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First Aid > Reproductive > Flashcards

Reproductive Flashcards

1
Q

What is the function of sonic hedge hog gene?

A

patterning along anterior/posterior axis

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2
Q

What can a mutation in sonic hedgehog cause?

A

holoprosencephaly

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3
Q

What is the function of Wnt?

A

organization along the dorsal-ventral axis

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4
Q

What is the function of homeobox genes? What do Hox mutations produce?

A

craniocaudal organization

limbs in the wrong location

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5
Q

What happens within one week?

A

implantation of blastocyst and

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6
Q

When does the bilaminar disk for?

A

2 weeks

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7
Q

What happens within three weeks? What is this called?

A

formation of trilaminar disk

gastrulation

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8
Q

Between what two weeks is the embryo most susceptible to teratogens?

A

3-8 weeks

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9
Q

At what week does the heart begin to beat?

A

four weeks

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10
Q

At what week are all four limbs developed?

A

week four

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11
Q

At what week can a fetal heart be seen?

A

week 6

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12
Q

At what week are genitalia visible?

A

week 10

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13
Q

What starts gastrulation?

A

epiblast invaginating to form primitive streak

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14
Q

What is Rathke’s pouch?

A

depression in the roof of the mouth

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15
Q

What does Rathke’s pouch develop into?

A

anterior pituitary

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16
Q

What is another name for the pituitary? Which embryological layer?

A

adenohypophysis

surface ectoderm

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17
Q

What is a really easy way to remember what the neuroectoderm is?

A

CNS

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18
Q

What is a really easy way to remember what the neural crest is?

A

PNS

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19
Q

Is deformation an extrinsic or intrinsic process? When does a deformation occur?

A

extrinsic

after embryonic period

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20
Q

Is malformation an extrinsic or intrinsic process? When does it occur?

A

intrinsic

during embryonic period

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21
Q

What is a sequence?

A

abnormalities arising from a single embryological event

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22
Q

What kind of birth defects do ACE inhibitors cause?

A

renal

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23
Q

What kind of birth defects do alkylating agents cause?

A

absence of digits

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24
Q

What kind of birth defects does carbamazepine cause?

A

neural tube defects

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25
Q

What kind of birth defects does DES cause?

A

vaginal clear cell carcinoma

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26
Q

What kind of birth defects do folate antagonists cause?

A

neural tube defects

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27
Q

What kind of birth defects does lithium cause?

A

Ebstein anamoly

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28
Q

What birth defect does methimazole cause?

A

Aplasia cutis congenita

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29
Q

What kind of birth defects do tetracyclines cause?

A

discolored teeth

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30
Q

What type of birth defects would folate cause?

A

neural tube defects

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31
Q

What birth defect does cocaine cause?

A

abruptio placenta

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32
Q

Vitamin A excess cause cause what?

A

spontaneous abortion

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33
Q

What is hypertelorism?

A

increased space between two parts

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34
Q

What is the function of βHCG during development?

A

stimulate corpus luteum to produce progesterone

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35
Q

Do the umbilical arteries carry oxygenated blood or deoxygenated blood? How many? Connects which two vessels?

A

deoxygenated

two

fetal internal iliacs to placenta

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36
Q

Do the umbilical veins carry oxygenated blood or deoxygenated blood? Into?

A

oxygenated

IVC or ductus venosus

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37
Q

What is the function of the ductus venosus ?

A

drain maternal blood into IVC

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38
Q

What two structures does the urachus connect?

A

duct between yolk sac and fetal bladder

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39
Q

What is a urachal cyst?

A

partial failure of urachus to obliterate

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40
Q

What can a urachal cyst lead to?

A

adenocarcinoma

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41
Q

What two types of tissue are in a Meckels Diverticulum?

A

gastric and pancreatic

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42
Q

What vessel does the 1st Aortic Arch develop into?

A

maxillary artery

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43
Q

What vessel does the 2nd Aortic Arch develop into?

A

Stapedial and hyoid

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44
Q

What vessel does the 3rd Aortic Arch develop into?

A

common carotid and proximal part of internal carotid

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45
Q

What vessel does the 4th Aortic Arch develop into on the right side?

A

subclavian

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46
Q

What vessel does the 4th Aortic Arch develop into on the left side?

A

aortic arch

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47
Q

What vessel does the 6th Aortic Arch develop into?

A

ductus arteriosus

pulmonary arteries

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48
Q

What does the branchial cleft develop into?

