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First Aid > Bacteriology > Flashcards

Bacteriology Flashcards

1
Q

Is lipoteichoic acid found in gram-positives or gram-negatives?

A

positives

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2
Q

Lipoteichoic acid induces which two cytokines?

A

TNF and IL1

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3
Q

What is the antigen of Lipid A?

A

O polysaccharide

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4
Q

Which component of LPS induces cytokine production?

A

Lipid A

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5
Q

Which two cytokines does Lipid A induce?

A

TNF and IL1

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6
Q

What two structures does the periplasm separate?

A

cytoplasmic membrane and outer-membrane

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7
Q

Is the periplasm found in gram-positives or gram-negatives?

A

gram-negatives

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8
Q

What enzyme is found in the periplasm?

A

β-lactamase

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9
Q

What is the purpose of the capsule?

A

prevent phagocytosis

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10
Q

What is the only bug that carries a polypeptide capsule? What amino acid?

A

B. anthracis

D-glutamate

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11
Q

Which five bugs stain with Giema?

A

Chlamydia

Borrelia

Rickettsiae

Trypanosomes

Plasmodium

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12
Q

Which three bugs stain with Ziehl-Nielsen?

A

Nocardia

Mycobacterium

Cryptosporidium

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13
Q

Name three bugs that require silver stain?

A

Legionella

Pneumocystis

H. pylori

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14
Q

What is factor V?

A

NAD+

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15
Q

What is factor X?

A

Hematin

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16
Q

What is another name for Thayer Martin?

A

VPN agar

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17
Q

What bug uses Thayer Martin?

A

Neisseria

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18
Q

What is another name for Bordet-Gengou agar?

A

Potato agar

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19
Q

What are the two culture media for C. diphtheriae?

A

Loffler

Tellurite

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20
Q

What is the agar for M. tuberculosis?

A

Lowenstein Jensen

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21
Q

What is the media for M. pneumoniae? Contains what?

A

Eaton

cholesterol

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22
Q

What bacteria can grow on Eosin-Methylene Blue agar?

A

E. coli

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23
Q

What bacteria grow on Charcoal yeast? Supplemented with what two metals?

A

Legionella

Cysteine and iron

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24
Q

What are the three obligate aerobes?

A

Pseudomonas

Nocardia

M. Tb

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25
Q

What are the three Obligate Anaerobes?

A

Clostridium

Bacteroides

Actinomyces

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26
Q

Which class of antibiotics is completely ineffective against anaerobes?

A

Aminoglycosides

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27
Q

What are the three obligate intracellular bacteria?

A

Rickettsia and Chlamydia and Coxiella

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28
Q

Which eight bugs are Facultative Intracellular bugs?

A

Salmonella

Neisseria

Brucella

Mycobacterium

Listeria

Francisella

Legionella

Yersinia

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29
Q

Which bacteria express M-protein? Function?

A

Group A Strep

evade phagocytosis

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30
Q

Which two bacteria inactivate Exotoxin A?

A

C. diphtheria

P. aeruginosa

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31
Q

What toxin of P. aeruginosa inactivates EF2?

A

Exotoxin A

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32
Q

What is the 2nd messenger for Heat Labile ETEC toxin?

A

cAMP

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33
Q

What is the 2nd messenger for Heat Stable ETEC toxin?

A

cGMP

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34
Q

What is the MOA for Heat Labile ETEC toxin?

A

increases chloride excretion

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35
Q

What is the MOA for Heat Stable ETEC toxin?

A

inhibits NaCl reabsorption

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36
Q

What 2nd messenger does B. anthracis Edema Toxin mimmic?

A

cAMP

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37
Q

What structure is the B. anthracis Edema Toxin responsible for forming?

A

Black, necrotic eschar

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38
Q

What 2nd messenger does B. pertussis inactivate?

A

inhibits Gi

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39
Q

What protein is inhibited by Clostridium species?

A

SNARE

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40
Q

What cells are affected by tetanus toxin?

A

Renshaw

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41
Q

What is the MOA of tetanus?

