluteal
45
Which nerve is responsible for extending the hip?
inferior gluteal
46
What artery runs in relation to the radial nerve of the posterior surface of the humerus?
deep brachial
47
What artery runs in relation to the axillary nerve?
posterior humeral circumflex
48
What artery runs with the long thoracic nerve?
lateral thoracic
49
What artery runs with the median nerve in the cubital fossa?
brachial artery
50
What artery is posterior to the medial malleolus?
posterior tibial
51
What receptor on skeletal muscle mediates calcium release?
ryanodine receptor
52
What receptor is coupled to the ryanodine receptor? What is the receptor sensitive to?
Dihydropyrridine
voltage
53
What protein covers the actin binding sites of myosin during on resting muscle?
tropomyosin
54
Which color are the slow twitch fibers? Type?
red
one
55
Which color are the fast twitch fibers? Type?
white
two
56
Which fiber hypertrophies during weight training?
white
57
What protein does cGMP activate?
MLCP
58
What cell line do osteoclasts differentiate from?
macrophages
59
What causes Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica?
hyperparathyroidism
60
What process fails during Achondroplasia?
Endochondral ossification
61
What receptor is implicated during Achondroplasia? What happens to this receptor?
FGFR3
constitutive activity
62
How does Achondroplasia most often arise?
Sporadically
63
What common factor is Achondroplasia associated with?
advanced paternal age
64
What other kind of inheritance can Achondroplasia display?
Autosomal Dominant
65
What does a DEXA score have to be in order to diagnose osteoporosis?
> -2.5
66
What is Type I osteoporosis?
descreased estrogen
67
What is Type II osteoporosis?
old age
68
What antibody targets the RANK Ligand?
Denosumab
69
What is the PGE1 Analogue?
Alprostadil
70
What cell is defective during Osteopetorsis?
osteoclasts
71
What enzyme is absent during osteopetrosis?
Carbonic anhydrase two
72
What is the hematological consequence of osteopetrosis?
pancytopenia
73
What is the treatment for osteopetrosis?
bone marrow transplant
74
What cell is hyperactive during Osteomalacia?
osteoblasts
75
What would be the only laboratory abnormality during Pagets Disease of Bone disease?
highly increased ALP
76
What cells are defective during Pagets Disease of Bone?
osteoclasts and osteoblasts
77
What two patterns are taken by Pagets Disease of Bone?
Mosaic and lamellar
78
Pagets Disease of Bone increases the risk of what cancer?
osteosarcoma
79
What does Pagets Disease of Bone do to the circulation?
high-output heart failure
80
What does Pagets Disease of Bone do to the head?
thickening of the calvarium
81
What is the most common site of Avascular necrosis? Due to what vessel?
femoral head
medial femoral circumflex
82
What two drugs can cause Avascular Necrosis?
steroids
high-dose corticosteroids
83
What modifiable risk factor can lead to Avascular Necrosis?
alcoholism
84
What genetic disease can cause Avascular Necrosis?
sickle cell
85
What would the levels of ALP be during Osteomalacia?
high
86
What would the levels of PTH be during Osteomalacia?
high
87
What are the levels of phosphate during osteomalacia?
low
88
Where in the bone does a Giant Cell Tumor arise?
epiphysis
89
What is the key phrase for Giant cell Tumor?
soap bubble
90
What type of cells are seen during a Giant Cell Tumor?
Multinucleated giant cell
91
How does an osteochondroma arise?
lateral projection of growth plate (metaphysis)
92
What bone tumor displays bimodal distribution?
osteosarcoma
93
What defective protein is associated with osteosarcoma?
p53
94
What disease can give rise to an osteosarcoma?
Pagets Disease of Bone
95
What bone cancer could be caused by radiation?
osteosarcoma
96
Sunburst appearance is indicative of what bone cancer? What causes this?
osteosarcoma
'lifting of periosteum'
97
What part of the bone does Ewing Sarcoma arise in?
diaphysis
98
What is the population demographic for Ewing Sarcoma?
boys under the age of 15
99
Small blue cells means?
Ewing
100
"Onion skin" means?
Ewings
101
What is the translocation present during Ewings?
t(11:22)
102
What can an osteochondroma transform into?
chondrosarcoma
103
What type of immune reactions take place during Rheumatoid Arthritis?
three and four
104
What type of necrosis takes place in rheumatoid nodules?
fibrinoid
105
What is the HLA during rheumatoid?