A

ectoderm

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49
Q

What do the branchial arches develop from?

A

mesoderm and neural crest

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50
Q

What does the branchial pouch develop into?

A

endoderm

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51
Q

What nerve innervates the tenser tympani?

A

CN V3

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52
Q

What cause treacher collins syndrome?

A

failure of neural crest of 1st arch to migrate

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53
Q

What muscle is innervated by the 3rd Branchial Arch? What is the function of this muscle?

A

stylopharyngeus

elevate pharynx and larynx

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54
Q

What nerve does the 4th branchial arch develop into? Muscles?

A

Superior laryngeal

Pharyngeal constrictors

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55
Q

What nerve does the 6th branchial arch develop into? Innervates what?

A

recurent laryngeal

all laryngeal constrictors except cricothyroid

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56
Q

Which GLUT transporter do spermatocytes express?

A

GLUT 5

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57
Q

What group of muscles does the 4th branchial arch develop into?

A

Pharynx

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58
Q

What group of muscles does the 6th branchial arch develop into? Except?

A

Larynx

cricothyroid

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59
Q

What are the two products of the 1st Branchial Pouch?

A

Middle Ear

Eustachian tube

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60
Q

What does the 2nd Branchial Pouch develop into?

A

palatine tonsil

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61
Q

What does the 3rd Branchial Pouch develop into?

A

thymus

inferior parathyroid

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62
Q

What does the 4th Branchial Pouch develop into?

A

superior parathyroid

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63
Q

What are the three tumors of MEN2A?

A

pheochromocytoma

Medullary carcinoma of thyroid

Parathyroid

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64
Q

What gene determines male development? What is produced?

A

SRY

testis determining factor

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65
Q

What cells produce an inhibitory factor of the paramesonephric ducts? What is the name of this factor ?

A

Sertoli

Mullerian Inhibiting factor

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66
Q

What is the function of Mullerian Inibiting Factor?

A

inhibit growth of paramesonephric ducts

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67
Q

What four structures does the Mesonephric duct develop into?

A

Seminal vesicle

epididymis

ejaculatory duct

ductus deferens

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68
Q

What causes a Bicornuate uterus?

A

incomplete fusion of paramesonephric ducts

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69
Q

What would happen in a male if Mullerian Inhibiting Factor was absent?

A

male external genitalia and female internal genitalia

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70
Q

What is epispadias associated with?

A

bladder exstrophy

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71
Q

What is the function of the gubernaculum in males?

A

anchors testis to sctotum

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72
Q

What is the female version of the gubernaculum?

A

ovarian ligament and round ligament of uterus

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73
Q

What does the gubernaculum form?

A

tunica vaginalis

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74
Q

What lymph nodes do the ovary and testicle go to?

A

para-aortic

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75
Q

What lymph nodes do the distal vagina/scrotum/vulva go to ?

A

inguinal

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76
Q

What is the epithelial lining of the vagina?

A

squamous, non-keratinized

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77
Q

What is the epithelial lining of the ectocervix?

A

squamous, non-keratinized

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78
Q

What is the epithelial lining of the endocervix?

A

columnar

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79
Q

What is the epithelial lining of the uterus?

A

columnar

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80
Q

What is the epithelial lining of the fallopian tube?

A

columnar

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81
Q

What is the epithelial lining of the outer surface of the ovary?

A

cuboidal

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82
Q

In males, what cell secretes inhibin? What does inhibin inhibit?

A

sertoli

FSH

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83
Q

What type of junction forms the BTB?

A

tight junction

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84
Q

What cell in males secretes Androgen binding protein?

A

Sertoli

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85
Q

Leydig cells secrete what hormone? In response to what hormone?

A

Testosterone

LH

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86
Q

What form of estrogen does the placenta produce?

A

Estriol

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87
Q

Which form of estrogen is produced by adipose tissue?

A

Estrone

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88
Q

Does estrogen or progesterone increase myometrial excitability? Via what mechanism?

A

estrogen

increasing gap junctions

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89
Q

What does progesterone do to myometrial excitability?

A

decrease

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90
Q

What two receptors does estrogen upregulate?

A

LH and progesterone

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91
Q

Does estrogen or progesteroen raise body temperature at ovulation?

A

progesterone

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92
Q

What is the potentcy of the three estrogens?

A

Estradiol > estrone > estriol

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93
Q

What is the definition for oligomenorrhea?

A

greater than a 35 day cycle

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94
Q

What is the definition of Polymenorrhea?

