Cardiovascular Flashcards
What two structures does the truncus arteriosus give rise to?
ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk
What does the bulbus cordis give rise to?
smooth muscle outflow tract of left and right ventricles
What does the primitive atria give rise to?
trabeculated part of left and right atria
What does the primitive ventricle give rise to?
trabeculated part of left and right ventricle
What does the primitive pulmonary vein give rise to?
smooth muscle part of left atrium
What does the left horn of the sinus venosus give rise to?
coronary sinus
What does the right horn of the sinus venosus give rise to?
smooth muscle part of right atria
What two structures make up the superior vena cava?
right common cardinal vein
right anterior cardinal vein
By how many weeks into embryological development does the heart begin beating?
4 weeks
What protein is defective in Kartagener Syndrome?
Dynein
What is the name of the structure that embryologically connects the left and right atria?
foramen primum
What structure originally separates the left from the right atria?
foramen primum
What structure forms in the septum primum?
foramen secundum
What develops as the foramen secundum maintains the left to right shunt?
septum secundum
What structure is left over after the septum secundum covers the foramen secundum?
foramen ovale
What structure forms the valve of the foramen ovale?
septum primum
What two structures fuse to form the atrial septum?
septum primum and septum secundum
What causes a patent foramen ovale?
failure of septum primum and septum secundum to fuse
What can a patent foramen ovale lead to?
paradoxical emboli
Does a VSD most commonly occur in the muscular or membranus septum?
membranus
What two ridges fuse to form the aorticopulmonary septum?
bulbar ridges and truncal ridges
What are the aortic and pulmonary valves derived from?
endocardial cushions of the outflow tract
What are the mitral and tricuspid valves derived from?
fused endocardial cushions of the AV canal
What is Ebsteins Anamoly?
tricuspid valve leaflets are attached to RV
What weeks does hematopoiesis occur in the yolk sac?
3-8 week
What weeks does hematopoiesis occur in the liver?
6th week to birth
What weeks does hematopoiesis take place in the spleen?
10th - 28 weeks
What weeks does hematopoiesis occur in the bone marrow?
18 weeks to adult
What is the PO2 of blood in the umbilical vein?
30 mm Hg
What would a pulse oximeter of fetal blood read?
80%
What vessel supplies oxygenated blood to the fetus? What vessel does it join?
ductus venosus
IVC
Upon reaching fetal circulation, where does most of the oxygenated blood go? Via what structure?
head
foramen oale
Upon reaching fetal circulation, where does most of the de-oxygenated blood go?
RA –> RV –> patent Ductus arteriosus
Why does blood preferentially flow through the PDA rather than pulmonary vein?
fetal lungs are high pressure
What is a closed foramen ovale called?
fossa ovalis
What drug is used to keep the PDA open?
Indomethacin
What prostaglandins keep the PDA open?
E1 and E2
What does the umbilical vein become?
ligamentum teres hepatis
What does the umbilical artery become?
medial umbilical ligaments
What does the ductus arteriosus become?
ligamentum arteriosum
What does the ductus venosum become?
ligamentum venosum
What does the allantois become?
urachus/median umbilical ligament
What does the notochord become?
nucleus pulposus
Would coronary blood flow peak during early or late diastole?
early
Enlargement of the left atria can cause what two mediastinal symptoms?
dysphagia
hoarseness of voice
What is Ficks equation?
CO = O2 consumption/arterial O2 - venous O2
What is the equation for MAP?
(2/3 diastolic)(1/3 systolic)
Would hyperthyroidism increase or decrease pulse pressure?
increase
Would aortic regurgitation increase or decrease pulse pressure?
decrease
Would aortic stenosis increase or decrease pulse pressure?
decrease
Would obstructive sleep apnea increase or decrease pulse pressure?
increase
Would cardiogenic shock increase or decrease pulse pressure?
decrease
Would tamponade increase or decrease pulse pressure?
decrease
What would decreased extracellular sodium do to contractility?
increase contractility
What would acidosis do to contractility? By what mechanism?
decrease
protons inhibit ca2+ influx
What would hypoxia do to contractiltiy?
decrease
What would hypercapnia do to contractiltiy?
decrease
What is the equation for LaPlace’s Law on wall tension?
