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First Aid > Cardiovascular > Flashcards

Cardiovascular Flashcards

1
Q

What two structures does the truncus arteriosus give rise to?

A

ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk

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2
Q

What does the bulbus cordis give rise to?

A

smooth muscle outflow tract of left and right ventricles

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3
Q

What does the primitive atria give rise to?

A

trabeculated part of left and right atria

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4
Q

What does the primitive ventricle give rise to?

A

trabeculated part of left and right ventricle

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5
Q

What does the primitive pulmonary vein give rise to?

A

smooth muscle part of left atrium

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6
Q

What does the left horn of the sinus venosus give rise to?

A

coronary sinus

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7
Q

What does the right horn of the sinus venosus give rise to?

A

smooth muscle part of right atria

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8
Q

What two structures make up the superior vena cava?

A

right common cardinal vein

right anterior cardinal vein

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9
Q

By how many weeks into embryological development does the heart begin beating?

A

4 weeks

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10
Q

What protein is defective in Kartagener Syndrome?

A

Dynein

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11
Q

What is the name of the structure that embryologically connects the left and right atria?

A

foramen primum

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12
Q

What structure originally separates the left from the right atria?

A

foramen primum

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13
Q

What structure forms in the septum primum?

A

foramen secundum

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14
Q

What develops as the foramen secundum maintains the left to right shunt?

A

septum secundum

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15
Q

What structure is left over after the septum secundum covers the foramen secundum?

A

foramen ovale

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16
Q

What structure forms the valve of the foramen ovale?

A

septum primum

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17
Q

What two structures fuse to form the atrial septum?

A

septum primum and septum secundum

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18
Q

What causes a patent foramen ovale?

A

failure of septum primum and septum secundum to fuse

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19
Q

What can a patent foramen ovale lead to?

A

paradoxical emboli

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20
Q

Does a VSD most commonly occur in the muscular or membranus septum?

A

membranus

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21
Q

What two ridges fuse to form the aorticopulmonary septum?

A

bulbar ridges and truncal ridges

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22
Q

What are the aortic and pulmonary valves derived from?

A

endocardial cushions of the outflow tract

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23
Q

What are the mitral and tricuspid valves derived from?

A

fused endocardial cushions of the AV canal

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24
Q

What is Ebsteins Anamoly?

A

tricuspid valve leaflets are attached to RV

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25
Q

What weeks does hematopoiesis occur in the yolk sac?

A

3-8 week

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26
Q

What weeks does hematopoiesis occur in the liver?

A

6th week to birth

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27
Q

What weeks does hematopoiesis take place in the spleen?

A

10th - 28 weeks

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28
Q

What weeks does hematopoiesis occur in the bone marrow?

A

18 weeks to adult

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29
Q

What is the PO2 of blood in the umbilical vein?

A

30 mm Hg

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30
Q

What would a pulse oximeter of fetal blood read?

A

80%

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31
Q

What vessel supplies oxygenated blood to the fetus? What vessel does it join?

A

ductus venosus

IVC

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32
Q

Upon reaching fetal circulation, where does most of the oxygenated blood go? Via what structure?

A

head

foramen oale

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33
Q

Upon reaching fetal circulation, where does most of the de-oxygenated blood go?

A

RA –> RV –> patent Ductus arteriosus

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34
Q

Why does blood preferentially flow through the PDA rather than pulmonary vein?

A

fetal lungs are high pressure

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35
Q

What is a closed foramen ovale called?

A

fossa ovalis

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36
Q

What drug is used to keep the PDA open?

A

Indomethacin

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37
Q

What prostaglandins keep the PDA open?

A

E1 and E2

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38
Q

What does the umbilical vein become?

A

ligamentum teres hepatis

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39
Q

What does the umbilical artery become?

A

medial umbilical ligaments

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40
Q

What does the ductus arteriosus become?

A

ligamentum arteriosum

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41
Q

What does the ductus venosum become?

A

ligamentum venosum

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42
Q

What does the allantois become?

A

urachus/median umbilical ligament

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43
Q

What does the notochord become?

A

nucleus pulposus

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44
Q

Would coronary blood flow peak during early or late diastole?

A

early

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45
Q

Enlargement of the left atria can cause what two mediastinal symptoms?

A

dysphagia

hoarseness of voice

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46
Q

What is Ficks equation?

A

CO = O2 consumption/arterial O2 - venous O2

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47
Q

What is the equation for MAP?

A

(2/3 diastolic)(1/3 systolic)

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48
Q

Would hyperthyroidism increase or decrease pulse pressure?

A

increase

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49
Q

Would aortic regurgitation increase or decrease pulse pressure?

