Bacteriology Flashcards
1
Q
Is lipoteichoic acid found in gram-positives or gram-negatives?
A
positives
2
Q
Lipoteichoic acid induces which two cytokines?
A
TNF and IL1
3
Q
What is the antigen of Lipid A?
A
O polysaccharide
4
Q
Which component of LPS induces cytokine production?
A
Lipid A
5
Q
Which two cytokines does Lipid A induce?
A
TNF and IL1
6
Q
What two structures does the periplasm separate?
A
cytoplasmic membrane and outer-membrane
7
Q
Is the periplasm found in gram-positives or gram-negatives?
A
gram-negatives
8
Q
What enzyme is found in the periplasm?
A
β-lactamase
9
Q
What is the purpose of the capsule?
A
prevent phagocytosis
10
Q
What is the only bug that carries a polypeptide capsule? What amino acid?
A
B. anthracis
D-glutamate
11
Q
Which five bugs stain with Giema?
A
Chlamydia
Borrelia
Rickettsiae
Trypanosomes
Plasmodium
12
Q
Which three bugs stain with Ziehl-Nielsen?
A
Nocardia
Mycobacterium
Cryptosporidium
13
Q
Name three bugs that require silver stain?
A
Legionella
Pneumocystis
H. pylori
14
Q
What is factor V?
A
NAD+
15
Q
What is factor X?
A
Hematin
16
Q
What is another name for Thayer Martin?
A
VPN agar
17
Q
What bug uses Thayer Martin?
A
Neisseria
18
Q
What is another name for Bordet-Gengou agar?
A
Potato agar
19
Q
What are the two culture media for C. diphtheriae?
A
Loffler
Tellurite
20
Q
What is the agar for M. tuberculosis?
A
Lowenstein Jensen
21
Q
What is the media for M. pneumoniae? Contains what?
A
Eaton
cholesterol
22
Q
What bacteria can grow on Eosin-Methylene Blue agar?
A
E. coli
23
Q
What bacteria grow on Charcoal yeast? Supplemented with what two metals?
A
Legionella
Cysteine and iron
24
Q
What are the three obligate aerobes?
A
Pseudomonas
Nocardia
M. Tb
25
What are the three Obligate Anaerobes?
Clostridium
Bacteroides
Actinomyces
26
Which class of antibiotics is completely ineffective against anaerobes?
Aminoglycosides
27
What are the three obligate intracellular bacteria?
Rickettsia and Chlamydia and Coxiella
28
Which eight bugs are Facultative Intracellular bugs?
Salmonella
Neisseria
Brucella
Mycobacterium
Listeria
Francisella
Legionella
Yersinia
29
Which bacteria express M-protein? Function?
Group A Strep
evade phagocytosis
30
Which two bacteria inactivate Exotoxin A?
C. diphtheria
P. aeruginosa
31
What toxin of P. aeruginosa inactivates EF2?
Exotoxin A
32
What is the 2nd messenger for Heat Labile ETEC toxin?
cAMP
33
What is the 2nd messenger for Heat Stable ETEC toxin?
cGMP
34
What is the MOA for Heat Labile ETEC toxin?
increases chloride excretion
35
What is the MOA for Heat Stable ETEC toxin?
inhibits NaCl reabsorption
36
What 2nd messenger does B. anthracis Edema Toxin mimmic?
cAMP
37
What structure is the B. anthracis Edema Toxin responsible for forming?
Black, necrotic eschar
38
What 2nd messenger does B. pertussis inactivate?
inhibits Gi
39
What protein is inhibited by Clostridium species?
SNARE
40
What cells are affected by tetanus toxin?
Renshaw
41
What is the MOA of tetanus?
inhibit GABA and glycine release
42
What toxin of C. perfringens is an exotoxin?
Alpha toxin
43
What two enzymes can C. perfringens Alpha Toxin act like?
Phospholipase or Lecithinase
44
What is the Exotoxin of Strep. Pyogenes?
Streptolysin O
45
What is the MOA of Streptolysin O?
lyses RBCs
46
Which two cytokines are released during both Staph and Strep toxic shock?
IFN-gamma
IL2
47
Which complement protein can cause hypotension?