(pressure)(radius)/(two)(wall thickness)
What is the Y-axis on Starlings Curve?
cardiac output
What is the X-axis on Starlings Curve?
preload/EDV
What is the Y-axis of the cardiac/vascular function curve?
CO/venous return
What is the X-axis of the cardiac/vascular function curve?
Right atrial pressure/EDV
What does the intersecting point of the cardiac/vascular curve mean?
CO = Venous return
Would a positive inotrope produce a left-shift or right-shift of the Cardiac/Vascular function curve?
left shift
Would HFor Digoxin OD produce a left-shift or right-shift of the Cardiac/Vascular function curve?
right shift
What would fluid infusion do to venous return? Would this produce a left-shift or right-shift on the Cardiac/Vascular function curve?
increase venous return
left-shift
What would fluid loss do to venous return? Would this produce a left-shift or right-shift on the Cardiac/Vascular function curve?
decrease
left-shift
What would spinal anesthesia do to venous return? Would this produce a left-shift or right-shift on the Cardiac/Vascular function curve?
decrease
left-shift
Do changes in TPR change RA pressure on a Cardiac/Vascular function curve? What does this mean?
no
X-intercept doesnt change
Would vasopressors produce an upward or downward shift of the Cardiac/Vascular function curve?
downward
Would vasodilators produce an upward or downward shift of the Cardiac/Vascular function curve?
upward
What valve closes before isovolumic contraction?
mitral
What valve opens as the end of isovolumic contraction?
aortic
What is the Y-axis on the pressure/volume curve?
LV pressure
What is the X-axis on the pressure/volume curve?
LV volume
In the left heart, what action produces an S1?
mitral valve closing
In the left heart, what action produces an S2?
aortic valve closing
In the left heart, what action produces an S3? When does an S3 occur?
mitral valve opening
beginning of diastole
What makes an S1 heart sound?
mitral and tricuspid valve closing
What makes an S2 heart sound?
aortic and pulmonic valve closing
What is an S3 heart sound associated with?
increased filling pressures
In what two patient populations is an S3 heart sound normal?
pregnant women and children
What makes an S4 heart sound?
atrial kick
What is an S4 associated with?
ventricular hypertrophy
What is the a-wave of the JVP?
atrial contraction
What causes a c-wave?
RV pushing into tricuspid valve
What causes the x–wave?
atrial relaxation
In what disease state is the X-wave present?
tricuspid regurgitation
What causes a v-wave?
RA filling with blood
What causes a y-wave?
blood filling RV from RA
Delayed closure of what valve occurs during splitting of S2 sounds?
pulmonic
What causes a wide splitting of S2?
anything that delays RV emptying
What causes a paradoxical splitting? What is the order of valve closing?
anything that delays LV emptying
pulmonic closes before aortic in this situation
Inspiration would increase the intensity of sounds from what side of the heart?
right side
What does the hand grip manuever accomplish?
increases vascular resistance
Does the hand grip manuever increase or decrease the intensity of left-sided heart pathologies?
increase
Would the hand grip manuever make a MVP occur earlier or later?
later
What does standing do to venous return?
decrease it
What does the valsalva manuever do to venous return?
decrease it
What does standing/valsalva manuever do to most murmurs?
weaken their intensity
What murmur can standing/valsalva manuever increase the intensity of?
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
What does rapid squatting do to preload?
increase
What does rapid squatting do to venous return?
increase
What murmur can rapid squatting increase the intensity of?
aortic stenosis
Would rapid squatting increase or decrease the intensity of an MVP?
increase
What are the three presentations of aortic stenosis upon exertion?
syncope
Angina
Dyspnea
Woud mitral/tricuspid regurgitation be a systolic or diastolic murmur?
systolic murmur
Where does an aortic stenosis murmur radiate?
carotids
Where is a VSD murmur the loudest?
at the tricuspid valve
Would an MVP occur during diastole or systole? Early or late?
systole
late
Name three conditions that may cause an MVP?
myxomatous degeneration
rheumatic fever
papillary muscle rupture
Would an aortic regurgitation murmur be heard in diastole or systole? Early or late?
diastole
early
What are two presentations of aortic regurgitation that could be seen on physical exam?
head bobbing
bounding pulses
What murmur produces an opening snap?
mitral stenosis
What is the most common cause of mitral stenosis?
chronic rheumatic fever
What is the most common cause of a PDA?
congenital rubella
Where is a PDA best heard?
left infraclavicular area
What voltage is the action potential for a cardiac myocyte?
