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First Aid > Antimicrobrials > Flashcards

Antimicrobrials Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two toxicities of penicillins?

A

hypersensitivity and hemolytic anemia

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2
Q

Which has a greater oral bioavailability, ampicillin or amoxicillin?

A

amoxicillin

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3
Q

What six bugs can be treated with ampicillin/amoxicillin?

A

H. flu

E. coli

Listeria

Proteus

Salmonella

Shigella

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4
Q

What would be the most severe reaction of ampicillin/amoxicillin?

A

pseudomembrane colitis

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5
Q

What are the three penicillinase-resistant lactams?

A

Naficillin

Dicloxacillin

Oxacillin

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6
Q

Are the penicillinase-resistant lactams used to treat MRSA?

A

no

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7
Q

What are the two beta-lactim anti-pseudomonals?

A

Piperacillin and Ticeracillin

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8
Q

What other drug are Piperacillin and Ticeracillin administered with?

A

beta-lactamase inhibitors

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9
Q

What are the three β-lactamase inhibitors?

A

Sulbactam

Tazobactam

Clavulanic acid

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10
Q

Which cephalosporin can cover MRSA?

A

Ceftaroline

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11
Q

Which four bacteria are not covered by cephalosporins?

A

Listeria

Atypicals

MRSA

Enterococci

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12
Q

What are the two first generation cephalosporins?

A

Cefalexin and Cefazolin

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13
Q

What three bugs are the first generation cephalosporins effective against?

A

Proteus

E. coli

Klebsiella

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14
Q

What are the three 2nd generation cephalosporins?

A

Cefaclor

Cefoxitin

cefuroxime

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15
Q

What are the bugs treated by 2nd generation cephalosporins?

A

H. flu

Enterobacter

Klebsiella

Proteus

E. coli

Klebsiella

Serratia

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16
Q

What two bugs does Ceftriaxone treat?

A

meningitis and gonorrhea

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17
Q

What are the two cephalosporins for Pseudomonas?

A

Ceftazidime

Cefepime

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18
Q

What is the fourth generatuon cephalosporin?

A

Cefepime

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19
Q

What is cefepime active against?

A

Pseudomonas

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20
Q

What is the 5th generation cephalosporin?

A

Ceftoraline

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21
Q

What is ceftoraline not active against?

A

Pseudomonas

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22
Q

Which class of drugs would display nephrotoxicity upon co-administration with cephalosporins?

A

Aminoglycosides

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23
Q

Which β-lactam class of drugs can cause a Vitamin K deficiency?

A

Cephalosporins

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24
Q

What is the MOA of Aztreonam?

A

penicillin binding protein

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25
Q

What class of drugs is Aztreonam synergistic with?

A

Aminoglycoside

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26
Q

What type of bacteria does aztreonam display activity against?

A

gram-negative rods ONLY

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27
Q

What other drug are piperacillin and tazobactam used with?

A

β-lactam inhibitors

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28
Q

What is the most important side effect of Carbapenems?

A

seizure

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29
Q

What is the MOA of carbapenems?

A

β-lactam

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30
Q

What enzyme can inactivate carbapenems?

A

Dehydropeptidase

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31
Q

Does vancomycin work only on gram-positives or gram-negatives?

A

positives

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32
Q

What are the three toxicities of vancomycin?

A

Nephro

Oto

Thrombophlebitis

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33
Q

What are two techniques to decrease Red Man Syndrome?

A

coadministration with anti-histamines

slow infusion

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34
Q

What would a bug resistant to vancomycin have in its cell wall?

A

D-ala-D-lac

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35
Q

Are aminoglycosides static or cidal?

A

cidal

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36
Q

Are tetracyclines static or cidal?

A

static

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37
Q

Is chloramphenicol static or cidal?

A

static

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38
Q

Is clindamycin static or cidal?

A

static

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39
Q

Is erythromycin static or cidal?