A

decrease

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50
Q

Would aortic stenosis increase or decrease pulse pressure?

A

decrease

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51
Q

Would obstructive sleep apnea increase or decrease pulse pressure?

A

increase

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52
Q

Would cardiogenic shock increase or decrease pulse pressure?

A

decrease

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53
Q

Would tamponade increase or decrease pulse pressure?

A

decrease

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54
Q

What would decreased extracellular sodium do to contractility?

A

increase contractility

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55
Q

What would acidosis do to contractility? By what mechanism?

A

decrease

protons inhibit ca2+ influx

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56
Q

What would hypoxia do to contractiltiy?

A

decrease

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57
Q

What would hypercapnia do to contractiltiy?

A

decrease

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58
Q

What is the equation for LaPlace’s Law on wall tension?

A

(pressure)(radius)/(two)(wall thickness)

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59
Q

What is the Y-axis on Starlings Curve?

A

cardiac output

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60
Q

What is the X-axis on Starlings Curve?

A

preload/EDV

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61
Q

What is the Y-axis of the cardiac/vascular function curve?

A

CO/venous return

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62
Q

What is the X-axis of the cardiac/vascular function curve?

A

Right atrial pressure/EDV

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63
Q

What does the intersecting point of the cardiac/vascular curve mean?

A

CO = Venous return

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64
Q

Would a positive inotrope produce a left-shift or right-shift of the Cardiac/Vascular function curve?

A

left shift

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65
Q

Would HFor Digoxin OD produce a left-shift or right-shift of the Cardiac/Vascular function curve?

A

right shift

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66
Q

What would fluid infusion do to venous return? Would this produce a left-shift or right-shift on the Cardiac/Vascular function curve?

A

increase venous return

left-shift

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67
Q

What would fluid loss do to venous return? Would this produce a left-shift or right-shift on the Cardiac/Vascular function curve?

A

decrease

left-shift

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68
Q

What would spinal anesthesia do to venous return? Would this produce a left-shift or right-shift on the Cardiac/Vascular function curve?

A

decrease

left-shift

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69
Q

Do changes in TPR change RA pressure on a Cardiac/Vascular function curve? What does this mean?

A

no

X-intercept doesnt change

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70
Q

Would vasopressors produce an upward or downward shift of the Cardiac/Vascular function curve?

A

downward

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71
Q

Would vasodilators produce an upward or downward shift of the Cardiac/Vascular function curve?

A

upward

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72
Q

What valve closes before isovolumic contraction?

A

mitral

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73
Q

What valve opens as the end of isovolumic contraction?

A

aortic

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74
Q

What is the Y-axis on the pressure/volume curve?

A

LV pressure

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75
Q

What is the X-axis on the pressure/volume curve?

A

LV volume

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76
Q

In the left heart, what action produces an S1?

A

mitral valve closing

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77
Q

In the left heart, what action produces an S2?

A

aortic valve closing

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78
Q

In the left heart, what action produces an S3? When does an S3 occur?

A

mitral valve opening

beginning of diastole

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79
Q

What makes an S1 heart sound?

A

mitral and tricuspid valve closing

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80
Q

What makes an S2 heart sound?

A

aortic and pulmonic valve closing

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81
Q

What is an S3 heart sound associated with?

A

increased filling pressures

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82
Q

In what two patient populations is an S3 heart sound normal?

A

pregnant women and children

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83
Q

What makes an S4 heart sound?

A

atrial kick

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84
Q

What is an S4 associated with?

A

ventricular hypertrophy

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85
Q

What is the a-wave of the JVP?

A

atrial contraction

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86
Q

What causes a c-wave?

A

RV pushing into tricuspid valve

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87
Q

What causes the x–wave?

A

atrial relaxation

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88
Q

In what disease state is the X-wave present?

A

tricuspid regurgitation

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89
Q

What causes a v-wave?

A

RA filling with blood

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90
Q

What causes a y-wave?

A

blood filling RV from RA

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91
Q

Delayed closure of what valve occurs during splitting of S2 sounds?

A

pulmonic

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92
Q

What causes a wide splitting of S2?

A

anything that delays RV emptying

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93
Q

What causes a paradoxical splitting? What is the order of valve closing?

A

anything that delays LV emptying

pulmonic closes before aortic in this situation

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94
Q

Inspiration would increase the intensity of sounds from what side of the heart?

A

right side

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95
Q

What does the hand grip manuever accomplish?

A

increases vascular resistance

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96
Q

Does the hand grip manuever increase or decrease the intensity of left-sided heart pathologies?

A

increase

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97
Q

Would the hand grip manuever make a MVP occur earlier or later?

A

later

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98
Q

What does standing do to venous return?