-85 mV
What voltage is the action potential for a cardiac nodal cell?
-40 mV
Why dont nodal cells have a Phase 0 similar to myocytes? Results in?
high RMP permanently inactivates fast sodium channels
slower conduction times
How does sympathetic stimulation speed HR?
increases opening of funny channels
What is the Mnemonic to remember the drugs that can increase QT?
Some Risky Meds Can Prolong QT
What is the S of Some Risky Meds Can Prolong QT?
Sotalol
What is the R of Some Risky Meds Can Prolong QT?
Risperidone
What is the M of Some Risky Meds Can Prolong QT?
Macrolides
What is the C of Some Risky Meds Can Prolong QT?
Chloroquine
What is the P of Some Risky Meds Can Prolong QT?
Protease Inhibitors (-navir)
What is the Q of Some Risky Meds Can Prolong QT?
quinidine
What is the T of Some Risky Meds Can Prolong QT?
Thiazides
Which Arrhythmia can kill a person with Long QT Syndrome?
Torsades
What are the two syndromes that can produce congenital long QT syndrome?
Romano-Ward
Jervell and Lange-Nielsen
Which congential long QT syndrome only produces cardiac defects? What is the inheritance pattern of this disease?
Romano-ward
autosomal dominant
Which congential long QT syndrome produces deafness in addition to cardiac defects? What is the inheritance pattern of this disease?
Jervall and Lange-Nielsen
autosomal recessive
What is the bypass pathway of WPW called?
bundle of Kent
What type of heart pathology can lyme disease create?
3rd degree
What 2nd messenger is activated by ANP?
cGMP
Where is BNP released from? When?
ventricular myocytes
increased stretch
What can BNP be used to rule out?
acute heart failure
What is synthetic BNP? What is it used to treat?
Nesiritide
acute heart failure
What does the aortic baroreceptor project to?
nucleus tractus solitarius
What does the aortic baroreceptor respond to?
increased pressure only
What nerve does the aortic baroreceptor respond to?
vagus
What nerve does the carotid receptor use?
glossopharyngeal
What does the carotid baroreceptor respond to?
increases and decreases in blood pressure
What is the normal pressure in the right atria?
less than 5 mm Hg
What is the normal pressure in the right ventricle?
25/5
What is the normal pressure in the left atria?
less than 12 mm Hg
What is the normal pressure in the LV?
130/10
What is the normal pressure in the pulmonary artery?
25/10
What is the only organ where CO2 causes vasoconstriction?
lung
What two ions cause vasodilation in skeletal muscle?
potassium and hydrogen ions
What chamber does pulmonary capillary wedge pressure measure?
left atria
What is the Starling Equation?
(Pc-Pi) - (πc-πi)
What does Pc represent?
capillary hydrostatic pressure
What does Pi represent?
capillary oncotic pressure
What does πc represent?
capillary oncotic
What does πi represent?
interstitial osmotic
What does TAPVR stand for?
total anamolous pulmonary venous return
What is the defect in TAPVR? What other two defects are often seen during TAPVR?
pulmonary veins drain into right heart
ASD and PDA
What are the five causes of a right to left shunt?
Truncus Arteriosus
Transposition
Tricuspid atresia
tetralogy of fallot
TAPVR
What defect often accompanies a Persistent Truncus Arteriosus?
VSD
What causes Transposition of the Great Vessels?
Failure of aortico-pulmonary septum to spiral
What three conditions does Eisenmenger Syndrome produce?
cyanosis
clubbing
Polycythemia
A non-mitral bicuspid valve is associated with what disease?
Aortic stenosis
Where does an infantile coarctation of the aorta connect?
proximal to PDA
Where does an adult coarctation of the aorta connect?
distal to ligamentum arteriosum
What is infantile coarctation of the aorta associated with ?
Turner syndrome
What are three findings of adult coarctation of the aorta?
notching of ribs
strong UE pulses
weak LE pulses
What conditions of the heart is 22q11 associated with?
truncus arteriosus
tetralogy of fallot
What three heart conditions are associated with Down Syndrome?