C3a
48
What is transformation?
uptake of naked DNA
49
Which three bacteria are especially good at transformation?
S. pneumo
H. influenzae
Neisseria
50
What is F+ x F-?
plasmid DNA transfer required for SEX PILUS and CONJUGATION
51
What is Hfr X F-?
plasmid DNA incorporated into chromosome
52
What genes are most commonly transferred via Transposition?
antibiotic resistance
53
Which five bacteria pick up their exotoxin via a phage?
Shiga
Botulinum
Cholera
Diphtheriae
Erythrogenic of Strep. pyogenes
54
Which is an aerobe, Nocardia or Actinomyces?
Nocardia
55
Which is an anaerobe, Nocardia or Actinomyces?
Actinomyces
56
What are the five gram-positive rods/bacilli?
Clostridium
Corynebacterium
Bacillus
Listeria
Mycobacterium
57
What are the two species of β-hemolytic strep?
pyogenes and agalactiae
58
Which species of staph of β-hemolytic?
aureus
59
What is the 4th β-hemolytic bacteria?
Listeria
60
Which immunoglobulin does Protein A bind? What does this inhibit? Bug?
Fc of IgG
complement activation
ONLY S. aureus
61
Is S. aureus enterotoxin heat stable or heat labile?
stable
62
Does S. pneumoniae have virulence w/o the capsule?
no
63
Which bacteria is lancet shaped?
Strep. pneumo
64
What is the most common species of strep to cause endocarditis?
Sanguinis
65
What molecule is produced by S. sanguinis that allow it to bind to damaged heart valves? What does this molecule bind?
Dextrans
fibrin-platelet aggregates
66
What more commonly preceedes glomerulonephritis, impetigo or pharyngitis?
impetigo
67
What is the hemolysis pattern of GBS?
β-hemolytic
68
Which bacteria produces CAMP factor?
S. agalactiae
69
What is the function of CAMP?
enlarges ring of hemolysis created by S. aureus
70
What drug is used for prophylaxis for GBS?
penicillin
71
What can Enterococci grow in?
NaCl and bile
72
What is test for C. diphtheriae?
Elek
73
What is the agar for C. diphtheriae?
Cystine-Tellurite
74
What vaccine for diphtheria?
toxoid
75
What is found in the wall of sporulating bacteria?
Dipicolinic acid
76
Which AB toxin of C. difficile is responsible for binding?
A toxin
77
Which AB toxin of C. difficile is cytotoxic?
B toxin
78
Which two antibiotics are known to cause pseudomembrane colitis?
clindamycin and ampicillin
79
What is B. anthracis capsule composed of?
D-glutamate
80
What is the name of the toxin produced by B. cereus?
Cereulide
81
During what phase of growth do spores generate?
Stationary
82
What is the only gram-positive to produce LPS?
Listeria
83
What antibiotic is used for Listeria?
ampicillin
84
What bacteria can cause spontaneous abortion?
Listeria
85
Which is acid-fast, Nocardia or Actinomyces?
nocardia
86
Which is anaerobic, Nocardia or Actinomyces?
Actinomyces
87
Which causes pulmonary infections, Nocardia or Actinomyces?
Nocardia
88
Who is affected by pulmonary Nocardia?
immunocompromised
89
Who is affected by cutaneous Nocardia?
trauma patients
90
What drug is used as prophylaxis for Mycobacteria?
Azithromycin
91
What are the two functions of MTB Cord factor?
inhibits macrophage maturation
induces release of TNF-alpha
92
What does cord factor induce the release of?
TNF
93
What protein of mycobacteria inhibits phagolysosomal fusion?
sulfatides
94
Which E. coli doesnt ferment sorbitol?
EHEC
95
What are the three gram-negative comma shaped bacteria?
Campylobacter
Helicobacter
Vibrio
96
Which gram-negative comma grows in alkaline media?
Vibrio
97
What are the three gram-negative rod, fast, lactose fermenters?
E. coli and Klebsiella and Eterobacter
98
What are the two gram-negative rod, slow, lactose fermenters?
Citrobacter and serratia
99
What are the four gram-negative rods, non-lactose fermenting, oxidase-negative?