A

decrease it

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99
Q

What does the valsalva manuever do to venous return?

A

decrease it

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100
Q

What does standing/valsalva manuever do to most murmurs?

A

weaken their intensity

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101
Q

What murmur can standing/valsalva manuever increase the intensity of?

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

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102
Q

What does rapid squatting do to preload?

A

increase

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103
Q

What does rapid squatting do to venous return?

A

increase

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104
Q

What murmur can rapid squatting increase the intensity of?

A

aortic stenosis

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105
Q

Would rapid squatting increase or decrease the intensity of an MVP?

A

increase

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106
Q

What are the three presentations of aortic stenosis upon exertion?

A

syncope

Angina

Dyspnea

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107
Q

Woud mitral/tricuspid regurgitation be a systolic or diastolic murmur?

A

systolic murmur

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108
Q

Where does an aortic stenosis murmur radiate?

A

carotids

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109
Q

Where is a VSD murmur the loudest?

A

at the tricuspid valve

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110
Q

Would an MVP occur during diastole or systole? Early or late?

A

systole

late

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111
Q

Name three conditions that may cause an MVP?

A

myxomatous degeneration

rheumatic fever

papillary muscle rupture

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112
Q

Would an aortic regurgitation murmur be heard in diastole or systole? Early or late?

A

diastole

early

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113
Q

What are two presentations of aortic regurgitation that could be seen on physical exam?

A

head bobbing

bounding pulses

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114
Q

What murmur produces an opening snap?

A

mitral stenosis

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115
Q

What is the most common cause of mitral stenosis?

A

chronic rheumatic fever

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116
Q

What is the most common cause of a PDA?

A

congenital rubella

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117
Q

Where is a PDA best heard?

A

left infraclavicular area

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118
Q

What voltage is the action potential for a cardiac myocyte?

A

-85 mV

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119
Q

What voltage is the action potential for a cardiac nodal cell?

A

-40 mV

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120
Q

Why dont nodal cells have a Phase 0 similar to myocytes? Results in?

A

high RMP permanently inactivates fast sodium channels

slower conduction times

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121
Q

How does sympathetic stimulation speed HR?

A

increases opening of funny channels

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122
Q

What is the Mnemonic to remember the drugs that can increase QT?

A

Some Risky Meds Can Prolong QT

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123
Q

What is the S of Some Risky Meds Can Prolong QT?

A

Sotalol

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124
Q

What is the R of Some Risky Meds Can Prolong QT?

A

Risperidone

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125
Q

What is the M of Some Risky Meds Can Prolong QT?

A

Macrolides

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126
Q

What is the C of Some Risky Meds Can Prolong QT?

A

Chloroquine

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127
Q

What is the P of Some Risky Meds Can Prolong QT?

A

Protease Inhibitors (-navir)

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128
Q

What is the Q of Some Risky Meds Can Prolong QT?

A

quinidine

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129
Q

What is the T of Some Risky Meds Can Prolong QT?

A

Thiazides

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130
Q

Which Arrhythmia can kill a person with Long QT Syndrome?

A

Torsades

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131
Q

What are the two syndromes that can produce congenital long QT syndrome?

A

Romano-Ward

Jervell and Lange-Nielsen

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132
Q

Which congential long QT syndrome only produces cardiac defects? What is the inheritance pattern of this disease?

A

Romano-ward

autosomal dominant

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133
Q

Which congential long QT syndrome produces deafness in addition to cardiac defects? What is the inheritance pattern of this disease?

A

Jervall and Lange-Nielsen

autosomal recessive

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134
Q

What is the bypass pathway of WPW called?

A

bundle of Kent

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135
Q

What type of heart pathology can lyme disease create?

A

3rd degree

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136
Q

What 2nd messenger is activated by ANP?

A

cGMP

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137
Q

Where is BNP released from? When?

A

ventricular myocytes

increased stretch

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138
Q

What can BNP be used to rule out?

A

acute heart failure

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139
Q

What is synthetic BNP? What is it used to treat?

A

Nesiritide

acute heart failure

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140
Q

What does the aortic baroreceptor project to?

A

nucleus tractus solitarius

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141
Q

What does the aortic baroreceptor respond to?

A

increased pressure only

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142
Q

What nerve does the aortic baroreceptor respond to?

A

vagus

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143
Q

What nerve does the carotid receptor use?

A

glossopharyngeal

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144
Q

What does the carotid baroreceptor respond to?

A

increases and decreases in blood pressure

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145
Q

What is the normal pressure in the right atria?

A

less than 5 mm Hg

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146
Q

What is the normal pressure in the right ventricle?

A

25/5

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147
Q

What is the normal pressure in the left atria?