ASD
VSD
atrial septal defect
What two heart conditions are associated with Turner Syndrome?
coarctation of aorta
bicuspid aortic valve
What four heart conditions are associated with Marfan Syndrome?
MVP
thoracic aorta aneurysm/dissection
aortic regurgitation
Infant of diabetic mother is associated with what heat issue?
Transposition of Great Arteries
What is the main cause of HTN in young patients?
fibromuscular dysplasia
What specific cell type are Xanthomas made of?
Lipid Laden Histiocytes
What is the most common tendon for a xanthoma to lodge?
achilles
What part of the vessel does Monckeberg Arteriosclerosis effect? What process? Which vessels?
media
calcification
radial and ulnar
What are the two types of arteriolosclerosis?
hyaline and hyperplastic
What are the two causes of hyaline arteriolosclerosis?
chronic benign HTN and diabetes
What causes hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis? What appearance takes place?
severe HTN
onion skinning
What are the two growth cytokines for atherosclerosis?
PDGF and FGF
What three disease processes can cause a thoracic aortic aneurysm?
cystic medial degeneration
Marfan
syphillis
Why can syphillis cause a thoracic aortic aneurysm?
endarteritis of vasovasorum
What valvular pathology is aortic dissection associated with?
bicuspid aortic valve
What are two presenting symptoms of aortic dissection?
chest pain that radiates to back
unequal BP in UEs
Does prinzmetal angina cause ST elevation or ST depression?
ST elevation
What two drugs are used to treat Prinzmetal Angina?
CCBs and nitrates
Where in the vessel does coronary steal take place?
distal to a stenosis
What happens to a person experiencing coronary steal when they are given vasodilators?
coronary vessels are dilated and blood is shunted towards well perfused areas
What pathological process can neutrophil invasion into an MI produce?
fibrinous pericarditis
What pathological process can macrophage invasion produce post-MI?
wall rupture
What three symptoms does Dressler syndrome usually present with?
pericarditis
fever
chest-pain
What type of collagen is found in an MI scar?
Type one
What is the most sensitive troponin?
Troponin I
How long does it take Troponin I levels to rise?
4 hours
How long do Troponin I levels remain elevated?
7-10 days
What is CK-MB useful for?
diagnosing reinfarction
How long does it take CK-MB levels to return to normal?
48 hours
What is the mnemonic to remember the differing causes of a dilative cardiomyopathy?
ABCCCD
What is the A of ABCCCD?
chronic alcohol abuse
What is the B of ABCCCD?
wet beri beri
What is the C’s of ABCCCD?
cocaine
chagas
coxsackie
What is the D of ABCCCD?
doxorubicin
If a hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is found to be genetic, what is the most likely mode of inheritance?
autosomal dominant
What protein is found to be defective in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
β-myosin heavy chain
What two drugs are used to treat a hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
β-blocker
ND CCBs
Which heart pathology would sarcoidosis produce?
restrictive cardiomyopathy
Which heart pathology would amyloidosis produce?
restrictive cardiomyopathy
In what patient population does endocardial fibroelastosis occur?
children
What are two characteristics of Loeffler Syndrome? What cell infiltrates?
endocardial fibroelastosis
Eosinophilc infiltrate
What type of cardiac pathology would hemochromatosis produce?
restrictive cardiomyopathy
What is orthopnea?
shortness of breath when lying flat
What is the most common sign of endocarditis?
fever
Does S. aureus affect healthy or damaged valves? Quick onset or slow onset?
healthy
quick
Does S. viridans affect healthy or damaged valves? Quick onset or slow onset?
damaged
slow
According to First Aid, which two bacteria are most likely to cause a blood culture negative endocarditis?
Coxiella burneti
Bartonella species
Which bacteria infects prosthetic heart valves?
S. epidermidis
What valve is most often affected during endocaditis?
mitral
What valve is most often affected during IV induced endocarditis?
tricuspid
What specific group of bacteria causes Rheumatic Fever?
Group A β-hemolytic
In order, what heart valves are affected by Rheumatic Fever?
mitral > aortic»_space; tricuspid
What type of pathology occurs on the mitral valve early in the progression of Rheumatic Fever?
Mitral regurgitation
What type of pathology occurs on the mitral valve late in the progression of Rheumatic Fever?
mitral stenosis
What two cell types is rheumatic fever associated with?
