Reproductive Flashcards

1
Q

What is the function of sonic hedge hog gene?

A

patterning along anterior/posterior axis

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2
Q

What can a mutation in sonic hedgehog cause?

A

holoprosencephaly

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3
Q

What is the function of Wnt?

A

organization along the dorsal-ventral axis

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4
Q

What is the function of homeobox genes? What do Hox mutations produce?

A

craniocaudal organization

limbs in the wrong location

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5
Q

What happens within one week?

A

implantation of blastocyst and

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6
Q

When does the bilaminar disk for?

A

2 weeks

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7
Q

What happens within three weeks? What is this called?

A

formation of trilaminar disk

gastrulation

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8
Q

Between what two weeks is the embryo most susceptible to teratogens?

A

3-8 weeks

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9
Q

At what week does the heart begin to beat?

A

four weeks

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10
Q

At what week are all four limbs developed?

A

week four

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11
Q

At what week can a fetal heart be seen?

A

week 6

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12
Q

At what week are genitalia visible?

A

week 10

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13
Q

What starts gastrulation?

A

epiblast invaginating to form primitive streak

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14
Q

What is Rathke’s pouch?

A

depression in the roof of the mouth

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15
Q

What does Rathke’s pouch develop into?

A

anterior pituitary

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16
Q

What is another name for the pituitary? Which embryological layer?

A

adenohypophysis

surface ectoderm

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17
Q

What is a really easy way to remember what the neuroectoderm is?

A

CNS

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18
Q

What is a really easy way to remember what the neural crest is?

A

PNS

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19
Q

Is deformation an extrinsic or intrinsic process? When does a deformation occur?

A

extrinsic

after embryonic period

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20
Q

Is malformation an extrinsic or intrinsic process? When does it occur?

A

intrinsic

during embryonic period

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21
Q

What is a sequence?

A

abnormalities arising from a single embryological event

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22
Q

What kind of birth defects do ACE inhibitors cause?

A

renal

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23
Q

What kind of birth defects do alkylating agents cause?

A

absence of digits

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24
Q

What kind of birth defects does carbamazepine cause?