A

inhibit GABA and glycine release

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42
Q

What toxin of C. perfringens is an exotoxin?

A

Alpha toxin

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43
Q

What two enzymes can C. perfringens Alpha Toxin act like?

A

Phospholipase or Lecithinase

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44
Q

What is the Exotoxin of Strep. Pyogenes?

A

Streptolysin O

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45
Q

What is the MOA of Streptolysin O?

A

lyses RBCs

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46
Q

Which two cytokines are released during both Staph and Strep toxic shock?

A

IFN-gamma

IL2

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47
Q

Which complement protein can cause hypotension?

A

C3a

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48
Q

What is transformation?

A

uptake of naked DNA

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49
Q

Which three bacteria are especially good at transformation?

A

S. pneumo

H. influenzae

Neisseria

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50
Q

What is F+ x F-?

A

plasmid DNA transfer required for SEX PILUS and CONJUGATION

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51
Q

What is Hfr X F-?

A

plasmid DNA incorporated into chromosome

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52
Q

What genes are most commonly transferred via Transposition?

A

antibiotic resistance

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53
Q

Which five bacteria pick up their exotoxin via a phage?

A

Shiga

Botulinum

Cholera

Diphtheriae

Erythrogenic of Strep. pyogenes

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54
Q

Which is an aerobe, Nocardia or Actinomyces?

A

Nocardia

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55
Q

Which is an anaerobe, Nocardia or Actinomyces?

A

Actinomyces

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56
Q

What are the five gram-positive rods/bacilli?

A

Clostridium

Corynebacterium

Bacillus

Listeria

Mycobacterium

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57
Q

What are the two species of β-hemolytic strep?

A

pyogenes and agalactiae

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58
Q

Which species of staph of β-hemolytic?

A

aureus

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59
Q

What is the 4th β-hemolytic bacteria?

A

Listeria

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60
Q

Which immunoglobulin does Protein A bind? What does this inhibit? Bug?

A

Fc of IgG

complement activation

ONLY S. aureus

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61
Q

Is S. aureus enterotoxin heat stable or heat labile?

A

stable

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62
Q

Does S. pneumoniae have virulence w/o the capsule?

A

no

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63
Q

Which bacteria is lancet shaped?

A

Strep. pneumo

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64
Q

What is the most common species of strep to cause endocarditis?

A

Sanguinis

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65
Q

What molecule is produced by S. sanguinis that allow it to bind to damaged heart valves? What does this molecule bind?

A

Dextrans

fibrin-platelet aggregates

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66
Q

What more commonly preceedes glomerulonephritis, impetigo or pharyngitis?

A

impetigo

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67
Q

What is the hemolysis pattern of GBS?

A

β-hemolytic

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68
Q

Which bacteria produces CAMP factor?

A

S. agalactiae

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69
Q

What is the function of CAMP?

A

enlarges ring of hemolysis created by S. aureus

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70
Q

What drug is used for prophylaxis for GBS?

A

penicillin

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71
Q

What can Enterococci grow in?

A

NaCl and bile

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72
Q

What is test for C. diphtheriae?

A

Elek

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73
Q

What is the agar for C. diphtheriae?

A

Cystine-Tellurite

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74
Q

What vaccine for diphtheria?

A

toxoid

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75
Q

What is found in the wall of sporulating bacteria?

A

Dipicolinic acid

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76
Q

Which AB toxin of C. difficile is responsible for binding?

A

A toxin

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77
Q

Which AB toxin of C. difficile is cytotoxic?

A

B toxin

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78
Q

Which two antibiotics are known to cause pseudomembrane colitis?

A

clindamycin and ampicillin

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79
Q

What is B. anthracis capsule composed of?

A

D-glutamate

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80
Q

What is the name of the toxin produced by B. cereus?

A

Cereulide

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81
Q

During what phase of growth do spores generate?

A

Stationary

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82
Q

What is the only gram-positive to produce LPS?

A

Listeria

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83
Q

What antibiotic is used for Listeria?