Aschoff bodies
Anitschow cells
What is an Aschoff Body?
granulomas with giant cells
What is an Anitschkow cells? What kind of chromatin in the nucleus?
enlarged macrophages
caterpillar
The titer of what antibody can increase during Rheumatic Fever?
ASO
What type of pericarditis is caused by Dressler Syndrome?
fibrinous
What type of pericarditis is caused by Viral pericarditis?
Serous pericarditis
What type of pericarditis is caused by uremia?
fibrinous pericarditis
What type of pericarditis is caused by radiation?
fibrinous
What type of pericarditis is caused by non-infectious inflammatory diseases?
serous
What causes a purulent endocarditis?
bacterial infections
What is pulsus paradoxus?
abnormally large decrease in systolic pressure upon inhalation
What is Kussmauls Sign?
large increase in JVD upon inspiration
What two parts of the aorta are most effected by Syphillis?
aortic root
ascending aortic arch
What is aortic insufficiency?
when aortic valve doesnt close tightly
What two cancers are known to metastasize to the heart?
lymphoma and melanoma
What is the most common cardiac tumor in adults?
myxoma
Where is the heart are myxomas most often located?
left atria
How do myxomas most often present?
syncope
What is the most common cardiac tumor in children?
Rhabdomyoma
What is a Rhabdomyoma associated with?
tuberous sclerosis
What is the broad reason as to my a patient can present with Kussmauls Sign seen?
negative intrathoracic pressure cant be transmitted to the heart
What two conditions can produce Reynaud Syndrome?
SLE or CREST
In what population does a strawberry hemangioma arise? What is their pattern of growth?
infant
grow and then regress
In what population does a cherry hemangioma arise? Do these regress?
eldery
no
In what two conditions can a pyogenic granuloma arise?
trauma
pregnancy
What is a cystic hygroma?
lymphangioma of neck
What disease is a cystic hygroma associated with?
Turner Syndrome
Where does a glomus tumor present?
in the fingers
What type of cells does a glomus tumor originate from?
modified smooth muscle cells
What is an angioma?
benign tumor of lymphatic or vascular walls
What is angiomatosis?
non-neoplastic proliferation of blood vessels in various organs
What bacteria causes Bacillary Angiomatosis? Mimmicks what disease?
Bartonella heneslae
Kaposi Sarcoma
In what patient group is Bacillary Angiomatosis most commonly seen?
AIDS patients
Where on the body does an angiosarcoma often present/
sun exposed areas
What causes a lymphangiosarcoma?
persistent lymph drainage
What type of cell is malignant in Kaposi Sarcoma?
endothelial
What virus causes Kaposi’s?
HHV-8
What sex and age is most likely to present with Temporal (Giant Cell) Arteritis?
elderly, female
What would be two common clinical complaints of Temporal Arteritis?
unilateral headache
jaw claudication
What is the main risk during Temporal Arteritis?
blindness
How is Temporal Arteritis treated?
high-dose corticosteroids
What sex and age is most likely to present with Takayasu Arteritis?
female, asian, under 40
What is Takayasu Arteritis? What type of inflammation?
intimal thickeing of aortic arch and brances
granulomatous
How is Takayasu Arteritis treated?
corticosteroids
What specific virus has seropositivity in a select few cases of polyarteritis nodosa?
HBV
What two vessels are most commonly involved during Polyarteritis Nodosa?
renal and visceral vessels
What vessel is generally spared during Polyarteritis Nodosa?
pulmonary vessels
What type of hypersensitivity of Polyarteritis Nodosa?
Type three
What type of necrosis takes place during Polyarteritis Nodosa?
fibrinoid necrosis
What two drugs are used to treat Polyarteritis Nodosa?
corticosteroids and cyclophosphamide
Where would a child with Kawasaki have enlarged lymph nodes?
Cervical lymphadenitis
What would be most noticeable on physical exam of a child with Kawasaki Disease?
ulcerated oral mucosa or lips
What viral infection could Kawasaki Disease be mistaken for?
Coxsackie B!
What are the two treatments for Kawasaki disease?
IVIG and aspirin
What disease is often present with Buerger Disease?
Raynaud phenomenon
What is another name for Wegener Granulomatosis?
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
What three locations does Wegener present?