A

neural tube defects

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25
What kind of birth defects does DES cause?
vaginal clear cell carcinoma
26
What kind of birth defects do folate antagonists cause?
neural tube defects
27
What kind of birth defects does lithium cause?
Ebstein anamoly
28
What birth defect does methimazole cause?
Aplasia cutis congenita
29
What kind of birth defects do tetracyclines cause?
discolored teeth
30
What type of birth defects would folate cause?
neural tube defects
31
What birth defect does cocaine cause?
abruptio placenta
32
Vitamin A excess cause cause what?
spontaneous abortion
33
What is hypertelorism?
increased space between two parts
34
What is the function of βHCG during development?
stimulate corpus luteum to produce progesterone
35
Do the umbilical arteries carry oxygenated blood or deoxygenated blood? How many? Connects which two vessels?
deoxygenated two fetal internal iliacs to placenta
36
Do the umbilical veins carry oxygenated blood or deoxygenated blood? Into?
oxygenated IVC or ductus venosus
37
What is the function of the ductus venosus ?
drain maternal blood into IVC
38
What two structures does the urachus connect?
duct between yolk sac and fetal bladder
39
What is a urachal cyst?
partial failure of urachus to obliterate
40
What can a urachal cyst lead to?
adenocarcinoma
41
What two types of tissue are in a Meckels Diverticulum?
gastric and pancreatic
42
What vessel does the 1st Aortic Arch develop into?
maxillary artery
43
What vessel does the 2nd Aortic Arch develop into?
Stapedial and hyoid
44
What vessel does the 3rd Aortic Arch develop into?
common carotid and proximal part of internal carotid
45
What vessel does the 4th Aortic Arch develop into on the right side?
subclavian
46
What vessel does the 4th Aortic Arch develop into on the left side?
aortic arch
47
What vessel does the 6th Aortic Arch develop into?
ductus arteriosus pulmonary arteries
48
What does the branchial cleft develop into?
ectoderm
49
What do the branchial arches develop from?
mesoderm and neural crest
50
What does the branchial pouch develop into?
endoderm
51
What nerve innervates the tenser tympani?
CN V3
52
What cause treacher collins syndrome?
failure of neural crest of 1st arch to migrate
53
What muscle is innervated by the 3rd Branchial Arch? What is the function of this muscle?
stylopharyngeus elevate pharynx and larynx
54
What nerve does the 4th branchial arch develop into? Muscles?
Superior laryngeal Pharyngeal constrictors
55
What nerve does the 6th branchial arch develop into? Innervates what?
recurent laryngeal all laryngeal constrictors except cricothyroid
56
Which GLUT transporter do spermatocytes express?
GLUT 5
57
What group of muscles does the 4th branchial arch develop into?
Pharynx
58
What group of muscles does the 6th branchial arch develop into? Except?
Larynx cricothyroid
59
What are the two products of the 1st Branchial Pouch?
Middle Ear Eustachian tube
60
What does the 2nd Branchial Pouch develop into?
palatine tonsil
61
What does the 3rd Branchial Pouch develop into?
thymus inferior parathyroid
62
What does the 4th Branchial Pouch develop into?
superior parathyroid
63
What are the three tumors of MEN2A?
pheochromocytoma Medullary carcinoma of thyroid Parathyroid
64
What gene determines male development? What is produced?
SRY testis determining factor
65
What cells produce an inhibitory factor of the paramesonephric ducts? What is the name of this factor ?
Sertoli Mullerian Inhibiting factor
66
What is the function of Mullerian Inibiting Factor?
inhibit growth of paramesonephric ducts
67
What four structures does the Mesonephric duct develop into?
Seminal vesicle epididymis ejaculatory duct ductus deferens
68
What causes a Bicornuate uterus?
incomplete fusion of paramesonephric ducts
69
What would happen in a male if Mullerian Inhibiting Factor was absent?
male external genitalia and female internal genitalia
70
What is epispadias associated with?
bladder exstrophy
71
What is the function of the gubernaculum in males?
anchors testis to sctotum
72
What is the female version of the gubernaculum?
ovarian ligament and round ligament of uterus
73
What does the gubernaculum form?
tunica vaginalis
74
What lymph nodes do the ovary and testicle go to?
para-aortic
75
What lymph nodes do the distal vagina/scrotum/vulva go to ?
inguinal
76
What is the epithelial lining of the vagina?
squamous, non-keratinized
77
What is the epithelial lining of the ectocervix?
squamous, non-keratinized
78
What is the epithelial lining of the endocervix?
columnar
79
What is the epithelial lining of the uterus?
columnar
80
What is the epithelial lining of the fallopian tube?
columnar
81
What is the epithelial lining of the outer surface of the ovary?