HLA-DR4
106
What is the more specific antibody for rheumatoid?
anti-cyclic citrullinated antibody
107
What part of the skeleton is a chondrosarcoma located?
axial skeleton
108
Where in the bone is a chondrosarcoma located?
inside medullary cavity
109
What are two unusual presentation of rheumatoid arthritis?
pleuritis
pericarditis
110
What two glands are destroyed during Sjogren Syndrome?
lacrimal and salivary
111
What are the two auto-antibodies present during Sjogrens Syndrome?
anti-SS-A (Ro)
anti-SS-B (La)
112
What do the auto-antibodies target during Sjogrens?
anti-nuclear
113
Which gland can enlarge during Sjogrens?
parotid
114
What is Sicca Syndrome?
only dry eyes and dry mouth of Sjogrens
115
What are the three causes of MALT Lymphoma?
Sjogrens
Hashimoto
H. pylori
116
Which immune cells invade the gland during Sjogrens Syndrome?
lymphocytic
117
Why could Von Gierke disease produce gout?
lactic acidosis and lactate competes with urate for excretion
118
What color are gout crystals under parallel light?
yellow
119
What color are gout crystals under perpendicular light?
blue
120
Why does alcohol exacerbate gout?
alcohol metabolites competes with same transporter in the kidney for excretion
121
Which three drugs can be used in acute gout exacerbation?
indomethacin
colchicine
glucocorticoids
122
What two drugs can be used for gout prevention?
allopurinol and feboxostat
123
What is deposited during pseudo?
calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate
124
What is the shape of pseudogout crystals?
rhomboid
125
Which is birefringent, gout or pseudogout?
pseudogout
126
Which joint is clasically effected by pseudogout?
knee
127
What three diseases are associated with pseudogout?
hemochromatosis
hyperparathyroidism
hypoparathyroidism
128
What three drugs are used for pseudogout?
steroids
NSAIDs
colchicine
129
What are the three common bacteria for infectious arthritis?
Streptococcus
S. aureus
N. gonorrhoeae
130
What is 'STD' regarding Infectious Arthritis?
Synovitis of knee
Tenosynovitis of hand
Dermatitis
131
What does HLA-B27 code for?
MHC one
132
Which non-skeletal issues take place during Ankylosing Spondylti?
Uveitis
Aortitis
133
What four bugs can cause a GI infection what can lead to Reactive Arthritis?
Shigella/Salmonella
Campylobacter
Yersinia
134
What STD bug can lead to reactive arthritis?
Chlamydia
135
What race is more common to have SLE?
black
136
What nephritic syndrome does lupus present?
Diffuse Proliferative Glomerulonephritis
137
What nephrotic syndrome does lupus present?
membranous nephropathy
138
What are the three most common causes of death in Lupus?
Cardiac
Renal
Infection
139
Which bug can a patient with lupus test positive for?
Treponema pallidum
140
Are anti-dsDNA antibodies specific or sensitive for lupus? What do they indicate?
specific
renal disease
141
What do anti-Smith antibodies target? Sensitive or specific?
snRNPs
specific
142
Which antibody can give a false-positive test for syphillis?
anti-cardiolipin
143
What do anti-cardiolipin antibodies cause?
prolonged PTT
144
Which two complement proteins are decreased during lupus?
C3 and C4
145
When is cyclophosphamide used for lupus?
presence of end organ damage
146
What three drugs are used to treat lupus?
NSAIDs
glucocorticoids
hydroxychloroquine
147
What is the key phrase for sarcoidosis in the lung?
bilateral hilar adenopathy
148
How is sarcoidosis treated?
sterpoids
149
What is sarcoidosis on the nose called?
lupus pernio
150
Is sarcoidosis restrictive or obstructive?
restrictive
151
What skin condition does sarcoidosis present with?
erythema nodosum
152
Schaumann bodies are found in what disease?
sarcoidosis
153
What are Schaumann bodies?
calcium and protein inclusions inside a granuloma
154
Asteroid bodies are seen in what disease?
sarcoidosis
155
Which cranial nerve can be affected during sarcoidosis?
seven
156
How is sarcoidosis treated?
steroids
157
What is Polymyalgia Rheumatica?
pain/stiffness in shoulders and hips
158
What other disease is polymyalgia rheumatica associated with?
temporal cell arteritis
159
What would the two abnormal labs be during polymyalgia rheumatica?
Increase ESR
Increase CRP
160
What is the Tx for polymyalgia rheumatica?
low-dose steroids
161
What two drugs are used to treat fibromyalgia?
TCAs and SNRI
162
What -myositis involves a malar rash?
dermatomyositis
163
What is the same muscular presentation of dermatomyositis and polymyositis?
bilateral proximal weakness
164
What gets inflammed during dermatomyositis?
perimysium
165
Which -myositis presents with an eyelid rash?
dermatomyositis
166
What are the two antibodies present during polymyositis/dermatomyositis?