A

ampicillin

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84
Q

What bacteria can cause spontaneous abortion?

A

Listeria

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85
Q

Which is acid-fast, Nocardia or Actinomyces?

A

nocardia

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86
Q

Which is anaerobic, Nocardia or Actinomyces?

A

Actinomyces

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87
Q

Which causes pulmonary infections, Nocardia or Actinomyces?

A

Nocardia

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88
Q

Who is affected by pulmonary Nocardia?

A

immunocompromised

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89
Q

Who is affected by cutaneous Nocardia?

A

trauma patients

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90
Q

What drug is used as prophylaxis for Mycobacteria?

A

Azithromycin

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91
Q

What are the two functions of MTB Cord factor?

A

inhibits macrophage maturation

induces release of TNF-alpha

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92
Q

What does cord factor induce the release of?

A

TNF

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93
Q

What protein of mycobacteria inhibits phagolysosomal fusion?

A

sulfatides

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94
Q

Which E. coli doesnt ferment sorbitol?

A

EHEC

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95
Q

What are the three gram-negative comma shaped bacteria?

A

Campylobacter

Helicobacter

Vibrio

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96
Q

Which gram-negative comma grows in alkaline media?

A

Vibrio

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97
Q

What are the three gram-negative rod, fast, lactose fermenters?

A

E. coli and Klebsiella and Eterobacter

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98
Q

What are the two gram-negative rod, slow, lactose fermenters?

A

Citrobacter and serratia

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99
Q

What are the four gram-negative rods, non-lactose fermenting, oxidase-negative?

A

Shigella

Salmonella

Yersenia

Proteis

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100
Q

What are the four gram-negative, ‘coccoid’ rods?

A

Bordatella

Brucella

Pasteurella

Haemophilus

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101
Q

Which enzyme is expressed by E. coli that makes it react on MacConkey?

A

β-galactosidase

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102
Q

What type of bacteria grow on EMB agar?

A

lactose fermenters

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103
Q

What color do lactose fermenters grow on EMB agar?

A

black/purple

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104
Q

What structure of gram-negatives prevent the entry of ampicillin and vancomycin?

A

outer membrane

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105
Q

Which Neisseria species is intracellular?

A

Gonorrhoeae

106
Q

Which Neisseria species has a capsule?

A

Meningitis

107
Q

Which Neisseria species causes Waterhouse-Friedrichson syndrome?

A

Meningitis

108
Q

Which Neisseria species causes Fitz-Hughes-Curtis Syndrome?

A

Gonorrhoeae

109
Q

An eye ointment containing which antibiotic is used for N. gonorrhoeae?

A

Erythromycin

110
Q

Which three drugs can be used for N. meningitis for close contacts?

A

Rifampin

Ceftriaxone

Ciprofloxacin

111
Q

Which two drugs are used to treat N. meningitis?

A

Penicillin G or ceftriaxone

112
Q

What is Factor V?

A

NAD+

113
Q

What is Factor H?

A

Hematin

114
Q

What bacteria can H. flu can be grown with?

A

S. aureus

115
Q

What does S. aureus produce produce when grown with H. flu?

A

NAD+

116
Q

What drug are mucosal H. flu infections treated with?

A

Amoxicillin

117
Q

What drug are meningitis H. flu infections treated with?

A

ceftriaxone

118
Q

What are the two components of HiB vaccine?

A

polyribosylribitol phosphate

diphtheirae toxin

119
Q

What is the gram-stain and morphology of Legionella?

A

gram-negative rod

120
Q

What are the three media requirements for legionella?

A

charcoal yeast

iron

cysteine

121
Q

What two classes of antibiotics can be used to treat Legionella?

A

macrolide or quinolone

122
Q

What is associated with a chronic Pseudomonas infection in CF patients?

A

biofilm

123
Q

An extended spectrum lactam is combined with what other drug to treat pseudomonas?

A

Aminoglycoside

124
Q

E. coli fimbriae are virulence factors for which two types of infections?

A

cystitis and pyelonephritis

125
Q

How does EPEC cause diarrhea?