cuboidal
82
In males, what cell secretes inhibin? What does inhibin inhibit?
sertoli FSH
83
What type of junction forms the BTB?
tight junction
84
What cell in males secretes Androgen binding protein?
Sertoli
85
Leydig cells secrete what hormone? In response to what hormone?
Testosterone LH
86
What form of estrogen does the placenta produce?
Estriol
87
Which form of estrogen is produced by adipose tissue?
Estrone
88
Does estrogen or progesterone increase myometrial excitability? Via what mechanism?
estrogen increasing gap junctions
89
What does progesterone do to myometrial excitability?
decrease
90
What two receptors does estrogen upregulate?
LH and progesterone
91
Does estrogen or progesteroen raise body temperature at ovulation?
progesterone
92
What is the potentcy of the three estrogens?
Estradiol > estrone > estriol
93
What is the definition for oligomenorrhea?
greater than a 35 day cycle
94
What is the definition of Polymenorrhea?
less tha 21 day cycle
95
What is Metrorrhagia?
frequent and irregular menstrual bleeding
96
What is Menorrhagia?
heavy menstrual bleeding
97
What is menometorrhagia?
heavy and irregular menstruation at irregular intervals
98
What states are oocytes arrested in until ovulation?
Prophase I
99
What states are oocytes arrested in until fertilization?
Metaphase II
100
How long does it take for a fertilized egg to implant?
6 days
101
How long does it take for β-HCG to be present in the blood? Urine?
blood = one week urine = two weeks
102
What structure does β-HCG maintain? What is produced?
corpus luteum progesterone
103
How long does β-HCG maintain the corpus luteum?
one trimester
104
β-HCG maintains structural similarity to what three hormones? Which subunit of β-HCG is unique?
FSH/LH/TSH β-subunit
105
What is the most specific marker for menopause?
increased FSH
106
What are the levels of FSH, LH and GnRH in menopause?
↑ FSH ↑ LH ↑ GnRH
107
What is the potentcy of DHT, androstenedione and testosterone compared to each other?
DHT > testosterone > androstenedione
108
What androgen is produced in the adrenal gland?
Androstenedione
109
What androgen promotes male pattern baldness?
DHT
110
How is Klinefelter Syndrome confirmed?
presence of Barr body
111
Which two structures within the testicle are abnormal during Klinefelter Syndrome?
Seminferous tubules Leydig cells
112
What are the endocrine effects of defective Semineferous tubules during Klinefelter Syndrome?
↓ inhibin and ↑ FSH
113
What are the endocrine effects of defective Leydig cells during Klinefelter Syndrome?
↓ testorterone ↑ LH ↑ estrogen
114
What would be three characteristics of an individual with 47, XYY syndrome?
tall acne anti-social
115
What cause a Female Pseudohermaphrodite? Physical presentation?
Exposure to androgens in gestation internal female with virilized external
116
What cause a Male Pseudohermaphrodite? Physical presentation?
androgen insensitivity syndrome testes present but female external
117
How would Aromatase Deficiency present? Presentation during pregnancy?
masculinizaiton of female virilization of the mother
118
How does 5α-Reductase present?
ambiguous genitalia until puberty
119
What causes Kallman Syndrome?
failure of GnRH neurons to migrate to hypothalamus and lack of olfactory bulb
120
What are two common presenting symptoms for a complete mole?
Hyperemesis Hyperthyroidism
121
What drug is used to treat a mole?
Methotrexate
122
What is the only cell to proliferate during a Mole?
trophoblast
123
What are the four drugs used to treat gestational HTN?
α-methyldopa hydralazine labetalol Nifedipine
124
HTN before 20 weeks suggests what ?
molar pregnancy
125
What is used to prevent seizure during precclampsia?
IV magnesium sulfate
126
Would autoimmune disorders have an increased or decreased liklihood of producing ecclampsia?
increased
127
When is βHCG abnormally low?
ectopic pregnancy
128
What hematological complication can Pre-ecclampsia cause?
thrombocytopenia
129
What are the three risk factors for cause placental abruption?
smoking HTN cocaine
130
What is placenta accreta?
placenta attaches to myometrium
131
What is placenta increta?
placenta penetrates into myometrium
132
What is placenta percreta?
placenta penetrates through myometrium
133
What are the two risk factors for placenta previa?
multiparity prior C-section
134
Which two happenings can take place if placental tissue is retained?
infection hemorrhage
135
What is the largest risk factor for Polyhydramnios?
maternal diabetes
136
What muscle contributes to the cremaster muscle? What nerve?
Internal oblique genitofemoral
137
What epithelial cell type most often causes invasive cervical carcinoma?
Squamous
138
What two cells have to be present to confirm endometritis?