ANA
anti-Jo
167
What cell invades during dermatomyositis?
CD4
168
What cell invades during polymyositis?
CD8
169
What gets inflammed during polymyositis?
endomysium
170
What enzyme is present during dermatomyositis/polymyositis?
increased creatine kinase
171
What drug is used to treat dermatomyositis/polymyositis?
steroids
172
What two eye movements are found during Myasthenia Gravis?
ptosis
diplopia
173
What muscles are weakened during Lambert-Eaton?
proximal muscles
174
What organ is implicated during Myasthenia Gravis?
thymoma
175
Which neuromuscular junction disease presents with muscle weakness?
Lambert-Eaton
176
What is Myositis Ossificans?
metaplasia of skeletal muscle following trauma
177
What auto-antibody is present during Scleroderma? Against what?
anti-Scl-70
anti-DNA topoisomerase
178
What is parakeratosis? Seen in what disease?
hyper-keratosis with retention of nuclei in stratum corneum
psoriasis
179
Which two layers of the epidermis increase in size during Acanthosis?
spinosum
granulosum
180
Melanocytes are derived from what cell type?
neural crest
181
What causes Auspitz sign?
exposure of dermal papillae
182
Which layer of the epidermis increases during psoriasis?
spinosum
183
Which layer of the epidermis decreases during psoriasis?
granulosum
184
Keratin filled cysts is indicative of what disease?
Seborrheic keratosis
185
Other than GI, Leser-Trelat can be indicative of what type of malignancy?
lymphoid
186
What are the two common bacterial causes of impetigo?
S. aureus
S. pyogenes
187
What bacteria causes bullous impetigo?
S. aureus
188
Is impetigo superficial or deep?
superficial
189
Is cellulitis superficial or deep?
deep
190
What two bacterial species are known to cause cellulitis?
S. aureus
S. pyogenes
191
What bacteria causes Necrotizing Fasciitis?
S. pyogenes
192
Which cell layer is destroyed during SSSS?
stratum granulosum
193
What virus drives Hairy Leukoplakia?
EBV
194
Which immunoglobulin mediaes pemphigus vulgaris?
IgG
195
What protein is targeted by pemphigus vulgaris?
desmoglein of desmosomes
196
Which cell layer is destroyed in pemphigus vulgaris?
stratum spinosum
197
Which blistering skin disorder involves the oral mucosa?
Pemphigus Vulgaris
198
Which immunoglobulin is involved in bullous pemphigoid?
IgG
199
Which protein is targeted durign bullous pemphigoid?
hemidesmosomes
200
What type of immune cell is found during bullous pemphigoid?
eosinophils
201
What skin condition is caused by mycoplasma and herpes?
erythema multiforme
202
What type of hypersensitivity reaction is SJS?
type III
203
Which four anti-epileptic drugs are known to causes SJS?
carbamazepine
ethosuximide
Lamotrigine
phenytoin
204
Acanthosis nigricans could be indicative of what type of malignancy?
gastric adenocarcinoma
205
What undergoes hyperplasia during acanthosis nigricans?
epidermis
206
Is actinic keratosis benign or premalignant? For what?
premalignant
squamous cell carcinoma
207
Where does Erythema Nodosum most often appear?
anterior shins
208
What two yeasts can produce erythema nodosum?
Histoplasmosis
Coccidioiodomycosis
209
What bacteria can cause Erythema Nodosum?
Streptococcal
210
What autoimmune disease can cause Erythema nodosum?
Crohns
211
What bacteria can produce erythema nodosum?
Leprosy/TB
212
What infective disease is known to cause Lichen Planus?
HCV
213
Christmas tree spread is indicative of what disease?
Pityriasis rosea
214
What are Munro Abscesses?
collection of neutrophils in the stratum corenum
215
When are Munro Abscesses seen?
Psoriasis
216
Palisading Nuclei are seen in what disease?
BCC
217
Arsenic exposure can cause what type of cancer?
SCC
218
Immunosuppression is associated with what type of skin cancer?
Squamous
219
Chronic draining sinuses are associated with what type of skin cancer?
squamous
220
What type of skin metaplasia can grow rapidly and regress over months?
Keratoacanthoma
221
Keratoacanthoma is what subset of what type of skin cancer?
squamous cell
222
What is the marker for melanoma?
S100
223
What correlates with melanoma metastasis?
depth of invasion
224
What enzyme is over-active in melanoma?
BRAF kinase
225
What is the poor prognostic enzyme in melanoma? Drug for this?
BRAF V600E
Vemurafenib
226
Which enzyme yields leukotrienes?