Shigella
Salmonella
Yersenia
Proteis
100
What are the four gram-negative, 'coccoid' rods?
Bordatella
Brucella
Pasteurella
Haemophilus
101
Which enzyme is expressed by E. coli that makes it react on MacConkey?
β-galactosidase
102
What type of bacteria grow on EMB agar?
lactose fermenters
103
What color do lactose fermenters grow on EMB agar?
black/purple
104
What structure of gram-negatives prevent the entry of ampicillin and vancomycin?
outer membrane
105
Which Neisseria species is intracellular?
Gonorrhoeae
106
Which Neisseria species has a capsule?
Meningitis
107
Which Neisseria species causes Waterhouse-Friedrichson syndrome?
Meningitis
108
Which Neisseria species causes Fitz-Hughes-Curtis Syndrome?
Gonorrhoeae
109
An eye ointment containing which antibiotic is used for N. gonorrhoeae?
Erythromycin
110
Which three drugs can be used for N. meningitis for close contacts?
Rifampin
Ceftriaxone
Ciprofloxacin
111
Which two drugs are used to treat N. meningitis?
Penicillin G or ceftriaxone
112
What is Factor V?
NAD+
113
What is Factor H?
Hematin
114
What bacteria can H. flu can be grown with?
S. aureus
115
What does S. aureus produce produce when grown with H. flu?
NAD+
116
What drug are mucosal H. flu infections treated with?
Amoxicillin
117
What drug are meningitis H. flu infections treated with?
ceftriaxone
118
What are the two components of HiB vaccine?
polyribosylribitol phosphate
diphtheirae toxin
119
What is the gram-stain and morphology of Legionella?
gram-negative rod
120
What are the three media requirements for legionella?
charcoal yeast
iron
cysteine
121
What two classes of antibiotics can be used to treat Legionella?
macrolide or quinolone
122
What is associated with a chronic Pseudomonas infection in CF patients?
biofilm
123
An extended spectrum lactam is combined with what other drug to treat pseudomonas?
Aminoglycoside
124
E. coli fimbriae are virulence factors for which two types of infections?
cystitis and pyelonephritis
125
How does EPEC cause diarrhea?
prevents reabsorption
126
What is the mechanism by which EHEC causes MAHA?
forms micro-thrombi on endothelial surface
127
What are the four A's of klebsiella?
Aspiratio Pneumonia
Alcoholics
diAbetics
abscesses (liver and lungs)
128
Which induces a monocytic response, shigella or salmonella?
salmonella
129
Which gains transmission cell-to-cell, shigella or salmonella?
shigella
130
Where in the body is Salmonella Typhi found?
gallbladder
131
Which bug causes rose spots? Where?
Salmonella typhi
abdomen
132
What are the three oxidase positive, comma shaped gram-negative bacteria?
C. jejuni
H. pylori
V. cholera
133
Which bug causes reactive arthritis?
Campylobacter
134
What are the three sources of Y. enterocolitica?
pets
milk
pork
135
Which bug can grow and is motile at 22C?
Y. enterocolitica
136
What are the three spirochetes?
Borrelia
Leptospira
Treponema
137
How is Leptospira interrogans transmitted?
animal urine
138
What are the three symptoms for L. interrogans?
photophobia
jaundice
conjuctivitis
139
What are the two features of Weil Disease?
jaundice and azotemia
140
What is the natural animal vector for Lyme Disease?
mouse
141
What is the FAKE of lyme disease?
facial nerve palsy
arthritis
Kardiac block
erythema migrans
142
What two drugs are used to treat Lyme?
Doxycycline and Ceftriaxone
143
What bug can cause a stroke without HTN?
syphillis
144
What is Argyll Robertson pupil?
accomodates but does not constrict to light
145
Which virus can cause a VDRL false positive?
EBV
146
What substance does VDRL interact with?
beef cardiolipin
147
What is the disease of Borrelia recurrentis? Carried by?
Relapsing Fever
Louse
148
What are the two sources of Brucella?
dairy and livestock
149
What are two symptoms of Ehrlichosis?
black eschar and lymphadenopathy
150
What carrier Ehrlichosis?
lone star tick
151
Which bug causes RMSF?