plasma cells and lymphocytes
139
What two drugs are used to treat endometritis?
gentamicin or clindamycin
140
What two structures have to be outside of the uterus to Dx endometriosis?
glands stroma
141
What is adenomyosis?
extension of endometrial tissue into myometrium
142
What causes Adenomyosis?
hyperplasia of basalis into myometrium
143
What is the Tx for Adenomyosis?
hysterectomy
144
How does endometrial hyperplasia most often present?
postmenopausal bleeding
145
What is the most common gynecological malignancy?
endometrial carcinoma
146
What determines the prognosis of Endometrial Carcinoma?
depth of invasion of myometrium
147
What is the most common gynecological tumor?
endometrial
148
What is the worst prognosis gynecological tumor?
Ovarian
149
What increases steroid hormone binding globulin in PCOD?
estrogen
150
What does insulin do to SHBG levels in PCOD? What is the effect of this?
decrease increases in testosterone
151
What is the Tx for PCOD hirsutism? What is the rationale behind this?
OCPs decrease LH levels
152
Why is clomiphene administered during PCOD?
decrease FSH and LH
153
What drug is given to decrease endometrial proliferation during PCOD?
Progestins
154
What is an follicular cyst? What hormone is increased during a Follicular Cyst?
unruptured graafian follicle estrogen
155
What is a corpus luteum cyst?
hemorrhage into corpus luteum cyst
156
What causes a theca-lutein cyst? Unilateral or bilateral?
excessive B-HCG stimulation bilateral
157
Are Theca-Lutein cysts bilateral or unilateral?
bilateral
158
What are two associations with Theca-Lutein cysts?
choriocarcinoma Moles
159
What is a dermoid cyst?
mature teratoma
160
What type of ovarian surface epithelium tumor is most common?
Serous cystadenocarcinoma
161
What is the tumor marker for ovarian carcinoma?
CA-125
162
Does infertility have a higher or lower likelihood of producing an ovarian carcinoma?
higher
163
Does endometriosis have a higher or lower likelihood of producing an ovarian carcinoma?
higher
164
What other type of cancer has a high liklihood of producing ovarian carcinoma?
Lynch (HNPCC)
165
Which BRCAs are associated with ovarian carcinoma?
BRCA1 and BRCA2
166
Does pregnancy increase or decrease the risk of ovaria carcinoma?
decrease
167
Do OCPs increase or decrease the risk of ovaria carcinoma?
decrease
168
Does breastfeeding increase or decrease the risk of ovaria carcinoma?
decrease
169
Fallopian epithelium lines what type of neoplasm?
Serous Cystadenoma
170
What is struma ovarii?
mature teratoma containing thyroid tissue
171
What is Meigs Syndrome?
Fibromas ascites pleural effusion
172
What hormone does a thecoma produce?
estrogen
173
Are mature or immature teratomas malignant in women?
Immature
174
What type of tissue is found in an immature teratoma in women?
Neuroectoderm
175
What type of tumor possesses Call-Exner bodies?
Granulosa cell tumor
176
What would be seen on histology during a Serous Cystadenocarcinoma?
Psamomma body
177
What type of gynecological tumor gives rise to Pseudomyxoma-Peritonei?
Ovarian Mucinous Cystadenocarcinoma
178
What is the female equivalent of a Seminoma?
dysgerminoma
179
What would be the two tumor markers for a Dysgerminoma?
LDH and hCG
180
What two locations would a choriocarcinoma metastisize?
Lungs and brain
181
What is the tumor marker for endodermal sinus tumors? Color?
AFP yellow
182
Where, outside of the genitals, is a common location for an Endodermal Sinus Tumor?
Sacrococcygeal
183
DES gives rise to what tumor?
clear cell carcinoma
184
What are the two stains for a rhabdomyosarcoma?
Desmin and myogenin
185
Does an older or younger age at the first birth increase the risk for breast cancer?
older
186
What race is most likely to develop triple negative breast cancer?
AAs
187
Does Pagets disease suggest malignancy in the breast or vulva?
Breast
188
What type of breast pathology does Pagets disease represent?
DCIS
189
A "rock-hard" mass is indicative of what type of breast cancer?
invasive ductal
190
Lymphocytic infiltrate is indicative of what type of breast carcinoma?
medullary
191
What is Inflammatory Carcinoma characterized by?
invasive cells blocking lymphatic drainage
192
What is Sclerosing Adenosis of the breast? Malignant?
Proliferation of acini and fibrosis benign
193
What are the two treatments of mastitis?
continue breast feeding Dicloxacillin
194
When are Giant cells seen in the breast?
fat necrosis
195
What causes Gynecomastia in males?
hyperestrogenism
196
What are the drugs that cause gynecomastia?
Spironolactone Marijuana/Digitalis Estrogen Cimetidine Alcohol Heroin Dopamine/D2 antagonists Ketoconazole
197
What are the three drugs used to treat BPH?
Tamsulosin Terazosin Finasteride
198
What increases the risk of cryptorchidism?