Lipo-oxygenase
227
Which leukotriene is a neutrophil chemoattractant?
LTB4
228
What are the three function of LTC4/LTD4/LTE4?
bronchoconstriction
vasoconstriction
increase vascular permeability
229
What are the two functions of PGI2?
inhibits platelet aggregation
vasodilation
230
What two pro-inflammatory enzymes are inhibited by glucocorticoids?
PLA2 and COX2
231
What drug blocks lipo-oxygenase?
zileuton
232
What two drugs inhibit leukotrienes bring their receptor?
Montelukast
Zafirlukast
233
What does aspirin do to PT and PTT?
nothing
234
Which structures are medial and lateral in the carotid sheath?
CC= medial
IJ = lateral
235
What nerve is posterior in the carotid sheath?
vagus
236
What blood gas abnormality does aspirin overdose cause originally?
respiratory alkalosis
237
What drug is used to close a PDA?
Indomethacin
238
What are the two locations of COX?
vascular endothelium and inflammatory cells
239
Patients with allergies to what drug should not take celecoxib?
sulfa
240
In what organ is acetominophen active?
CNS
241
What drug is given to children to avoid Reye Syndrome?
acetominophen
242
What are bisphosphonates analogues of?
pyrophosphate
243
What compound do bisphosphonates bind?
hydroxyapatite
244
What are the two major side effects of bisphosphonates?
corrosive esophagitis
osteonecrosis of jaw
245
Which two drugs can increase in their concentrations with the use of allopurinol?
azathioprine and 6MP
246
What are the two inhibitors of Xanthine Oxidase?
allopurinol
febuxostat
247
What drug does probenecid inhibit the secretion of?
penicillin
248
What two drugs are used for acute gout attacks?
NSAIDs or indomethacin
249
Which class of drugs can inadvertently decrease uric acid clearance?
salicylates
250
What is the MOA of etanercept?
TNF decoy receptor
251
What are the two TNF monoclonal antibodies?
Infliximab
Adalimumab
252
Is TXA1 synthesis dependent on COX1 or COX2?
COX1
253
Which muscle of the rotator cuff can be injured when pitching ?
infraspinatus
254
What part of the brachial plexus is injured during Thoracic Outlet Syndrome? Same as?
lower trunk
Klumpke
255
Deficits in which two nerves could produce clawing?
median or ulnar
256
What nerve does polio preferentially effect?
superior gluteal
257
What nerve can be severed by a posterior his dislocation?
inferior gluteal
258
Which three muscle bands shink on contraction?
H
eye
zee
259
On what organelle is the ryanodine receptor located?
endoplasmic reticulum
260
Which type of muscle has higher mitochondria content?
Type 1
261
Which type of muscle can perform more anaerobic glycolysis?
Type Two
262
Which type of muscle can perform more oxidative phosphorylation?
Type one
263
Which two sets of bones undergo membranous ossification?
facial and calvarium
264
What cells do osteoblasts differentiate from?
mesenchymal
265
What two mechanisms does estrogen protect bones?
inhibits apoptosis or osteoblasts
promotes apoptosis or osteoclasts
266
What are two common locations of fracture due to osteoporosis?
femoral neck
distal radius
267
What is the only laboratory disturbance during severe osteopetrosis?
decreased calcium
268
What is the only lab disturbance in Pagets Disease of Bone?
increased ALP
269
Where in the bone does osteosarcoma occur?
metaphysis
270
Is Sjogren Syndrome usually unilateral or bilateral?
bilateral
271
What could a unilateral Sjogren Syndrome mean?
MALT lymphoma development
272
Which other autoimmune disease is commonly associated with Sjogren Syndrome?
Rheumatoid
273
What are the antibodies in CREST?
anti-centromere
274
What two joints are most commonly affected during Psoriatic Arthritis?
PIP of hand and foot
275
Drug for Ankylosing Spondylitis?
Infliximab
276
What are the mnemonics to remember the different presentations of Lupus?
RASH OR PAIN
277
What is the R of RASH OR PAIN?
rash (malar or discoid)
278
What is the A of RASH OR PAIN?
arthritis
279
What is the S of RASH OR PAIN?
Serositis
280
What is the H of RASH OR PAIN?
Hematological disorders
281
What is the O of RASH OR PAIN?
Oral/nasopharyngeal ulcers
282
What is the R of RASH OR PAIN?
renal or reynaud
283
What are the two Ps of RASH OR PAIN?
Photosensitivity
Positive for VDRL
284
What is the A of RASH OR PAIN?
Antinuclear antibodies
285
What is the I of RASH OR PAIN?