Rickettsia rickettsii
152
Which bug carries RMSF?
Dermacentor
153
Which bug causes plague?
Yersinia pestis
154
Which two animals in the US can carry plague?
Prairie dog and rats
155
Does plague cause a painful or painless ulcer?
painful
156
Does anthrax cause a painful or painless ulcer?
painless
157
What part of the US can plague be found?
southwestern
158
What two drugs can be used for Gardenella?
metronidazole and clindamycin
159
What drug is used for all Rickettsial organisms?
doxycycline
160
Which bug causes epidemic typhus?
Rickettsi prowazeki
161
Which bug causes endemic typhus?
R. typhus
162
Which bug carries epidemic typhus?
Louse
163
Which bug carries endemic typhus?
Fleas
164
What two locations does RMSF begin?
wrists and ankles
165
Which two factors for growth does RMSF require?
CoA and NAD+
166
Monocytes with morulae correspond to what bug?
Ehrlichosis
167
Granulocytes with morulae correspond to what bug?
Anaplasma
168
Weil-Felix is used to identify what bug? Using antigens from what bug?
RIckettsia
proteus
169
Rickettsia likes what cell type?
Endothelial
170
What bug causes Granuloma inguinale?
Klebsiella granuloma
171
Is Granuloma inguinale painful or painless?
painless
172
What bug causes Lymphogranuloma Venerum?
C. trachomatis L1-L3
173
Is Lymphogranuloma Venerum painful or painless?
painful
174
Two drugs for chlamydia?
Azithromycin and Doxycycline
175
Why is the chlamydial cell wall unique?
lacks muramic acid
176
What is the acronym ABC in reference to chlamydia?
africa
blindness
chronic
177
Is Lymphogranuloma Venerum painful or painless?
painless
178
What happens to the buboes during Lymphogranuloma Venerum?
ulcerate
179
What is Lymphogranuloma Venerum treated with?
doxy
180
Is mycoplasma cold or warm agglutinins?
cold
181
What does the cell wall of mycoplasma contain?
sterols
182
Where are oxidative and transport enzymes found in bacteria?
plasma membrane
183
What is the only heat stable exotoxin?
Staph. aureus enterotoxin
184
Does Shigella invade host cells?
yes
185
Does EHEC invade host cells?
no
186
What is the E of ENDOTOXIN?
edema
187
What are the N's of ENDOTOXIN?
nitric oxide
188
What is the D of ENDOTOXIN?
DIC
189
What are the O's of ENDOTOXIN?
O-antigen
Outer membrane
190
What is the T of ENDOTOXIN?
TNF-alpha
191
What is the X of ENDOTOXIN?
eXtremely heat stable
192
What is the I of ENDOTOXIN?
IL1
193
Which is bile soluble, S. pneumo or S. viridans? What does solubility mean?
S. pneumo
lysed
194
Which grows in an 6.5% NaCl environment, S. bovis or E. faecalis?
E. faecalis
195
Which grows in an bile environment, S. bovis or E. faecalis?
E. faecalis
196
Which specific protein does SSSS Toxin cleave? What two layers of epidermis are separated?
desmoglein
spinosum and granulosum
197
Which bug is Hippurate (+)?
S. agalactiae
198
Which Strep group is penicillin resistant?
Enterococcus
199
Is the ulcer of B. anthracis paiful or painless?
painless
200
What type of immunity is used to rid the body of Listeria?
Cell-mediated
201
Which bug produces a narrow zone of hemolysis?
Listeria
202
Are nitrites produced during by gram-positive or gram-negative during a UTI?
gram-negative
203
What is the gram-stain of actinomyces?
gram-positive
204
What is the gram-stain of nocardia?
gram-positive
205
Which molecule does arsenic inhibit?
lipoic acid
206
Which bug can cause Legionella?
HYPOnatremia
207
Which bug for Diabetic Osteomyelitis?
Pseudomonas
208
Which bug can produce a hemorrhagic lymph node?
Yersinia
209
What two diseases does the K-capsule of E. coli mediate?
Meningitis and pneumonia
210
Which is the only invasive E. coli? Similar to?