A

less tha 21 day cycle

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95
Q

What is Metrorrhagia?

A

frequent and irregular menstrual bleeding

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96
Q

What is Menorrhagia?

A

heavy menstrual bleeding

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97
Q

What is menometorrhagia?

A

heavy and irregular menstruation at irregular intervals

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98
Q

What states are oocytes arrested in until ovulation?

A

Prophase I

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99
Q

What states are oocytes arrested in until fertilization?

A

Metaphase II

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100
Q

How long does it take for a fertilized egg to implant?

A

6 days

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101
Q

How long does it take for β-HCG to be present in the blood? Urine?

A

blood = one week

urine = two weeks

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102
Q

What structure does β-HCG maintain? What is produced?

A

corpus luteum

progesterone

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103
Q

How long does β-HCG maintain the corpus luteum?

A

one trimester

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104
Q

β-HCG maintains structural similarity to what three hormones? Which subunit of β-HCG is unique?

A

FSH/LH/TSH

β-subunit

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105
Q

What is the most specific marker for menopause?

A

increased FSH

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106
Q

What are the levels of FSH, LH and GnRH in menopause?

A

↑ FSH

↑ LH

↑ GnRH

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107
Q

What is the potentcy of DHT, androstenedione and testosterone compared to each other?

A

DHT > testosterone > androstenedione

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108
Q

What androgen is produced in the adrenal gland?

A

Androstenedione

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109
Q

What androgen promotes male pattern baldness?

A

DHT

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110
Q

How is Klinefelter Syndrome confirmed?

A

presence of Barr body

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111
Q

Which two structures within the testicle are abnormal during Klinefelter Syndrome?

A

Seminferous tubules

Leydig cells

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112
Q

What are the endocrine effects of defective Semineferous tubules during Klinefelter Syndrome?

A

↓ inhibin and ↑ FSH

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113
Q

What are the endocrine effects of defective Leydig cells during Klinefelter Syndrome?

A

↓ testorterone

↑ LH

↑ estrogen

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114
Q

What would be three characteristics of an individual with 47, XYY syndrome?

A

tall

acne

anti-social

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115
Q

What cause a Female Pseudohermaphrodite? Physical presentation?

A

Exposure to androgens in gestation

internal female with virilized external

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116
Q

What cause a Male Pseudohermaphrodite? Physical presentation?

A

androgen insensitivity syndrome

testes present but female external

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117
Q

How would Aromatase Deficiency present? Presentation during pregnancy?

A

masculinizaiton of female

virilization of the mother

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118
Q

How does 5α-Reductase present?

A

ambiguous genitalia until puberty

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119
Q

What causes Kallman Syndrome?

A

failure of GnRH neurons to migrate to hypothalamus and lack of olfactory bulb

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120
Q

What are two common presenting symptoms for a complete mole?

A

Hyperemesis

Hyperthyroidism

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121
Q

What drug is used to treat a mole?

A

Methotrexate

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122
Q

What is the only cell to proliferate during a Mole?

A

trophoblast

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123
Q

What are the four drugs used to treat gestational HTN?

A

α-methyldopa

hydralazine

labetalol

Nifedipine

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124
Q

HTN before 20 weeks suggests what ?

A

molar pregnancy

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125
Q

What is used to prevent seizure during precclampsia?

A

IV magnesium sulfate

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126
Q

Would autoimmune disorders have an increased or decreased liklihood of producing ecclampsia?

A

increased

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127
Q

When is βHCG abnormally low?

A

ectopic pregnancy

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128
Q

What hematological complication can Pre-ecclampsia cause?

A

thrombocytopenia

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129
Q

What are the three risk factors for cause placental abruption?

A

smoking

HTN

cocaine

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130
Q

What is placenta accreta?

A

placenta attaches to myometrium

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131
Q

What is placenta increta?

A

placenta penetrates into myometrium

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132
Q

What is placenta percreta?

A

placenta penetrates through myometrium

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133
Q

What are the two risk factors for placenta previa?

A

multiparity

prior C-section

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134
Q

Which two happenings can take place if placental tissue is retained?

A

infection

hemorrhage

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135
Q

What is the largest risk factor for Polyhydramnios?

A

maternal diabetes

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136
Q

What muscle contributes to the cremaster muscle? What nerve?

A

Internal oblique

genitofemoral

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137
Q

What epithelial cell type most often causes invasive cervical carcinoma?

A

Squamous

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138
Q

What two cells have to be present to confirm endometritis?