Prematurity
199
What is the histological feature an Endodermal Sinus Tumor?
Schiller-Duval bodies
200
What do Schiller-Duval Bodies look like?
primitive glomeruli
201
Is a teratoma malignant in males or females?
males
202
What are the two markers for a teratoma?
AFP and βHCG
203
A malignant, hemorrhagic mass with necrosis is indicative of what type of tumor in males?
Dysgerminoma
204
What is the most common testicular cancer in older men?
testicular lymphoma
205
What is Bowen disease? Presents as?
squamous cell carcinoma of penile shaft leukoplakia
206
What is Erythroplasia of Queyrat? Presents as?
cancer of glans Erythroplakia
207
What disease could cause priapism?
Sickle cell disease
208
What is the MOA of fulvestrant?
complete estrogen receptor antagonist
209
When does Leuprolide have agonist properties?
pulsatile
210
When does Leuprolide have antagonist properties?
constant
211
What is the function of leuprolide?
down-regulate GnRH receptors on pituitary
212
What is the MOA of clomiphene?
antagonist at estrogen receptors in hypothalamus
213
What does clomiphene prevent?
normal feedback inhibition
214
What does clomiphene increase?
FSH and LH
215
What are the two clinical uses of danazol?
endometriosis and hereditary angioedema
216
What two steroidal hormones can danazol inhibit?
desmolease 17α-Hydroxylase
217
What organelle is the acrosome derived from?
Golgi
218
What is the most common cause of bloody discharge from the nipple?
Intraductal papilloma
219
What is the function of the FGF gene?
lengthening of limbs
220
What is the function of the notochord? What does the notochord become?
induce ectorderm to form neuroectoderm nucleus pulposus
221
What is aplasia?
absent organ despite present primordial tissue
222
WHat birth defect does methimazole cause?
alopecia
223
What is the placenta and amnion status of a monozygotic twin that split between 0-4 days?
fused/separate placenta dichorionic amnion
224
What is the placenta and amnion status of a monozygotic twin that split between 4-8 days?
Monochorionic diamniotic
225
What is the placenta and amnion status of a monozygotic twin that split between 8-12 days?
monochorionic monoamniotic
226
What is Decidua Basalis?
maternal (endometrial) component to placenta
227
What structure are the umbilical arteries and veins derived from?
Allantois
228
What happens during a patent urachus?
urine discharge from umbilicus
229
What vessel does the right recurrent laryngeal loop around? Left?
right = subclavian left = aortic arch
230
What do the paramesonephric ducts develop into?
female internal genitalia
231
What does the processus vaginalis form?
tunica vaginalis
232
What vessels are carried within the Infundibulopelvic ligament?
ovarian vessels
233
What type of epithelium is present in the Transition Zone?
Squamocolumnar
234
What virus causes hemorrhagic cystitis?
adenovirus
235
What does estrogen do to SHBG levels?
increase
236
What does estrogen do to HDL levels?
increase
237
What does estrogen do to LDL levels?
decrease
238
What causes lactation after pregnancy?
drop in progesterone increase prolactin secretion
239
What is done to a GBS mother?
intrapartum ampicillin
240
What is the most often site of obstruction during development? Why?
Ureto-pelvic junction last to canalize
241
What structure is the ovum released from?
graafian follicle
242
What stimulates the LH surge?
estrogen
243
What is the most common site of fertilization?
Ampulla
244
What prevents a woman from getting pregnant while breastfeeding?
Prolactin inhibits GnRH release
245
What protein produces the unwanted metabolic effects in the mother? Where is this made?
Human Placntal Lactogen Syncytiotrophoblast
246
What chromosome is p16 located?
9
247
What chromosome is Rb on?
13
248
What are the four conditions that can give rise to horseshoe kidney?
Trisomy 13/18/21 and Turner
249
What moiety of proteins does nitric oxide bind?
Heme
250
What two types of epithelium are involved in a Nabothian cyst? Where does this occur?
squamous and columnar Cervix
251
Which hormone closes the epiphyseal plates?
Estrogen
252
Does Turner Syndrome result in preductal or postductal coarctation of the aorta?
preductal
253
What would the levels of FSH and LH be during Turners Syndrome?
increased
254
What type of disease would increase testosterone and increased LH be indicative of?
defective androgen receptor
255
What type of disease would decrease testosterone and increased LH be indicative of?
primary hypogonadism
256
What type of disease would decrease testosterone and decreased LH be indicative of?
hypogonadotropin hypogonadism
257
How would Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome present?
female external genitalia but absent uterus or ovaries
258