Nasopharynx
lungs
renal
What type of Ab is present during Microscopic Polyangiitis?
p-ANCA
During Wegener granulomatosis, what takes place in the nasopharynx?
necrotizing vasculitis
During Wegener granulomatosis, what type of granuloma is found in the lung?
necrotizing granulomas
During Wegener granulomatosis, what process takes place in the kidney?
necrotizing glomerulonephritis
During Wegener granulomatosis, what specific proetin does p-ANCA target?
proteinase 3
How is Wegener Granulomatosis treated?
cyclophosphamide and corticosteroids
What are the two main differences between Wegener Granulomatosis and Microscopic Polyangiitis?
microscopic polyangiitis does not involve the nasopharynx
microscopic polyangiitis has no granulomas
Does Microscopic Polyangiitis have granulomas?
no
What type of pathology is present during Microscopic Polyangiitis?
necrotizing vasculitis
How is Microscopic Polyangiitis treated?
cyclophosphamide and corticosteroids
What is Churg-Strauss Syndrome?
vasculitis of small/medium vessels in a person with a Hx of hypersensitivity airway disease
What would be noticeable on physical examination of a patient with Churg-Strauss Syndrome?
wrist/foot drop
What vasculitis can present with an increase in IgE?
Churg-Strauss
What sickness does Henoch-Schonlein Purpura follow?
usually an URI
What is the triad of HSP?
Palpable Purpura/Arthritis/GI Pain
What is the common variable for the development of HSP?
IgA deposition
What kidney damage can be cause by HSP?
IgA nephropathy
When are β-blockers contraindicated?
cardiogenic shock
How does hydralazine produce vascular smooth muscle relaxation?
increases cGMP
What two drugs are often used in combination to treat gestational HTN?
hydralazine and methyldopa
Which two CCBs are used in a hypertensive emergency?
clevidipine
nicardipine
Do nitrates dilate veins or arteries more?
veins
Nifedipine functions similarly to what other cardiac drug?
nitrates
What product do statins reduce the synthesis of?
Mevalonate
What is the most severe toxicity of statins? Especially in combination with which two drugs?
rhabdomyolysis
niacin and fibrates
In what tissue does niacin function primarily?
adipose tissue
What process does niacin inhibit? What does this mean for the liver?
lipolysis
decreased VLDL synthesis
What drug is used to reduce the flushing effects of niacin?
aspirin
What are two side effects of niacin?
hyperglycemia
hyperuricemia
What is the MOA of fibrates?
increases activation of LPL
What protein do fibrates activate to increase HDL synthesis?
PPAR-α
What are the three adverse symptoms of digoxin? Why do these happen?
nausea/vomiting/diarrhea
Which cardiac drug can cause blurry vision?
digoxin
What electrolyte disturbance can digoxin cause?
hyperkalemia
What electrolyte is given to counter digoxin toxicity?
magnesium
What three cardiac drugs can produce digoxin toxicity?
Verapamil, Amiodarone, Quinidine
By what week of gestation does the heart establish polarity?
4th week
What causes fixed splitting?
ASD (left-to-right)
What does rapid squatting do to the intensity of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
increase intensity
A midsystolic click is indicative of what murmur?
mitral prolapse
What causes the midsystolic click of MVP?
chordae tendinae tensing
Which rate is faster during a 3rd degree heart block, atria or ventricles?
atria
What are two differences between ANP and BNP?
BNP has longer 1/2 life
BNP released from ventricles
In the fetal period, what direction does the PDA run?
right-to-left
In the neonatal period, what direction does the PDA run?
left-to-right
Which two vessels are primarily effected by Fibromuscular Dysplasia?
renal and carotid
What type of necrosis takes place during an MI?
coagulative
What is used to stain an MI?
tetrazolium
What causes a contraction band necrosis?
Repurfusion Injury
How long after an MI can Dressler Syndrome present?
several weeks
What is the pathological process that drives Dressler Syndrome?
autoimmune
What type of heart problem can post-radiation be?
restrictive cardiomyopathy
What are three sterile forms of endocarditis?
hypercoaguable
SLE
adenocarinoma producing mucin
Does syphillis produce dilation or constriction of aorta?
dilation
Microscopic Polyangiitis involves an antibody against what specific antigen?
anti-MPO (myeloperoxidase)
What immune cell is present during Churg-Strauss Syndrome?
eosinophil
What antibody is present during Churg-Strauss? Against what?
pANCA
myeloperoxidase
What three vasculitis disease feature palpable purpura?
microscopic polyangiitis
Churg-Strauss
Henoch Schonlein Purpura
What two β-blockers possess ISA?
acebutolol and pindolol
What two drugs block the use of adenosine?
caffeine and theophylline
Which antiarrhythmic can alter the cornea?
amiodarone
What is the shortest acting β1 Blocker?