A

less than 12 mm Hg

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148
Q

What is the normal pressure in the LV?

A

130/10

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149
Q

What is the normal pressure in the pulmonary artery?

A

25/10

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150
Q

What is the only organ where CO2 causes vasoconstriction?

A

lung

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151
Q

What two ions cause vasodilation in skeletal muscle?

A

potassium and hydrogen ions

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152
Q

What chamber does pulmonary capillary wedge pressure measure?

A

left atria

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153
Q

What is the Starling Equation?

A

(Pc-Pi) - (πc-πi)

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154
Q

What does Pc represent?

A

capillary hydrostatic pressure

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155
Q

What does Pi represent?

A

capillary oncotic pressure

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156
Q

What does πc represent?

A

capillary oncotic

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157
Q

What does πi represent?

A

interstitial osmotic

158
Q

What does TAPVR stand for?

A

total anamolous pulmonary venous return

159
Q

What is the defect in TAPVR? What other two defects are often seen during TAPVR?

A

pulmonary veins drain into right heart

ASD and PDA

160
Q

What are the five causes of a right to left shunt?

A

Truncus Arteriosus

Transposition

Tricuspid atresia

tetralogy of fallot

TAPVR

161
Q

What defect often accompanies a Persistent Truncus Arteriosus?

A

VSD

162
Q

What causes Transposition of the Great Vessels?

A

Failure of aortico-pulmonary septum to spiral

163
Q

What three conditions does Eisenmenger Syndrome produce?

A

cyanosis

clubbing

Polycythemia

164
Q

A non-mitral bicuspid valve is associated with what disease?

A

Aortic stenosis

165
Q

Where does an infantile coarctation of the aorta connect?

A

proximal to PDA

166
Q

Where does an adult coarctation of the aorta connect?

A

distal to ligamentum arteriosum

167
Q

What is infantile coarctation of the aorta associated with ?

A

Turner syndrome

168
Q

What are three findings of adult coarctation of the aorta?

A

notching of ribs

strong UE pulses

weak LE pulses

169
Q

What conditions of the heart is 22q11 associated with?

A

truncus arteriosus

tetralogy of fallot

170
Q

What three heart conditions are associated with Down Syndrome?

A

ASD

VSD

atrial septal defect

171
Q

What two heart conditions are associated with Turner Syndrome?

A

coarctation of aorta

bicuspid aortic valve

172
Q

What four heart conditions are associated with Marfan Syndrome?

A

MVP

thoracic aorta aneurysm/dissection

aortic regurgitation

173
Q

Infant of diabetic mother is associated with what heat issue?

A

Transposition of Great Arteries

174
Q

What is the main cause of HTN in young patients?

A

fibromuscular dysplasia

175
Q

What specific cell type are Xanthomas made of?

A

Lipid Laden Histiocytes

176
Q

What is the most common tendon for a xanthoma to lodge?

A

achilles

177
Q

What part of the vessel does Monckeberg Arteriosclerosis effect? What process? Which vessels?

A

media

calcification

radial and ulnar

178
Q

What are the two types of arteriolosclerosis?

A

hyaline and hyperplastic

179
Q

What are the two causes of hyaline arteriolosclerosis?

A

chronic benign HTN and diabetes

180
Q

What causes hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis? What appearance takes place?

A

severe HTN

onion skinning

181
Q

What are the two growth cytokines for atherosclerosis?

A

PDGF and FGF

182
Q

What three disease processes can cause a thoracic aortic aneurysm?

A

cystic medial degeneration

Marfan

syphillis

183
Q

Why can syphillis cause a thoracic aortic aneurysm?

A

endarteritis of vasovasorum

184
Q

What valvular pathology is aortic dissection associated with?

A

bicuspid aortic valve

185
Q

What are two presenting symptoms of aortic dissection?

A

chest pain that radiates to back

unequal BP in UEs

186
Q

Does prinzmetal angina cause ST elevation or ST depression?

A

ST elevation

187
Q

What two drugs are used to treat Prinzmetal Angina?

A

CCBs and nitrates

188
Q

Where in the vessel does coronary steal take place?

A

distal to a stenosis

189
Q

What happens to a person experiencing coronary steal when they are given vasodilators?

A

coronary vessels are dilated and blood is shunted towards well perfused areas

190
Q

What pathological process can neutrophil invasion into an MI produce?

A

fibrinous pericarditis

191
Q

What pathological process can macrophage invasion produce post-MI?

A

wall rupture

192
Q

What three symptoms does Dressler syndrome usually present with?

A

pericarditis

fever

chest-pain

193
Q

What type of collagen is found in an MI scar?

A

Type one

194
Q

What is the most sensitive troponin?