A

plasma cells and lymphocytes

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139
Q

What two drugs are used to treat endometritis?

A

gentamicin or clindamycin

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140
Q

What two structures have to be outside of the uterus to Dx endometriosis?

A

glands

stroma

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141
Q

What is adenomyosis?

A

extension of endometrial tissue into myometrium

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142
Q

What causes Adenomyosis?

A

hyperplasia of basalis into myometrium

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143
Q

What is the Tx for Adenomyosis?

A

hysterectomy

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144
Q

How does endometrial hyperplasia most often present?

A

postmenopausal bleeding

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145
Q

What is the most common gynecological malignancy?

A

endometrial carcinoma

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146
Q

What determines the prognosis of Endometrial Carcinoma?

A

depth of invasion of myometrium

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147
Q

What is the most common gynecological tumor?

A

endometrial

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148
Q

What is the worst prognosis gynecological tumor?

A

Ovarian

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149
Q

What increases steroid hormone binding globulin in PCOD?

A

estrogen

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150
Q

What does insulin do to SHBG levels in PCOD? What is the effect of this?

A

decrease

increases in testosterone

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151
Q

What is the Tx for PCOD hirsutism? What is the rationale behind this?

A

OCPs

decrease LH levels

152
Q

Why is clomiphene administered during PCOD?

A

decrease FSH and LH

153
Q

What drug is given to decrease endometrial proliferation during PCOD?

A

Progestins

154
Q

What is an follicular cyst? What hormone is increased during a Follicular Cyst?

A

unruptured graafian follicle

estrogen

155
Q

What is a corpus luteum cyst?

A

hemorrhage into corpus luteum cyst

156
Q

What causes a theca-lutein cyst? Unilateral or bilateral?

A

excessive B-HCG stimulation

bilateral

157
Q

Are Theca-Lutein cysts bilateral or unilateral?

A

bilateral

158
Q

What are two associations with Theca-Lutein cysts?

A

choriocarcinoma

Moles

159
Q

What is a dermoid cyst?

A

mature teratoma

160
Q

What type of ovarian surface epithelium tumor is most common?

A

Serous cystadenocarcinoma

161
Q

What is the tumor marker for ovarian carcinoma?

A

CA-125

162
Q

Does infertility have a higher or lower likelihood of producing an ovarian carcinoma?

A

higher

163
Q

Does endometriosis have a higher or lower likelihood of producing an ovarian carcinoma?

A

higher

164
Q

What other type of cancer has a high liklihood of producing ovarian carcinoma?

A

Lynch (HNPCC)

165
Q

Which BRCAs are associated with ovarian carcinoma?

A

BRCA1 and BRCA2

166
Q

Does pregnancy increase or decrease the risk of ovaria carcinoma?

A

decrease

167
Q

Do OCPs increase or decrease the risk of ovaria carcinoma?

A

decrease

168
Q

Does breastfeeding increase or decrease the risk of ovaria carcinoma?

A

decrease

169
Q

Fallopian epithelium lines what type of neoplasm?

A

Serous Cystadenoma

170
Q

What is struma ovarii?

A

mature teratoma containing thyroid tissue

171
Q

What is Meigs Syndrome?

A

Fibromas

ascites

pleural effusion

172
Q

What hormone does a thecoma produce?

A

estrogen

173
Q

Are mature or immature teratomas malignant in women?

A

Immature

174
Q

What type of tissue is found in an immature teratoma in women?

A

Neuroectoderm

175
Q

What type of tumor possesses Call-Exner bodies?

A

Granulosa cell tumor

176
Q

What would be seen on histology during a Serous Cystadenocarcinoma?

A

Psamomma body

177
Q

What type of gynecological tumor gives rise to Pseudomyxoma-Peritonei?

A

Ovarian Mucinous Cystadenocarcinoma

178
Q

What is the female equivalent of a Seminoma?

A

dysgerminoma

179
Q

What would be the two tumor markers for a Dysgerminoma?

A

LDH and hCG

180
Q

What two locations would a choriocarcinoma metastisize?

A

Lungs and brain

181
Q

What is the tumor marker for endodermal sinus tumors? Color?

A

AFP

yellow

182
Q

Where, outside of the genitals, is a common location for an Endodermal Sinus Tumor?

A

Sacrococcygeal

183
Q

DES gives rise to what tumor?

A

clear cell carcinoma

184
Q

What are the two stains for a rhabdomyosarcoma?