Esmolol
Which electrolyte disturbance effects all Class One antiarrhythmics?
hyperkalemia
Which Class One antiarrhythmics can cause HF?
Disopyramide
What is the oddly named Class Two antiarrhythmic?
Mexiletine
What is the MOA of Neprilysin?
inhibits degradation of ANP and BNP
ABVD therapy is for what malignancy?
Hodgkins Lymphoma
What is the MOA of Ranolazine?
inhibits late inward sodium current
What is the use of Ranolazine?
refractory angina
Can nitric oxide directly activate MLCP?
yes
A bifid carotid pulse can be found in what disease?
HOCM
Which antiarrhythmic can cause hyperprolactinemia? Which one specifically?
CCBs
verapamil
What is the pattern of fibrosis for Buergers Disease?
segmental thrombosing vasculitis
What two lipid altering drugs are known to cause Gallstones?
fibrates and resins
What event causes Raynuad Phenomenon? Treat with?
arteriolar vasospasm
CCBs
Which bug can cause Constrictive Pericarditis?
TB
What is the most common cause of Infective Endocarditis in developed countries?
MVP
What is the most common cause of Infective Endocarditis in developing countries?
Rheumatic fever
Which lipid lowering drugs can decrease fot soluble vitamin absorption?
Bile salt resins
What are the two main causes of Constrictive Pericarditis?
tuberculosis
surgery
A combination of which two drugs improes mortality in patients with CHF?
hydralazine and nitrates
Can capillaries thicken during HTN?
no
What would a restrictive myopathy show on ECG?
low amplitude voltag
Would a RV Infarct produce an increase or decreased PCWP?
decreased
What would Aortic Dissection show on Xray?
mediastinal widening
What type of angina features disruption of a preexisting atherosclerotic plaque with a thin fibrous cap?
Unstable
Endocardial Cushions give rise to what two structures in the heart?
Valves and septa
What is the most common valve to be affected by bacterial endocarditis?
Mitral
Which papillary muscle has dual blood flow?
antero-lateral
Which two arteries are affected by Buergers Disease?
Tibial and Radial
Can Buergers extend into the nerves?
yes
Which lipid-lowering agent works by preventing cholesterol reabsorption at the small intestinal brush border?
Ezetimibe
What structure is usually affected by an ASD?
septum secundum
Is an ASD the same as a foramen ovale?
no
missing rather than unfused
What causes a Tetralogy of Fallot?
antero-superior displacement of the infundibular septum
What is the synthetic BNP?
nesiritide
What dictates blood flow to skeletal muscle at rest?
sympathetic tone
Which two classes of anti-arrhythmics can prolong QT?
one-eh
three
Loss of cardiac contractility occurs within how many seconds of loss of oxygen?
60
Would an MVP occur earlier or later with mauevers that decrease venous return?
earlier
Is a smaller or larger interval between the opening click and S2 indicate a more severe stenosis?
smaller
Would Mitral Stenosis be worse during inspiration or expiration?
expiration
What phase of the cardiac cycle has the highest oxygen consumption?
Isovolumic Contraction
Does chronic anemia increase or decrease CO? Through what mechanism?
increase
increased venous return
What approximates Afterload?
mean arterial pressure
What is the oxygen percentage in the fetal umbilical vein?
80%
What is the oxygen percentage in the fetal right atria?
65%
What happens to the heart during Kartagener?
Aberrant cardiac looping
What two structures fuse to form the Membranous Interventricular Septum?
Aorticopulmonary septum
muscular ventricular septum
What two things in the heart do the endocardial cushions do?
separate atria from ventricles
contribute to atrial and ventricular septum
Which three defects can be seen in the heart due to Neural Crest Migration Failure?
Truncus
Transposition
Tetralogy
What specific layer of the aorta weakens during syphillis?
adventitia