A

Troponin I

195
Q

How long does it take Troponin I levels to rise?

A

4 hours

196
Q

How long do Troponin I levels remain elevated?

A

7-10 days

197
Q

What is CK-MB useful for?

A

diagnosing reinfarction

198
Q

How long does it take CK-MB levels to return to normal?

A

48 hours

199
Q

What is the mnemonic to remember the differing causes of a dilative cardiomyopathy?

A

ABCCCD

200
Q

What is the A of ABCCCD?

A

chronic alcohol abuse

201
Q

What is the B of ABCCCD?

A

wet beri beri

202
Q

What is the C’s of ABCCCD?

A

cocaine

chagas

coxsackie

203
Q

What is the D of ABCCCD?

A

doxorubicin

204
Q

If a hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is found to be genetic, what is the most likely mode of inheritance?

A

autosomal dominant

205
Q

What protein is found to be defective in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

β-myosin heavy chain

206
Q

What two drugs are used to treat a hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

β-blocker

ND CCBs

207
Q

Which heart pathology would sarcoidosis produce?

A

restrictive cardiomyopathy

208
Q

Which heart pathology would amyloidosis produce?

A

restrictive cardiomyopathy

209
Q

In what patient population does endocardial fibroelastosis occur?

A

children

210
Q

What are two characteristics of Loeffler Syndrome? What cell infiltrates?

A

endocardial fibroelastosis

Eosinophilc infiltrate

211
Q

What type of cardiac pathology would hemochromatosis produce?

A

restrictive cardiomyopathy

212
Q

What is orthopnea?

A

shortness of breath when lying flat

213
Q

What is the most common sign of endocarditis?

A

fever

214
Q

Does S. aureus affect healthy or damaged valves? Quick onset or slow onset?

A

healthy

quick

215
Q

Does S. viridans affect healthy or damaged valves? Quick onset or slow onset?

A

damaged

slow

216
Q

According to First Aid, which two bacteria are most likely to cause a blood culture negative endocarditis?

A

Coxiella burneti

Bartonella species

217
Q

Which bacteria infects prosthetic heart valves?

A

S. epidermidis

218
Q

What valve is most often affected during endocaditis?

A

mitral

219
Q

What valve is most often affected during IV induced endocarditis?

A

tricuspid

220
Q

What specific group of bacteria causes Rheumatic Fever?

A

Group A β-hemolytic

221
Q

In order, what heart valves are affected by Rheumatic Fever?

A

mitral > aortic&raquo_space; tricuspid

222
Q

What type of pathology occurs on the mitral valve early in the progression of Rheumatic Fever?

A

Mitral regurgitation

223
Q

What type of pathology occurs on the mitral valve late in the progression of Rheumatic Fever?

A

mitral stenosis

224
Q

What two cell types is rheumatic fever associated with?

A

Aschoff bodies

Anitschow cells

225
Q

What is an Aschoff Body?

A

granulomas with giant cells

226
Q

What is an Anitschkow cells? What kind of chromatin in the nucleus?

A

enlarged macrophages

caterpillar

227
Q

The titer of what antibody can increase during Rheumatic Fever?

A

ASO

228
Q

What type of pericarditis is caused by Dressler Syndrome?

A

fibrinous

229
Q

What type of pericarditis is caused by Viral pericarditis?

A

Serous pericarditis

230
Q

What type of pericarditis is caused by uremia?

A

fibrinous pericarditis

231
Q

What type of pericarditis is caused by radiation?

A

fibrinous

232
Q

What type of pericarditis is caused by non-infectious inflammatory diseases?

A

serous

233
Q

What causes a purulent endocarditis?

A

bacterial infections

234
Q

What is pulsus paradoxus?

A

abnormally large decrease in systolic pressure upon inhalation

235
Q

What is Kussmauls Sign?

A

large increase in JVD upon inspiration

236
Q

What two parts of the aorta are most effected by Syphillis?

A

aortic root

ascending aortic arch

237
Q

What is aortic insufficiency?

A

when aortic valve doesnt close tightly

238
Q

What two cancers are known to metastasize to the heart?

A

lymphoma and melanoma

239
Q

What is the most common cardiac tumor in adults?

A

myxoma

240
Q

Where is the heart are myxomas most often located?

A

left atria

241
Q

How do myxomas most often present?

A

syncope

242
Q

What is the most common cardiac tumor in children?

A

Rhabdomyoma

243
Q

What is a Rhabdomyoma associated with?

A

tuberous sclerosis

244
Q

What is the broad reason as to my a patient can present with Kussmauls Sign seen?

A

negative intrathoracic pressure cant be transmitted to the heart

245
Q

What two conditions can produce Reynaud Syndrome?