A

prevents reabsorption

126
Q

What is the mechanism by which EHEC causes MAHA?

A

forms micro-thrombi on endothelial surface

127
Q

What are the four A’s of klebsiella?

A

Aspiratio Pneumonia

Alcoholics

diAbetics

abscesses (liver and lungs)

128
Q

Which induces a monocytic response, shigella or salmonella?

A

salmonella

129
Q

Which gains transmission cell-to-cell, shigella or salmonella?

A

shigella

130
Q

Where in the body is Salmonella Typhi found?

A

gallbladder

131
Q

Which bug causes rose spots? Where?

A

Salmonella typhi

abdomen

132
Q

What are the three oxidase positive, comma shaped gram-negative bacteria?

A

C. jejuni

H. pylori

V. cholera

133
Q

Which bug causes reactive arthritis?

A

Campylobacter

134
Q

What are the three sources of Y. enterocolitica?

A

pets

milk

pork

135
Q

Which bug can grow and is motile at 22C?

A

Y. enterocolitica

136
Q

What are the three spirochetes?

A

Borrelia

Leptospira

Treponema

137
Q

How is Leptospira interrogans transmitted?

A

animal urine

138
Q

What are the three symptoms for L. interrogans?

A

photophobia

jaundice

conjuctivitis

139
Q

What are the two features of Weil Disease?

A

jaundice and azotemia

140
Q

What is the natural animal vector for Lyme Disease?

A

mouse

141
Q

What is the FAKE of lyme disease?

A

facial nerve palsy

arthritis

Kardiac block

erythema migrans

142
Q

What two drugs are used to treat Lyme?

A

Doxycycline and Ceftriaxone

143
Q

What bug can cause a stroke without HTN?

A

syphillis

144
Q

What is Argyll Robertson pupil?

A

accomodates but does not constrict to light

145
Q

Which virus can cause a VDRL false positive?

A

EBV

146
Q

What substance does VDRL interact with?

A

beef cardiolipin

147
Q

What is the disease of Borrelia recurrentis? Carried by?

A

Relapsing Fever

Louse

148
Q

What are the two sources of Brucella?

A

dairy and livestock

149
Q

What are two symptoms of Ehrlichosis?

A

black eschar and lymphadenopathy

150
Q

What carrier Ehrlichosis?

A

lone star tick

151
Q

Which bug causes RMSF?

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

152
Q

Which bug carries RMSF?

A

Dermacentor

153
Q

Which bug causes plague?

A

Yersinia pestis

154
Q

Which two animals in the US can carry plague?

A

Prairie dog and rats

155
Q

Does plague cause a painful or painless ulcer?

A

painful

156
Q

Does anthrax cause a painful or painless ulcer?

A

painless

157
Q

What part of the US can plague be found?

A

southwestern

158
Q

What two drugs can be used for Gardenella?

A

metronidazole and clindamycin

159
Q

What drug is used for all Rickettsial organisms?

A

doxycycline

160
Q

Which bug causes epidemic typhus?

A

Rickettsi prowazeki

161
Q

Which bug causes endemic typhus?

A

R. typhus

162
Q

Which bug carries epidemic typhus?

A

Louse

163
Q

Which bug carries endemic typhus?

A

Fleas

164
Q

What two locations does RMSF begin?

A

wrists and ankles

165
Q

Which two factors for growth does RMSF require?

A

CoA and NAD+

166
Q

Monocytes with morulae correspond to what bug?

A

Ehrlichosis

167
Q

Granulocytes with morulae correspond to what bug?

A

Anaplasma

168
Q

Weil-Felix is used to identify what bug? Using antigens from what bug?

A

RIckettsia

proteus

169
Q

Rickettsia likes what cell type?

A

Endothelial

170
Q

What bug causes Granuloma inguinale?

A

Klebsiella granuloma

171
Q

Is Granuloma inguinale painful or painless?

A

painless

172
Q

What bug causes Lymphogranuloma Venerum?