How does 5α-Reductase Deficiency present?
Penis At 12
259
What are the two mechanisms by which CD18 deficiency presents?
omphilitis delayed separation of umbilical cord
260
Whats the difference between placenta previa and placenta abruption?
previa = painless
261
What is the most common location for an ectopic pregnancy?
ampulla
262
How does Leiomyoma/Fibroid often present? Key work for histology?
multiple distinct tumors whorled
263
Brenner Tumors are composed of what type of epithelium? How do these look on histology?
Transitional Coffee-bean
264
Name three antibiotics contraindicated during pregnancy?
TMP/SMX fluoroquinolone
265
Mature teratomas are more likely to contain what type of tissue?
Thyroid
266
What is the most common sex cord stromal tumor? Produces?
Granulosa cell tumor estrogen and/or progesterone
267
What are two common presentations for a Choriocarcinoma?
Hemoptysis Shortness of breath
268
What do Schiller-Duval bodies resemeble?
primitive glomeruli
269
Name four physical characteristics of a Endodermal Sinus Tumor?
yellow/friable/Hemorrhagic/Solid
270
What is the most common fetal neoplasm?
Sacrococcygeal teratoma
271
What drug is used for neonatal prophylaxis of HBV?
Lamivudine
272
Woman under the age of 35 presents with breast tenderness, what is the most likely Dx?
fibroadenoma
273
What is the most common reason for a bloody discharge from the nipple in women?
Intraductal Papilloma
274
Woman in her 60s presents with a large bulky mass in breast, what is the most likely cause?
Pyllodes Tumor
275
Microcalcifications in the breast are usually caused by what?
DCIS
276
What is seen on histology during Comedocarcinoma?
caseous necrosis
277
What is the most common breast carcinoma?
Invasive Ductal
278
What are the four invasive breast carcinomas?
Ductal Lobular Inflammatory Medullary
279
How does invasive lobular carcinoma look on histology?
'orderly row of cells'
280
What is more common, E. coli prostatitis or abacterial prostatitis?
abacterial
281
What does BPH lead to an increase in?
Free PSA
282
What are the levels of levels of Inhibin, LH and FSH during cryptorchidism?
↓ Inhibin ↑ FSH ↑ LH
283
Cryptorchidism increases the risk of what type of cancer?
Germ cell tumor
284
What are the two congenital/genetic risk factors for developing a testicular carcinoma?
Klinefelter Cryptorchidism
285
What is the appearance of a seminoma?
homogenous testicular mass
286
How would a seminoma appear on histology?
lobules with watery cytoplasm
287
What is the treatment modality of choice for a seminoma?
radiation
288
What age range presents with a Yolk Sac tumor?
less than 3
289
How does a Leydig cell tumor present in men?
Gynecomastia
290
How does a Leydig cell tumor present in boys?
precocious puberty
291
What genetic disease can cause Priapism?
sickle cell
292
What bug causes Farmers Lung?
Actinomyces
293
What are the two uses of Danazol?
Endometriosis and Hereditary Angioedema
294
What does finasteride do to male hair growth?
increase
295
What two enzymes does spironolactone inhibit?
Desmolase 17α-Hydroxylase
296
What two drugs are used during PCOD to prevent hirsutism?
Spironolactone Ketoconazole
297
What two anti-neoplastics when used in combination can cause Dilative Cardiomyopathy?
Cyclophosphamide and Cytarabine
298
What part of the brain is specifically effected during Osmotic Demyelination Syndrome?
pons
299
What is a tumor of Rathe's Pouch called? What are the two contents?
Craiopharyngioma cholesterol crystals and calcifications
300
What is the epithelium above the pectinate line? Derived from?
cuboidal endoderm
301
What is the epithelium below the pectinate line? Derived from?
squamous surface ectoderm
302
What is special about the embryology of the spleen compared to other internal organs?
Spleen is derived from mesoderm while most other internal organs are derived from endoderm
303
What two birth defects can be caused by Maternal Diabetes ?
heart neural tube
304
What is the hypothesis as to why Fetal Alcohol Syndrome causes defects?
inhibition of cell migration
305
What cells make up the outer and inner layer of the placenta?
outer = syncytiotrophoblast inner = cytotrophoblast
306
What two things does a single umbilical artery indicate?
congenital and chromosomal anomalies
307
What two structures does the Vitelline Duct connect?
yolk sac and midgut lumen
308
What muscle is innervated by the 3rd Brachial Arch?
Stylopharyngeus
309
What organ is effected during DiGeorge Syndrome?
heart
310
What pharyngeal arches are the Parafollicular Cells derived from?
4th/5th
311
What pharyngeal arches is the Parathyroid derived from?
3/4th
312
What two structures fail to fuse during cleft lip?
maxillary and medial nasal process
313
What is the pathology of epispadias?