A

Desmin and myogenin

185
Q

Does an older or younger age at the first birth increase the risk for breast cancer?

A

older

186
Q

What race is most likely to develop triple negative breast cancer?

A

AAs

187
Q

Does Pagets disease suggest malignancy in the breast or vulva?

A

Breast

188
Q

What type of breast pathology does Pagets disease represent?

A

DCIS

189
Q

A “rock-hard” mass is indicative of what type of breast cancer?

A

invasive ductal

190
Q

Lymphocytic infiltrate is indicative of what type of breast carcinoma?

A

medullary

191
Q

What is Inflammatory Carcinoma characterized by?

A

invasive cells blocking lymphatic drainage

192
Q

What is Sclerosing Adenosis of the breast? Malignant?

A

Proliferation of acini and fibrosis

benign

193
Q

What are the two treatments of mastitis?

A

continue breast feeding

Dicloxacillin

194
Q

When are Giant cells seen in the breast?

A

fat necrosis

195
Q

What causes Gynecomastia in males?

A

hyperestrogenism

196
Q

What are the drugs that cause gynecomastia?

A

Spironolactone

Marijuana/Digitalis

Estrogen

Cimetidine

Alcohol

Heroin

Dopamine/D2 antagonists

Ketoconazole

197
Q

What are the three drugs used to treat BPH?

A

Tamsulosin

Terazosin

Finasteride

198
Q

What increases the risk of cryptorchidism?

A

Prematurity

199
Q

What is the histological feature an Endodermal Sinus Tumor?

A

Schiller-Duval bodies

200
Q

What do Schiller-Duval Bodies look like?

A

primitive glomeruli

201
Q

Is a teratoma malignant in males or females?

A

males

202
Q

What are the two markers for a teratoma?

A

AFP and βHCG

203
Q

A malignant, hemorrhagic mass with necrosis is indicative of what type of tumor in males?

A

Dysgerminoma

204
Q

What is the most common testicular cancer in older men?

A

testicular lymphoma

205
Q

What is Bowen disease? Presents as?

A

squamous cell carcinoma of penile shaft

leukoplakia

206
Q

What is Erythroplasia of Queyrat? Presents as?

A

cancer of glans

Erythroplakia

207
Q

What disease could cause priapism?

A

Sickle cell disease

208
Q

What is the MOA of fulvestrant?

A

complete estrogen receptor antagonist

209
Q

When does Leuprolide have agonist properties?

A

pulsatile

210
Q

When does Leuprolide have antagonist properties?

A

constant

211
Q

What is the function of leuprolide?

A

down-regulate GnRH receptors on pituitary

212
Q

What is the MOA of clomiphene?

A

antagonist at estrogen receptors in hypothalamus

213
Q

What does clomiphene prevent?

A

normal feedback inhibition

214
Q

What does clomiphene increase?

A

FSH and LH

215
Q

What are the two clinical uses of danazol?

A

endometriosis and hereditary angioedema

216
Q

What two steroidal hormones can danazol inhibit?

A

desmolease

17α-Hydroxylase

217
Q

What organelle is the acrosome derived from?

A

Golgi

218
Q

What is the most common cause of bloody discharge from the nipple?

A

Intraductal papilloma

219
Q

What is the function of the FGF gene?

A

lengthening of limbs

220
Q

What is the function of the notochord? What does the notochord become?

A

induce ectorderm to form neuroectoderm

nucleus pulposus

221
Q

What is aplasia?

A

absent organ despite present primordial tissue

222
Q

WHat birth defect does methimazole cause?

A

alopecia

223
Q

What is the placenta and amnion status of a monozygotic twin that split between 0-4 days?

A

fused/separate placenta

dichorionic amnion

224
Q

What is the placenta and amnion status of a monozygotic twin that split between 4-8 days?

A

Monochorionic diamniotic

225
Q

What is the placenta and amnion status of a monozygotic twin that split between 8-12 days?

A

monochorionic

monoamniotic

226
Q

What is Decidua Basalis?

A

maternal (endometrial) component to placenta

227
Q

What structure are the umbilical arteries and veins derived from?

A

Allantois

228
Q

What happens during a patent urachus?

A

urine discharge from umbilicus

229
Q

What vessel does the right recurrent laryngeal loop around? Left?

A

right = subclavian

left = aortic arch

230
Q

What do the paramesonephric ducts develop into?

A

female internal genitalia

231
Q

What does the processus vaginalis form?

A

tunica vaginalis

232
Q

What vessels are carried within the Infundibulopelvic ligament?