A

SLE or CREST

246
Q

In what population does a strawberry hemangioma arise? What is their pattern of growth?

A

infant

grow and then regress

247
Q

In what population does a cherry hemangioma arise? Do these regress?

A

eldery

no

248
Q

In what two conditions can a pyogenic granuloma arise?

A

trauma

pregnancy

249
Q

What is a cystic hygroma?

A

lymphangioma of neck

250
Q

What disease is a cystic hygroma associated with?

A

Turner Syndrome

251
Q

Where does a glomus tumor present?

A

in the fingers

252
Q

What type of cells does a glomus tumor originate from?

A

modified smooth muscle cells

253
Q

What is an angioma?

A

benign tumor of lymphatic or vascular walls

254
Q

What is angiomatosis?

A

non-neoplastic proliferation of blood vessels in various organs

255
Q

What bacteria causes Bacillary Angiomatosis? Mimmicks what disease?

A

Bartonella heneslae

Kaposi Sarcoma

256
Q

In what patient group is Bacillary Angiomatosis most commonly seen?

A

AIDS patients

257
Q

Where on the body does an angiosarcoma often present/

A

sun exposed areas

258
Q

What causes a lymphangiosarcoma?

A

persistent lymph drainage

259
Q

What type of cell is malignant in Kaposi Sarcoma?

A

endothelial

260
Q

What virus causes Kaposi’s?

A

HHV-8

261
Q

What sex and age is most likely to present with Temporal (Giant Cell) Arteritis?

A

elderly, female

262
Q

What would be two common clinical complaints of Temporal Arteritis?

A

unilateral headache

jaw claudication

263
Q

What is the main risk during Temporal Arteritis?

A

blindness

264
Q

How is Temporal Arteritis treated?

A

high-dose corticosteroids

265
Q

What sex and age is most likely to present with Takayasu Arteritis?

A

female, asian, under 40

266
Q

What is Takayasu Arteritis? What type of inflammation?

A

intimal thickeing of aortic arch and brances

granulomatous

267
Q

How is Takayasu Arteritis treated?

A

corticosteroids

268
Q

What specific virus has seropositivity in a select few cases of polyarteritis nodosa?

A

HBV

269
Q

What two vessels are most commonly involved during Polyarteritis Nodosa?

A

renal and visceral vessels

270
Q

What vessel is generally spared during Polyarteritis Nodosa?

A

pulmonary vessels

271
Q

What type of hypersensitivity of Polyarteritis Nodosa?

A

Type three

272
Q

What type of necrosis takes place during Polyarteritis Nodosa?

A

fibrinoid necrosis

273
Q

What two drugs are used to treat Polyarteritis Nodosa?

A

corticosteroids and cyclophosphamide

274
Q

Where would a child with Kawasaki have enlarged lymph nodes?

A

Cervical lymphadenitis

275
Q

What would be most noticeable on physical exam of a child with Kawasaki Disease?

A

ulcerated oral mucosa or lips

276
Q

What viral infection could Kawasaki Disease be mistaken for?

A

Coxsackie B!

277
Q

What are the two treatments for Kawasaki disease?

A

IVIG and aspirin

278
Q

What disease is often present with Buerger Disease?

A

Raynaud phenomenon

279
Q

What is another name for Wegener Granulomatosis?

A

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

280
Q

What three locations does Wegener present?

A

Nasopharynx

lungs

renal

281
Q

What type of Ab is present during Microscopic Polyangiitis?

A

p-ANCA

282
Q

During Wegener granulomatosis, what takes place in the nasopharynx?

A

necrotizing vasculitis

283
Q

During Wegener granulomatosis, what type of granuloma is found in the lung?

A

necrotizing granulomas

284
Q

During Wegener granulomatosis, what process takes place in the kidney?

A

necrotizing glomerulonephritis

285
Q

During Wegener granulomatosis, what specific proetin does p-ANCA target?

A

proteinase 3

286
Q

How is Wegener Granulomatosis treated?

A

cyclophosphamide and corticosteroids

287
Q

What are the two main differences between Wegener Granulomatosis and Microscopic Polyangiitis?

A

microscopic polyangiitis does not involve the nasopharynx

microscopic polyangiitis has no granulomas

288
Q

Does Microscopic Polyangiitis have granulomas?

A

no

289
Q

What type of pathology is present during Microscopic Polyangiitis?

A

necrotizing vasculitis

290
Q

How is Microscopic Polyangiitis treated?

A

cyclophosphamide and corticosteroids

291
Q

What is Churg-Strauss Syndrome?