A

static

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40
Q

What ribosomal subunit does linezolid target?

A

50S

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41
Q

What ribosomal subunit does chloramphenicol target?

A

50S

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42
Q

What ribosomal subunit does clindamycin target?

A

50S

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43
Q

What are the three MOAs of aminoglycosides?

A

inhibit formation of initiation complex

cause misreading of mRNA

block translocation

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44
Q

What do aminoglycosides require for activity?

A

oxygen

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45
Q

Which aminoglycoside is used for surgery?

A

Neomycin

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46
Q

What is the use of aminoglycosides?

A

severe gram-negative infections

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47
Q

Which class of antimicrobials can cause neuromuscular blockage?

A

Aminoglycosides

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48
Q

Which antibiotic can be a teratogen?

A

aminoglycoside

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49
Q

What is the MOA of tetracyclines?

A

prevent attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA

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50
Q

Which tetracycline is fecally eliminated and can be used in patients with renal failure?

A

doxycycline

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51
Q

Which class of antibiotics absorption can be limited with divalent cations?

A

tetracyclines

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52
Q

Which class of antibiotics tends to accumulate intra-cellularly?

A

tetracycline

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53
Q

Are tetracyclines contraindicated in pregnancy?

A

yes

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54
Q

What can tetracyclines inhibit in adolescents?

A

inhibit long-bone growth

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55
Q

How is resistance against tetracyclines created?

A

efflux pumps

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56
Q

What is the MOA of macrolides?

A

inhibit peptide translocation

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57
Q

What specific ribosomal subunit is targeted by macrolides?

A

23 rRNA

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58
Q

What STD is treated with a macrolide?

A

Chlamydia

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59
Q

What class of drug is used for strep throat in a patient with a penicillin allergy?

A

Macrolide

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60
Q

What is the M of MACRO?

A

gut motility issues

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61
Q

What is the A of MACRO? By what mechanism?

A

arrhythmia

QT prolongation

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62
Q

What is the C of MACRO?

A

Cholestatic hepatitis

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63
Q

What is the R of MACRO?

A

rash

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64
Q

What is the O of MACRO?

A

Eosinophilia

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65
Q

What does chloramphenicol block?

A

peptidyltransferase

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66
Q

What two conditions is chloramphenicol used?

A

Meningitis and RMSF

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67
Q

How is resistance to chloramphenicol generated?

A

plasmid acetyltransferase

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68
Q

What does clindamycin block?

A

peptide transfer (translocation)

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69
Q

Is clindamycin used for anaerobes above or below the diaphragm?

A

above

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70
Q

Which single aerobe is clindamycin effective against?

A

Group A Strep

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71
Q

What do sulfonamides inhibit the synthesis of?

A

folate

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72
Q

What STD can sulfonamides be effective against?

A

Chlamydia

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73
Q

What antimicrobial can displace albumin from bound substances?

A

Sulfonamides

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74
Q

What are sulfa drugs an analogue of?

A

PABA

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75
Q

What enzyme do sulfa drugs inhibit?

A

Dihydropteroate synthase

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76
Q

Which two antimicrobials inhibit Dihydrofolate Reductase?

A

Trimethoprim

Pyrimethamine

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77
Q

What two enzymes do fluoroquinolones inhibit?

A

DNA topoisomerase two and four

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78
Q

What is another name for DNA Topoisomerase Two?

A

DNA gyrase

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79
Q

What must fluoroquinolones not be taken with?

A

antacids

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80
Q

What is the broad target of fluroquinolones?

A

Gram-negative rods of GI and urinary system

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81
Q

In what three groups of people are fluorquinolones contraindicated?

A

pregnant women

nursing mothers

children under 18

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82
Q

Presnidone can cause tendon rupture if taken with what antimicrobial?

A

fluoroquinolones

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83
Q

What are the three drugs for tuberculoid and lepromatous leprosy?

A

Rifampin

Dapsone

Clofazime

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84
Q

What enzyme is needed for INH to be effective?