A

C. trachomatis L1-L3

173
Q

Is Lymphogranuloma Venerum painful or painless?

A

painful

174
Q

Two drugs for chlamydia?

A

Azithromycin and Doxycycline

175
Q

Why is the chlamydial cell wall unique?

A

lacks muramic acid

176
Q

What is the acronym ABC in reference to chlamydia?

A

africa

blindness

chronic

177
Q

Is Lymphogranuloma Venerum painful or painless?

A

painless

178
Q

What happens to the buboes during Lymphogranuloma Venerum?

A

ulcerate

179
Q

What is Lymphogranuloma Venerum treated with?

A

doxy

180
Q

Is mycoplasma cold or warm agglutinins?

A

cold

181
Q

What does the cell wall of mycoplasma contain?

A

sterols

182
Q

Where are oxidative and transport enzymes found in bacteria?

A

plasma membrane

183
Q

What is the only heat stable exotoxin?

A

Staph. aureus enterotoxin

184
Q

Does Shigella invade host cells?

A

yes

185
Q

Does EHEC invade host cells?

A

no

186
Q

What is the E of ENDOTOXIN?

A

edema

187
Q

What are the N’s of ENDOTOXIN?

A

nitric oxide

188
Q

What is the D of ENDOTOXIN?

A

DIC

189
Q

What are the O’s of ENDOTOXIN?

A

O-antigen

Outer membrane

190
Q

What is the T of ENDOTOXIN?

A

TNF-alpha

191
Q

What is the X of ENDOTOXIN?

A

eXtremely heat stable

192
Q

What is the I of ENDOTOXIN?

A

IL1

193
Q

Which is bile soluble, S. pneumo or S. viridans? What does solubility mean?

A

S. pneumo

lysed

194
Q

Which grows in an 6.5% NaCl environment, S. bovis or E. faecalis?

A

E. faecalis

195
Q

Which grows in an bile environment, S. bovis or E. faecalis?

A

E. faecalis

196
Q

Which specific protein does SSSS Toxin cleave? What two layers of epidermis are separated?

A

desmoglein

spinosum and granulosum

197
Q

Which bug is Hippurate (+)?

A

S. agalactiae

198
Q

Which Strep group is penicillin resistant?

A

Enterococcus

199
Q

Is the ulcer of B. anthracis paiful or painless?

A

painless

200
Q

What type of immunity is used to rid the body of Listeria?

A

Cell-mediated

201
Q

Which bug produces a narrow zone of hemolysis?

A

Listeria

202
Q

Are nitrites produced during by gram-positive or gram-negative during a UTI?

A

gram-negative

203
Q

What is the gram-stain of actinomyces?

A

gram-positive

204
Q

What is the gram-stain of nocardia?

A

gram-positive

205
Q

Which molecule does arsenic inhibit?

A

lipoic acid

206
Q

Which bug can cause Legionella?

A

HYPOnatremia

207
Q

Which bug for Diabetic Osteomyelitis?

A

Pseudomonas

208
Q

Which bug can produce a hemorrhagic lymph node?

A

Yersinia

209
Q

What two diseases does the K-capsule of E. coli mediate?

A

Meningitis and pneumonia

210
Q

Which is the only invasive E. coli? Similar to?

A

EIEC

Shigella

211
Q

Which can disseminate hematogenously, Shigella or Salmonella?

A

Salmonella

212
Q

How does Shigella disseminate?

A

cell-to-cell

213
Q

Which bacterial infections can present with elevated trasaminases?

A

Legionella

214
Q

The Ixodes tick transmits which two diseases?

A

Anaplasma and Lyme

215
Q

What part of the gram-negative bacterial cell contains LPS?

A

outer membrane

216
Q

Which structure in bacteria contains hydrolytic enzymes?

A

Periplasm

217
Q

Mycobacteria have high amounts of which two substances?

A

mycolic acid

lipids

218
Q

Other than India Ink, what stain can be used for cryptococcus?

A

Muciramine

219
Q

What four bacteria possess a Type Three Secretion System?