incomplete fusion of the genital tubercle
314
What is another name for the Suspensory Ligaments of the Ovary?
Infundibulopelvic ligament
315
What two structures does the Cardinal Ligament conenct?
uterus to size of pelvis
316
What two structures does the round ligament of the uterus connect?
uterine fundus to labia majora
317
What cell decreases its activity with an increase in temperature?
Sertoli
318
What cell in the male reproductive tract is unaffected by temperature?
Leydig
319
What drug is prophylactically used to treat GBS?
ampicillin
320
Where does the majority of semen volume come from?
Seminal Vesicle
321
What structure produces estrogen in the late follicular phase?
Graafian Follicle
322
What part of the male genitalia is not stimulated by testosterone?
Prostate
323
Does a fibroid progress to a leiomyosarcoma?
no
324
What hormones does a Granulosa Cell Tumor express?
estrogen and/or progesterone
325
Describe two features of paget cells.
large cells with clear halos
326
Does prostatic adenocarcinoma have an increase in bound or free PSA?
bound PSA
327
Where is sonic hedgehog produced?
base of limbs
328
Where is Wnt produced?
apical ectodermal ridge
329
What is Danazol used to treat?
endometriosis
330
What type of drug is Exemestane?
aromatase inhibitors
331
What is misoprostol an analogue of?
PGE1
332
What type of drug is Mifepristone?
progesterone receptor antagonist
333
What type of drug is flutamide?
androgen receptor antagonist
334
What enzyme can Ketoconazole inhibit?
desmolase
335
What can Sildenafil due to vision?
blue-green color vision
336
What are the important Neural Crest Derivatives?
Melanocytes Odontoblasts Tracheal cartilage ECL cells Laryngeal cartilage Parafollicular C cells Adrenal medulla Schwann cells spiral membrane
337
Twinning after what day produces Conjoined Twins?
13
338
Decreased estriol in pregnancy suggests what sort of deficiency?
placental
339
The genital tubercle develops into what two structures in the male?
glans corpus cavernosum and spongiosum
340
The genital tubercle develops into what two structures in the female?
glans clitoris vestibular bulbs
341
What does the urogenital sinus develop into in males and females?
glands
342
What does the urogenital fold develop into in men?
ventral shaft of penis
343
What does the urogenital fold develop into in women?
labia minora
344
What does the Labioscrotal swelling develop into in men?
scrotum
345
What does the Labioscrotal swelling develop into in women?
labia majora
346
What structure is injured during Retrograde Ejaculation? Presents as?
internal urethral sphincter cloudy urine after ejaculation
347
What specific nerve controls sympathetic response to the penis?
hypogastric
348
What specific nerve controls Ejaculation response to the penis?
pudendal
349
Leydig Cells are the male equivalent of what female cells?
theca interna
350
Is the cyto or syncytio trophoblast interior?
cyto = inner
351
Does the cyto or syncytiotrophoblast lack MHC One?
syncytiotrophoblast
352
Does progesterone upregulate or downregulate receptors?
down-regulate
353
During what tanner stage does pubic hair appear?
two
354
Is the follicular or luteal phase always constant?
luteal
355
What is Chadwicks Sign?
blue-ish color of cervix that marks pending pregnancy
356
At what week does HCG peak?
ten
357
Where does a posterior urethra bleed?
Retro-pubic
358
What causes a bulbar urethra bleed? Goes where?
blunt force retro-pubic space
359
Where does a penile urethra bleed?
bucks fascia
360
When does spermatogenesis begin?
puberty
361
What is the best drug for pregnancy hypercoaguability?
LMWH
362
What is the average of thelarche?
eight years
363
What hormone mediates the development of male internal genitalia? External?
testosterone = internal DHT = external
364
What is adenosis?
persistence of columnar metaplasia in upper 2/3 of vagina
365
What two hormones decrease SHBG synthesis?
insulin and testosterone
366
What causes an endometrioma?
mass arising from ectopic endometrial tissue
367
Is a Struma Ovarii a teratoma? What kind?
yes monodermal teratoma
368
What part of the breast gland does a Intraductal Papilloma arise from?
Lactiferous sinus
369
Which type of breast cancer features a Stellate infiltration?
Invasive Ductal
370
Which breast cancer is often bilateral?
invasive lobular
371
Which type of PSA increases during BPH?
free PSA
372
Which type of PSA increases during Prostate Cancer?
bound PSA
373
What cell is seen during Mammary Duct Ectasia?
plasma cells
374
Are teratomas more often malignant in males or females?
males
375
What are two side effects of Leuprolide?
nauses and vomiting
376
What is the main toxicity of Mifepristone?
bleeding
377
What is the embryological origin of the notochord?
mesoderm