A

catalase-peroxidase

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85
Q

What drug is used as prophylaxis for TB?

A

INH

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86
Q

What two drugs are used for meningococcal prophyaxis?

A

Rifampin and ciprofloxacin

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87
Q

What enzymedoes rifampin inhibit?

A

DNA dependent RNA polymerase

88
Q

What drug does rifampin delay resistance to? What disease

A

Dapsone

Leprosy

89
Q

Why is rifabutin preferred over rifampin in HIV patients?

A

less inhibition of p450

90
Q

What TB drug is effective in the acidic phagosome?

A

Pyrazinamide

91
Q

What are the two main toxicities of Pyrazinamide?

A

gout and liver

92
Q

What drug blocks Arabinosyltransferase?

A

Ethambutol

93
Q

What is the function of Arabinosyltransferase?

A

carbohydrate incorporation into cell wall

94
Q

What is the toxicity of Ethambutol?

A

red-green color blind

95
Q

What drug is used to treat endocarditis during dental procedures?

A

Penicillin

96
Q

What drug is used for prophylaxis for Gonorrhea?

A

Ceftriaxone

97
Q

What drug is used for GBS in pregnant women?

A

Penicillin

98
Q

What drug is used for conjunctivitis for neonates born to a mother with Chlamydia or Neisseria?

A

Erythromycin

99
Q

Which drug is used for S. aureus post-surgical infection?

A

Cefazolin

100
Q

What drug is used for strep throat?

A

Penicillin

101
Q

What drug is used for syphillis?

A

Penicillin G

102
Q

What single drug is used for MAC prophylaxis?

A

Azithromycin

103
Q

What drug is used as prophylaxis for Toxo?

A

TMP/SMX

104
Q

Which drug is used for VRE?

A

Linezolid

105
Q

Which antimicrobial can cause serotonin syndrome?

A

Linezolid

106
Q

Which anti-fungal requires supplementation with electrolytes?

A

Amphotericin B

107
Q

Which two electrolytes need to be supplemented during Amphotericin use?

A

potassium and magnesium

108
Q

Which anti-fungal can cause fever and chills?

A

amphotericin

109
Q

Which anti-fungal can cause hypotension?

A

amphotericin

110
Q

What reaction is inihibited by Azoles? Catalyzed by what enzyme?

A

lanosterol to ergosterol

14-α-Demethylase

111
Q

What drug for cryptococcal meningitis prophyaxis?

A

Fluconazole

112
Q

Which azole for dimorphic fungi?

A

Itraconazole

113
Q

What is flucytosine an analogue of?

A

5-flurouracil

114
Q

What is the toxicity of flucytosine?

A

bone marrow suppression

115
Q

What do echinocandins inhibit the synthesis of?

A

β-glucan

116
Q

What is the main bug Echinocandins are used to treat?

A

invasive Aspergillis

117
Q

What family of anti-fungals can cause flushing? Mediatated by what?

A

Echinocandins

histamine

118
Q

What enzyme is inhibited by terbinafine?

A

squalene epoxidase

119
Q

What anti-fungal deposits in keratin containing tissue?

A

Griseofulvin

120
Q

What is the drug for Toxo?

A

Pyrimethamine

121
Q

What anti-fungal can act as a teratogen?

A

Griseofulvin

122
Q

What are the two drugs for Trypanosoma Brucei?

A

Suramin and Melarsoprol

123
Q

What is the drug for T. cruzi?

A

Nifurtimox

124
Q

What is the drug for Leishmania?

A

Sodium stibogluconate

125
Q

What is the MOA of chloroquine?

A

blocks detoxification of heme into hemozoin

126
Q

What is the only plasmodium species not treated by Chloroquine?

A

Falciparum

127
Q

What two drugs is P. falciparum treated with?

A

Atovaquone and proquanil

128
Q

What is the mechanism of resistance to Chloroquine?