Immunosuppressants
286
What is the N of RASH OR PAIN?
neurological disorders
287
What does paradoxical mean regarding anti-Phospholipid Syndrome?
donor plasma does not reverse it
288
What autoimmune disease can produce Bell's Palsy?
Sarcoidosis
289
How could sarcoidosis manifest in the eyes?
Uveitis
290
What are Gottron Papules?
diffuse erythematous rash over MCP and ICP
291
In what disease are Gottron Papules seen?
Dermatomyositis
292
Which has an increased risk of maligancy, dermatomyositis or polymyositis?
dermatomyositis
293
Does Polymyalgia Rheumatica have high, low or normal Creatinine Kinase?
normal
294
Is CREST limited or diffuse scleroderma?
limited
295
What does acantholysis mean?
separation of epidermal layer
296
What autoimmune disease often features parakeratosis?
psoriasis
297
What cell proliferates during Seborrheic Keratosis?
squamous epithelial cell
298
What is destroyed during Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis?
dermal/epidermal junction
299
What three drugs can cause Erythema Multiforme?
phenytoin
beta-lactam
Sulfa
300
What two tumors can give rise to Paraneoplastic Pemphigus?
Chronic lymphocytic lymphoma
NHL
301
What two autoimmune diseases can produce erythema nodosum?
Crohns and Sarcoidosis
302
Which disease produces 'Sawtooth' infiltrate? What cell is infiltrating? Where?
Lichen Planus
Lymphocytes
dermal-epidermal junction
303
Melanoma is associated with the loss of which two proteins?
p21
p16
304
How long does it take for new platelets to be formed?
7 days
305
Carbamazepine strongly inhibits what type of receptor?
cholinergic
306
TNF antagonism blocks activation of what cell?
Macrophages
307
What protein are desmosomes composed of?
keratin
308
Not being able to open doors is indicative of a lesion to where?
thoracodorsal nerve
309
Would a fracture of the 12th rib on the right be more likely to fracture the kidney or spleen?
kidney
310
What part of the nerve can hyalinize during diabetes?
Endoneurium
311
Is sensation to the palm affected during CTS? Why?
no
recurrent branch splits off before transverse carpal ligament
312
Does skeletal muscle rely on extra-cellular calcium for contraction?
no
313
Where in the bone can osteoblasts be found?
periosteum
314
Would osteomalacia/rickets have increased or decreased ALP?
increased
315
What group of drugs have been linked to osteoporosis?
PPIs
316
What can be found in the urine during Pagets Disease?
hydroxyproline
317
What age range is affected by Osteochondromas?
men under 25
318
Which HPV serotypes cause plantar warts?
1-4
319
Why does Von Gierkes cause gout?
increased lactic acid competes with uric acid for excretion
320
Which auto-antibody is present with diffuse scleroderma?
Anti-topoisomerase One (scl-70)
321
What is the function of snRNPs?
form spliceosome
322
Is sarcoidosis driven by CD4 or CD8 cells?
CD4
323
Which has autonomic nervous system symptoms, MG or EL?
Eaton Lambert
324
What is hyperkeratosis?
thickening of stratum corneum
325
What is spongiosis? Seen in what disease?
epidermal accumulation of fluid
eczematous dermatitis
326
Is the number of melanocytes normal or low during albinism?
normal
327
What produces vitiligo?
autoimmune destruction of melanocytes
328
Where is a junctional nevus located?
along dermal/epidermal junction
329
What is a compound nevus?
nevus that crosses into dermis?
330
Which CDK molecule is associated with melanoma?
CDK2NA
331
What cell layer is destroyed by SSSS toxin?
stratum granulosum
332
What is the synthetic PGE1?
Epoprostenol
333
What is the synthetic PGE2?
dinoprosol
334
What is the synthetic PGF2?
carbaprost
335
Which two prostaglandins increase uterine tone?
PGE2 and PGF2a
336
Which sedative can shut down the HPA?
etomidate
337
What is the MOA of acetaminophen?
reversible inhibition of COX
338
What property does acetaminophen not possess?
anti-inflammatory
339
What are the three uses of bisphosphonates?
Hycercalcemia
Osteoporosis
Pagets
340
What reaction is catylzaed by Rasburicase? What drug also functions similarly?
uric acid to allantoin
Peglitocase
341
What is another drug that functions similarly to probenecid?
Sulfipyrazone
342
What drugs binds excess phosphate?
Sevalamer
343
Which skin layer is absent on the soles of feet and palms of hands?
stratum lucidum
344
Which steroid can be used for psoriasis? By inhibiting the growth of what cell?
calcipotriene
keratinocyte