A

ovarian vessels

233
Q

What type of epithelium is present in the Transition Zone?

A

Squamocolumnar

234
Q

What virus causes hemorrhagic cystitis?

A

adenovirus

235
Q

What does estrogen do to SHBG levels?

A

increase

236
Q

What does estrogen do to HDL levels?

A

increase

237
Q

What does estrogen do to LDL levels?

A

decrease

238
Q

What causes lactation after pregnancy?

A

drop in progesterone increase prolactin secretion

239
Q

What is done to a GBS mother?

A

intrapartum ampicillin

240
Q

What is the most often site of obstruction during development? Why?

A

Ureto-pelvic junction

last to canalize

241
Q

What structure is the ovum released from?

A

graafian follicle

242
Q

What stimulates the LH surge?

A

estrogen

243
Q

What is the most common site of fertilization?

A

Ampulla

244
Q

What prevents a woman from getting pregnant while breastfeeding?

A

Prolactin inhibits GnRH release

245
Q

What protein produces the unwanted metabolic effects in the mother? Where is this made?

A

Human Placntal Lactogen

Syncytiotrophoblast

246
Q

What chromosome is p16 located?

A

9

247
Q

What chromosome is Rb on?

A

13

248
Q

What are the four conditions that can give rise to horseshoe kidney?

A

Trisomy 13/18/21 and Turner

249
Q

What moiety of proteins does nitric oxide bind?

A

Heme

250
Q

What two types of epithelium are involved in a Nabothian cyst? Where does this occur?

A

squamous and columnar

Cervix

251
Q

Which hormone closes the epiphyseal plates?

A

Estrogen

252
Q

Does Turner Syndrome result in preductal or postductal coarctation of the aorta?

A

preductal

253
Q

What would the levels of FSH and LH be during Turners Syndrome?

A

increased

254
Q

What type of disease would increase testosterone and increased LH be indicative of?

A

defective androgen receptor

255
Q

What type of disease would decrease testosterone and increased LH be indicative of?

A

primary hypogonadism

256
Q

What type of disease would decrease testosterone and decreased LH be indicative of?

A

hypogonadotropin hypogonadism

257
Q

How would Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome present?

A

female external genitalia but absent uterus or ovaries

258
Q

How does 5α-Reductase Deficiency present?

A

Penis At 12

259
Q

What are the two mechanisms by which CD18 deficiency presents?

A

omphilitis

delayed separation of umbilical cord

260
Q

Whats the difference between placenta previa and placenta abruption?

A

previa = painless

261
Q

What is the most common location for an ectopic pregnancy?

A

ampulla

262
Q

How does Leiomyoma/Fibroid often present? Key work for histology?

A

multiple distinct tumors

whorled

263
Q

Brenner Tumors are composed of what type of epithelium? How do these look on histology?

A

Transitional

Coffee-bean

264
Q

Name three antibiotics contraindicated during pregnancy?

A

TMP/SMX

fluoroquinolone

265
Q

Mature teratomas are more likely to contain what type of tissue?

A

Thyroid

266
Q

What is the most common sex cord stromal tumor? Produces?

A

Granulosa cell tumor

estrogen and/or progesterone

267
Q

What are two common presentations for a Choriocarcinoma?

A

Hemoptysis

Shortness of breath

268
Q

What do Schiller-Duval bodies resemeble?

A

primitive glomeruli

269
Q

Name four physical characteristics of a Endodermal Sinus Tumor?

A

yellow/friable/Hemorrhagic/Solid

270
Q

What is the most common fetal neoplasm?

A

Sacrococcygeal teratoma

271
Q

What drug is used for neonatal prophylaxis of HBV?

A

Lamivudine

272
Q

Woman under the age of 35 presents with breast tenderness, what is the most likely Dx?

A

fibroadenoma

273
Q

What is the most common reason for a bloody discharge from the nipple in women?

A

Intraductal Papilloma

274
Q

Woman in her 60s presents with a large bulky mass in breast, what is the most likely cause?

A

Pyllodes Tumor

275
Q

Microcalcifications in the breast are usually caused by what?

A

DCIS

276
Q

What is seen on histology during Comedocarcinoma?

A

caseous necrosis

277
Q

What is the most common breast carcinoma?

A

Invasive Ductal

278
Q

What are the four invasive breast carcinomas?

A

Ductal

Lobular

Inflammatory

Medullary

279
Q

How does invasive lobular carcinoma look on histology?