A

Pseudomonas

E. coli

Salmonella

Shigella

220
Q

Which two enzymes do obligate anaerobes not possess?

A

superoxide dismutase

catalse

221
Q

What gives anaerobes their foul smell?

A

short chain fatty acids

222
Q

Which Eight bugs are Facultative Intracellular?

A

Salmonella

Neisseria

Brucella

MTB

Listeria

Francisella

Legionella

Yersinia

223
Q

Other than pneumo, which other strep is encapsulated?

A

GBS

224
Q

What are the seven catalase positive bugs?

A

Pseudomonas

Listeria

Aspergillus

Candida

E. coli

S. aureus

Serratia

225
Q

What is the function of teichoic acid?

A

link NAM to NAG

226
Q

Which two species of staph are urease positive?

A

S. saprophyticus

S. epidermidis

227
Q

Which two tissues are primarily affected by Diphtheria toxin?

A

heart and brain

228
Q

Which produces ulcers, Yersinia of Francisella?

A

Francisella

229
Q

Which ribosomal subunit is targeted by SHigella? WHich base is removed?

A

60S

adenine

230
Q

Which specific protein is cleaved by C. botulinum and C. tetani?

A

SNARE

231
Q

Does HUS affect coagulation factors?

A

no

232
Q

Which five bacterial toxins are encoded via a lysogenic phage?

A

shigA

Botulinum

Cholera

Diphtheria

Erythrogenic strep pyogenes

233
Q

What is the main virulence factor of S. epidermidis?

A

biofilm

234
Q

Which bacteria has zero virulence w/o its capsule?

A

S. pneumo

235
Q

Lancefield grouping is based on differences in what antigen?

A

C-carbohydrate

236
Q

GI Malignancy especially with what strain of strep, in addition to bovis?

A

Galolyticus

237
Q

Which bacteria can form Granules?

A

C. diphtheria

238
Q

What is the MOA of B. anthracis Lethal Toxin?

A

disrupts MAPK signaling

239
Q

Is the eschar caused by B. anthracis painful or painless?

A

painless

240
Q

Which bacteria forms ‘Rocket Tails’? Via what?

A

Listeria

actin polymerization

241
Q

Which third bacteria is added for Lepromatous Leprosy?

A

clofazime

242
Q

Is BV an STD?

A

no

243
Q

What are the four gram-negative, lactose non-fermenter, oxidase negative bacteria?

A

Salmonella

Shigella

Yersinia

Proteus

244
Q

Which antibiotic for H. flu prophylaxis?

A

rifampin

245
Q

What does non-typable Haemophilus lack?

A

capsule

246
Q

Ecythema Gangrenosum effects which type of patient?

A

immunocompromised

247
Q

Which cephalosporin for Pseudomonas?

A

Cefepime

248
Q

Which produces a hemorrhagic lymph node, Yersinia or Francisella?

A

Yersinia

249
Q

What do antibiotics do to the shedding of Shigella?

A

shorten

250
Q

What do antibiotics do to the shedding of Salmonella?

A

prolong

251
Q

Which induces a monocytic response, Salmonella or Shigella?

A

salmonella

252
Q

Which induces a PMN response, Salmonella or Shigella?

A

shigella

253
Q

Which bacteria is “mobile at 22C”?

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

254
Q

What does Latent Syphillis Mean?

A

positive serology w/o symptoms

255
Q

After which trimester does maternal transfer of syphillis occur?

A

after first

256
Q

Does congenital syphillis cause deafness?

A

yes

257
Q

What are the five oxidase positive bugs?

A

Pseudomonas

Vibrio

Nocardia

Campylobacter

H. pylori

258
Q

Warthin Starry Silver Stain corresponds to what bug?

A

B. heneslae

259
Q

Which bug can cause a retro-orbital headache?

A

Coxiella

260
Q

During Lymphogranuloma venerum, what is painful? What is painless?

A

painful = buboes

painless = ulcer

261
Q

Which cell is affected by RMSF?

A

endothelial

First Aid (21 decks)

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