EIEC
Shigella
211
Which can disseminate hematogenously, Shigella or Salmonella?
Salmonella
212
How does Shigella disseminate?
cell-to-cell
213
Which bacterial infections can present with elevated trasaminases?
Legionella
214
The Ixodes tick transmits which two diseases?
Anaplasma and Lyme
215
What part of the gram-negative bacterial cell contains LPS?
outer membrane
216
Which structure in bacteria contains hydrolytic enzymes?
Periplasm
217
Mycobacteria have high amounts of which two substances?
mycolic acid
lipids
218
Other than India Ink, what stain can be used for cryptococcus?
Muciramine
219
What four bacteria possess a Type Three Secretion System?
Pseudomonas
E. coli
Salmonella
Shigella
220
Which two enzymes do obligate anaerobes not possess?
superoxide dismutase
catalse
221
What gives anaerobes their foul smell?
short chain fatty acids
222
Which Eight bugs are Facultative Intracellular?
Salmonella
Neisseria
Brucella
MTB
Listeria
Francisella
Legionella
Yersinia
223
Other than pneumo, which other strep is encapsulated?
GBS
224
What are the seven catalase positive bugs?
Pseudomonas
Listeria
Aspergillus
Candida
E. coli
S. aureus
Serratia
225
What is the function of teichoic acid?
link NAM to NAG
226
Which two species of staph are urease positive?
S. saprophyticus
S. epidermidis
227
Which two tissues are primarily affected by Diphtheria toxin?
heart and brain
228
Which produces ulcers, Yersinia of Francisella?
Francisella
229
Which ribosomal subunit is targeted by SHigella? WHich base is removed?
60S
adenine
230
Which specific protein is cleaved by C. botulinum and C. tetani?
SNARE
231
Does HUS affect coagulation factors?
no
232
Which five bacterial toxins are encoded via a lysogenic phage?
shigA
Botulinum
Cholera
Diphtheria
Erythrogenic strep pyogenes
233
What is the main virulence factor of S. epidermidis?
biofilm
234
Which bacteria has zero virulence w/o its capsule?
S. pneumo
235
Lancefield grouping is based on differences in what antigen?
C-carbohydrate
236
GI Malignancy especially with what strain of strep, in addition to bovis?
Galolyticus
237
Which bacteria can form Granules?
C. diphtheria
238
What is the MOA of B. anthracis Lethal Toxin?
disrupts MAPK signaling
239
Is the eschar caused by B. anthracis painful or painless?
painless
240
Which bacteria forms 'Rocket Tails'? Via what?
Listeria
actin polymerization
241
Which third bacteria is added for Lepromatous Leprosy?
clofazime
242
Is BV an STD?
no
243
What are the four gram-negative, lactose non-fermenter, oxidase negative bacteria?
Salmonella
Shigella
Yersinia
Proteus
244
Which antibiotic for H. flu prophylaxis?
rifampin
245
What does non-typable Haemophilus lack?
capsule
246
Ecythema Gangrenosum effects which type of patient?
immunocompromised
247
Which cephalosporin for Pseudomonas?
Cefepime
248
Which produces a hemorrhagic lymph node, Yersinia or Francisella?
Yersinia
249
What do antibiotics do to the shedding of Shigella?
shorten
250
What do antibiotics do to the shedding of Salmonella?
prolong
251
Which induces a monocytic response, Salmonella or Shigella?
salmonella
252
Which induces a PMN response, Salmonella or Shigella?
shigella
253
Which bacteria is "mobile at 22C"?
Yersinia enterocolitica
254
What does Latent Syphillis Mean?
positive serology w/o symptoms
255
After which trimester does maternal transfer of syphillis occur?
after first
256
Does congenital syphillis cause deafness?
yes
257
What are the five oxidase positive bugs?
Pseudomonas
Vibrio
Nocardia
Campylobacter
H. pylori
258
Warthin Starry Silver Stain corresponds to what bug?
B. heneslae
259
Which bug can cause a retro-orbital headache?
Coxiella
260
During Lymphogranuloma venerum, what is painful? What is painless?
painful = buboes
painless = ulcer
261
Which cell is affected by RMSF?
endothelial