A

‘orderly row of cells’

280
Q

What is more common, E. coli prostatitis or abacterial prostatitis?

A

abacterial

281
Q

What does BPH lead to an increase in?

A

Free PSA

282
Q

What are the levels of levels of Inhibin, LH and FSH during cryptorchidism?

A

↓ Inhibin

↑ FSH

↑ LH

283
Q

Cryptorchidism increases the risk of what type of cancer?

A

Germ cell tumor

284
Q

What are the two congenital/genetic risk factors for developing a testicular carcinoma?

A

Klinefelter

Cryptorchidism

285
Q

What is the appearance of a seminoma?

A

homogenous testicular mass

286
Q

How would a seminoma appear on histology?

A

lobules with watery cytoplasm

287
Q

What is the treatment modality of choice for a seminoma?

A

radiation

288
Q

What age range presents with a Yolk Sac tumor?

A

less than 3

289
Q

How does a Leydig cell tumor present in men?

A

Gynecomastia

290
Q

How does a Leydig cell tumor present in boys?

A

precocious puberty

291
Q

What genetic disease can cause Priapism?

A

sickle cell

292
Q

What bug causes Farmers Lung?

A

Actinomyces

293
Q

What are the two uses of Danazol?

A

Endometriosis and Hereditary Angioedema

294
Q

What does finasteride do to male hair growth?

A

increase

295
Q

What two enzymes does spironolactone inhibit?

A

Desmolase

17α-Hydroxylase

296
Q

What two drugs are used during PCOD to prevent hirsutism?

A

Spironolactone

Ketoconazole

297
Q

What two anti-neoplastics when used in combination can cause Dilative Cardiomyopathy?

A

Cyclophosphamide and Cytarabine

298
Q

What part of the brain is specifically effected during Osmotic Demyelination Syndrome?

A

pons

299
Q

What is a tumor of Rathe’s Pouch called? What are the two contents?

A

Craiopharyngioma

cholesterol crystals and calcifications

300
Q

What is the epithelium above the pectinate line? Derived from?

A

cuboidal

endoderm

301
Q

What is the epithelium below the pectinate line? Derived from?

A

squamous

surface ectoderm

302
Q

What is special about the embryology of the spleen compared to other internal organs?

A

Spleen is derived from mesoderm while most other internal organs are derived from endoderm

303
Q

What two birth defects can be caused by Maternal Diabetes ?

A

heart

neural tube

304
Q

What is the hypothesis as to why Fetal Alcohol Syndrome causes defects?

A

inhibition of cell migration

305
Q

What cells make up the outer and inner layer of the placenta?

A

outer = syncytiotrophoblast

inner = cytotrophoblast

306
Q

What two things does a single umbilical artery indicate?

A

congenital and chromosomal anomalies

307
Q

What two structures does the Vitelline Duct connect?

A

yolk sac and midgut lumen

308
Q

What muscle is innervated by the 3rd Brachial Arch?

A

Stylopharyngeus

309
Q

What organ is effected during DiGeorge Syndrome?

A

heart

310
Q

What pharyngeal arches are the Parafollicular Cells derived from?

A

4th/5th

311
Q

What pharyngeal arches is the Parathyroid derived from?

A

3/4th

312
Q

What two structures fail to fuse during cleft lip?

A

maxillary and medial nasal process

313
Q

What is the pathology of epispadias?

A

incomplete fusion of the genital tubercle

314
Q

What is another name for the Suspensory Ligaments of the Ovary?

A

Infundibulopelvic ligament

315
Q

What two structures does the Cardinal Ligament conenct?

A

uterus to size of pelvis

316
Q

What two structures does the round ligament of the uterus connect?

A

uterine fundus to labia majora

317
Q

What cell decreases its activity with an increase in temperature?

A

Sertoli

318
Q

What cell in the male reproductive tract is unaffected by temperature?

A

Leydig

319
Q

What drug is prophylactically used to treat GBS?

A

ampicillin

320
Q

Where does the majority of semen volume come from?

A

Seminal Vesicle

321
Q

What structure produces estrogen in the late follicular phase?

A

Graafian Follicle

322
Q

What part of the male genitalia is not stimulated by testosterone?

A

Prostate

323
Q

Does a fibroid progress to a leiomyosarcoma?

A

no

324
Q

What hormones does a Granulosa Cell Tumor express?

A

estrogen and/or progesterone

325
Q

Describe two features of paget cells.