A

vasculitis of small/medium vessels in a person with a Hx of hypersensitivity airway disease

292
Q

What would be noticeable on physical examination of a patient with Churg-Strauss Syndrome?

A

wrist/foot drop

293
Q

What vasculitis can present with an increase in IgE?

A

Churg-Strauss

294
Q

What sickness does Henoch-Schonlein Purpura follow?

A

usually an URI

295
Q

What is the triad of HSP?

A

Palpable Purpura/Arthritis/GI Pain

296
Q

What is the common variable for the development of HSP?

A

IgA deposition

297
Q

What kidney damage can be cause by HSP?

A

IgA nephropathy

298
Q

When are β-blockers contraindicated?

A

cardiogenic shock

299
Q

How does hydralazine produce vascular smooth muscle relaxation?

A

increases cGMP

300
Q

What two drugs are often used in combination to treat gestational HTN?

A

hydralazine and methyldopa

301
Q

Which two CCBs are used in a hypertensive emergency?

A

clevidipine

nicardipine

302
Q

Do nitrates dilate veins or arteries more?

A

veins

303
Q

Nifedipine functions similarly to what other cardiac drug?

A

nitrates

304
Q

What product do statins reduce the synthesis of?

A

Mevalonate

305
Q

What is the most severe toxicity of statins? Especially in combination with which two drugs?

A

rhabdomyolysis

niacin and fibrates

306
Q

In what tissue does niacin function primarily?

A

adipose tissue

307
Q

What process does niacin inhibit? What does this mean for the liver?

A

lipolysis

decreased VLDL synthesis

308
Q

What drug is used to reduce the flushing effects of niacin?

A

aspirin

309
Q

What are two side effects of niacin?

A

hyperglycemia

hyperuricemia

310
Q

What is the MOA of fibrates?

A

increases activation of LPL

311
Q

What protein do fibrates activate to increase HDL synthesis?

A

PPAR-α

312
Q

What are the three adverse symptoms of digoxin? Why do these happen?

A

nausea/vomiting/diarrhea

313
Q

Which cardiac drug can cause blurry vision?

A

digoxin

314
Q

What electrolyte disturbance can digoxin cause?

A

hyperkalemia

315
Q

What electrolyte is given to counter digoxin toxicity?

A

magnesium

316
Q

What three cardiac drugs can produce digoxin toxicity?

A

Verapamil, Amiodarone, Quinidine

317
Q

By what week of gestation does the heart establish polarity?

A

4th week

318
Q

What causes fixed splitting?

A

ASD (left-to-right)

319
Q

What does rapid squatting do to the intensity of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

increase intensity

320
Q

A midsystolic click is indicative of what murmur?

A

mitral prolapse

321
Q

What causes the midsystolic click of MVP?

A

chordae tendinae tensing

322
Q

Which rate is faster during a 3rd degree heart block, atria or ventricles?

A

atria

323
Q

What are two differences between ANP and BNP?

A

BNP has longer 1/2 life

BNP released from ventricles

324
Q

In the fetal period, what direction does the PDA run?

A

right-to-left

325
Q

In the neonatal period, what direction does the PDA run?

A

left-to-right

326
Q

Which two vessels are primarily effected by Fibromuscular Dysplasia?

A

renal and carotid

327
Q

What type of necrosis takes place during an MI?

A

coagulative

328
Q

What is used to stain an MI?

A

tetrazolium

329
Q

What causes a contraction band necrosis?

A

Repurfusion Injury

330
Q

How long after an MI can Dressler Syndrome present?

A

several weeks

331
Q

What is the pathological process that drives Dressler Syndrome?

A

autoimmune

332
Q

What type of heart problem can post-radiation be?

A

restrictive cardiomyopathy

333
Q

What are three sterile forms of endocarditis?

A

hypercoaguable

SLE

adenocarinoma producing mucin

334
Q

Does syphillis produce dilation or constriction of aorta?

A

dilation

335
Q

Microscopic Polyangiitis involves an antibody against what specific antigen?

A

anti-MPO (myeloperoxidase)

336
Q

What immune cell is present during Churg-Strauss Syndrome?

A

eosinophil

337
Q

What antibody is present during Churg-Strauss? Against what?

A

pANCA

myeloperoxidase

338
Q

What three vasculitis disease feature palpable purpura?

A

microscopic polyangiitis

Churg-Strauss

Henoch Schonlein Purpura

339
Q

What two β-blockers possess ISA?

A

acebutolol and pindolol

340
Q

What two drugs block the use of adenosine?

A

caffeine and theophylline

341
Q

Which antiarrhythmic can alter the cornea?

A

amiodarone

342
Q

What is the shortest acting β1 Blocker?

A

Esmolol

343
Q

Which electrolyte disturbance effects all Class One antiarrhythmics?

A

hyperkalemia

344
Q

Which Class One antiarrhythmics can cause HF?

A

Disopyramide

345
Q

What is the oddly named Class Two antiarrhythmic?

A

Mexiletine

346
Q

What is the MOA of Neprilysin?

A

inhibits degradation of ANP and BNP

347
Q

ABVD therapy is for what malignancy?

A

Hodgkins Lymphoma

348
Q

What is the MOA of Ranolazine?

A

inhibits late inward sodium current

349
Q

What is the use of Ranolazine?

A

refractory angina

350
Q

Can nitric oxide directly activate MLCP?

A

yes

351
Q

A bifid carotid pulse can be found in what disease?

A

HOCM

352
Q

Which antiarrhythmic can cause hyperprolactinemia? Which one specifically?

A

CCBs

verapamil

353
Q

What is the pattern of fibrosis for Buergers Disease?

A

segmental thrombosing vasculitis

354
Q

What two lipid altering drugs are known to cause Gallstones?

A

fibrates and resins

355
Q

What event causes Raynuad Phenomenon? Treat with?

A

arteriolar vasospasm

CCBs

356
Q

Which bug can cause Constrictive Pericarditis?

A

TB

357
Q

What is the most common cause of Infective Endocarditis in developed countries?

A

MVP

358
Q

What is the most common cause of Infective Endocarditis in developing countries?

A

Rheumatic fever

359
Q

Which lipid lowering drugs can decrease fot soluble vitamin absorption?

A

Bile salt resins

360
Q

What are the two main causes of Constrictive Pericarditis?

A

tuberculosis

surgery

361
Q

A combination of which two drugs improes mortality in patients with CHF?

A

hydralazine and nitrates

362
Q

Can capillaries thicken during HTN?

A

no

363
Q

What would a restrictive myopathy show on ECG?

A

low amplitude voltag

364
Q

Would a RV Infarct produce an increase or decreased PCWP?

A

decreased

365
Q

What would Aortic Dissection show on Xray?

A

mediastinal widening

366
Q

What type of angina features disruption of a preexisting atherosclerotic plaque with a thin fibrous cap?

A

Unstable

367
Q

Endocardial Cushions give rise to what two structures in the heart?

A

Valves and septa

368
Q

What is the most common valve to be affected by bacterial endocarditis?

A

Mitral

369
Q

Which papillary muscle has dual blood flow?

A

antero-lateral

370
Q

Which two arteries are affected by Buergers Disease?

A

Tibial and Radial

371
Q

Can Buergers extend into the nerves?

A

yes

372
Q

Which lipid-lowering agent works by preventing cholesterol reabsorption at the small intestinal brush border?

A

Ezetimibe

373
Q

What structure is usually affected by an ASD?

A

septum secundum

374
Q

Is an ASD the same as a foramen ovale?

A

no

missing rather than unfused

375
Q

What causes a Tetralogy of Fallot?

A

antero-superior displacement of the infundibular septum

376
Q

What is the synthetic BNP?

A

nesiritide

377
Q

What dictates blood flow to skeletal muscle at rest?

A

sympathetic tone

378
Q

Which two classes of anti-arrhythmics can prolong QT?

A

one-eh

three

379
Q

Loss of cardiac contractility occurs within how many seconds of loss of oxygen?

A

60

380
Q

Would an MVP occur earlier or later with mauevers that decrease venous return?

A

earlier

381
Q

Is a smaller or larger interval between the opening click and S2 indicate a more severe stenosis?

A

smaller

382
Q

Would Mitral Stenosis be worse during inspiration or expiration?

A

expiration

383
Q

What phase of the cardiac cycle has the highest oxygen consumption?

A

Isovolumic Contraction

384
Q

Does chronic anemia increase or decrease CO? Through what mechanism?

A

increase

increased venous return

385
Q

What approximates Afterload?

A

mean arterial pressure

386
Q

What is the oxygen percentage in the fetal umbilical vein?

A

80%

387
Q

What is the oxygen percentage in the fetal right atria?

A

65%

388
Q

What happens to the heart during Kartagener?

A

Aberrant cardiac looping

389
Q

What two structures fuse to form the Membranous Interventricular Septum?

A

Aorticopulmonary septum

muscular ventricular septum

390
Q

What two things in the heart do the endocardial cushions do?

A

separate atria from ventricles

contribute to atrial and ventricular septum

391
Q

Which three defects can be seen in the heart due to Neural Crest Migration Failure?

A

Truncus

Transposition

Tetralogy

392
Q

What specific layer of the aorta weakens during syphillis?

A

adventitia

First Aid (21 decks)

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