A

large cells with clear halos

326
Q

Does prostatic adenocarcinoma have an increase in bound or free PSA?

A

bound PSA

327
Q

Where is sonic hedgehog produced?

A

base of limbs

328
Q

Where is Wnt produced?

A

apical ectodermal ridge

329
Q

What is Danazol used to treat?

A

endometriosis

330
Q

What type of drug is Exemestane?

A

aromatase inhibitors

331
Q

What is misoprostol an analogue of?

A

PGE1

332
Q

What type of drug is Mifepristone?

A

progesterone receptor antagonist

333
Q

What type of drug is flutamide?

A

androgen receptor antagonist

334
Q

What enzyme can Ketoconazole inhibit?

A

desmolase

335
Q

What can Sildenafil due to vision?

A

blue-green color vision

336
Q

What are the important Neural Crest Derivatives?

A

Melanocytes

Odontoblasts

Tracheal cartilage

ECL cells

Laryngeal cartilage

Parafollicular C cells

Adrenal medulla

Schwann cells

spiral membrane

337
Q

Twinning after what day produces Conjoined Twins?

A

13

338
Q

Decreased estriol in pregnancy suggests what sort of deficiency?

A

placental

339
Q

The genital tubercle develops into what two structures in the male?

A

glans

corpus cavernosum and spongiosum

340
Q

The genital tubercle develops into what two structures in the female?

A

glans clitoris

vestibular bulbs

341
Q

What does the urogenital sinus develop into in males and females?

A

glands

342
Q

What does the urogenital fold develop into in men?

A

ventral shaft of penis

343
Q

What does the urogenital fold develop into in women?

A

labia minora

344
Q

What does the Labioscrotal swelling develop into in men?

A

scrotum

345
Q

What does the Labioscrotal swelling develop into in women?

A

labia majora

346
Q

What structure is injured during Retrograde Ejaculation? Presents as?

A

internal urethral sphincter

cloudy urine after ejaculation

347
Q

What specific nerve controls sympathetic response to the penis?

A

hypogastric

348
Q

What specific nerve controls Ejaculation response to the penis?

A

pudendal

349
Q

Leydig Cells are the male equivalent of what female cells?

A

theca interna

350
Q

Is the cyto or syncytio trophoblast interior?

A

cyto = inner

351
Q

Does the cyto or syncytiotrophoblast lack MHC One?

A

syncytiotrophoblast

352
Q

Does progesterone upregulate or downregulate receptors?

A

down-regulate

353
Q

During what tanner stage does pubic hair appear?

A

two

354
Q

Is the follicular or luteal phase always constant?

A

luteal

355
Q

What is Chadwicks Sign?

A

blue-ish color of cervix that marks pending pregnancy

356
Q

At what week does HCG peak?

A

ten

357
Q

Where does a posterior urethra bleed?

A

Retro-pubic

358
Q

What causes a bulbar urethra bleed? Goes where?

A

blunt force

retro-pubic space

359
Q

Where does a penile urethra bleed?

A

bucks fascia

360
Q

When does spermatogenesis begin?

A

puberty

361
Q

What is the best drug for pregnancy hypercoaguability?

A

LMWH

362
Q

What is the average of thelarche?

A

eight years

363
Q

What hormone mediates the development of male internal genitalia? External?

A

testosterone = internal

DHT = external

364
Q

What is adenosis?

A

persistence of columnar metaplasia in upper 2/3 of vagina

365
Q

What two hormones decrease SHBG synthesis?

A

insulin and testosterone

366
Q

What causes an endometrioma?

A

mass arising from ectopic endometrial tissue

367
Q

Is a Struma Ovarii a teratoma? What kind?

A

yes

monodermal teratoma

368
Q

What part of the breast gland does a Intraductal Papilloma arise from?

A

Lactiferous sinus

369
Q

Which type of breast cancer features a Stellate infiltration?

A

Invasive Ductal

370
Q

Which breast cancer is often bilateral?

A

invasive lobular

371
Q

Which type of PSA increases during BPH?

A

free PSA

372
Q

Which type of PSA increases during Prostate Cancer?

A

bound PSA

373
Q

What cell is seen during Mammary Duct Ectasia?

A

plasma cells

374
Q

Are teratomas more often malignant in males or females?

A

males

375
Q

What are two side effects of Leuprolide?

A

nauses and vomiting

376
Q

What is the main toxicity of Mifepristone?

A

bleeding

377
Q

What is the embryological origin of the notochord?

A

mesoderm

First Aid (21 decks)

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