A

pump

129
Q

What are the two toxicities of Chloroquine?

A

Retinopathy and pruritus

130
Q

What drug for flukes?

A

praziquantel

131
Q

What is the CCR5 antagonist?

A

Maraviroc

132
Q

What is the HIV fusion inhibitor?

A

Enfuvirtide

133
Q

What is the integrase inhibitor?

A

Raltegravir

134
Q

Which two viruses is interferon-α used to treat?

A

HBV and HCV

135
Q

Which two viruses is RIbavirin used to treat?

A

HCV and RSV

136
Q

What is Ribavirin an analogue of?

A

Guanine

137
Q

What is acyclovir an analogue of?

A

Guanosine

138
Q

What is gangciclovir an analogue of?

A

Guanosine

139
Q

What drug is used for acyclovir resistant HSV?

A

Cidofovir

140
Q

What are the MOAs of cidofovir and foscarnet?

A

viral DNA polymerase inhibitors

141
Q

What enzyme does Ribavirin inhibit?

A

Inosine Monophosphate

142
Q

What are the two toxicities of Ribavirin?

A

hemolytic anemia

teratogen

143
Q

Drugs that end in -lovir are effective against which two viruses?

A

HSV and VZV

144
Q

Which -lovir is used specifically for HSV?

A

Famciclovir

145
Q

What is the toxicity of drugs that end in -lovir?

A

crystalline nephropathy

146
Q

What is the toxicity of gangciclovir?

A

panytopenia

147
Q

What is foscarnet an analogue of?

A

Pyrophosphate

148
Q

What is the toxicity of foscarnet?

A

nephro

149
Q

What enzyme does cidofovir inhibit?

A

viral DNA polymerase

150
Q

What is the toxicity of cidofovor?

A

nephro

151
Q

Which anti-viral is coadministered with Probenecid?

A

Cidofovir

152
Q

Which protease inhibitor can cause hematuria?

A

Indinavir

153
Q

What is a common toxicity for Protease inhibitors?

A

Nephrotoxicity

154
Q

What is the common toxicity for all NRTIs?

A

bone marrow suppression

155
Q

What are the two common toxicities for NNRTIs?

A

rash and hepatotoxicity

156
Q

What is the integrase inhibitor?

A

Raltegravir

157
Q

What is the toxicity of Raltegravir?

A

Hypercholesterolemia

158
Q

What inhibits gp41?

A

Enfuvirtide

159
Q

What inhibits CCR5? Prevents is from binding?

A

Maraviroc

gp120

160
Q

What are the two toxicities of interferons?

A

Neutropenia and myopathy

161
Q

Which macrolide is embryotoxic?

A

Clathiromycin

162
Q

Which carbapenem has a decreased risk of seizures?

A

Meropenem

163
Q

What drug is used to treat Strep in patients allergic to penicillin?

A

Macrolide

164
Q

What effect of chloramphenicol is dose-independent?

A

aplastic anemia

165
Q

What effect of chloramphenicol is dose-dependent?

A

anemia

166
Q

Which two specific bacteria is Clindamycin used treat?

A

Clostridium and Bacteroides

167
Q

What three classes of antibiotics are known to cause Pseudomembrane Colitis?

A

Clindamycin

Ampicillin

Cephalosporins

168
Q

What are the two atypically named fluoroquinolones?

A

Enoxacin

Nalidixic acid

169
Q

What is the most common side effects of fluoroquinolones?

A

GI Upset

170
Q

Tendonitis caused by fluoroquinolones is dramictally increased with consumption with what other drug?

A

Glucocorticoids

171
Q

What drug is used as prophylaxis for meningococcal?

A

Rifampin

172
Q

What drug for dimorphic fungi?

A

Itraconazole

173
Q

Which antifungal can decrease the synthesis of testosterone?

A

Ketoconazole

174
Q

What is the toxicity of azoles?

A

liver

175
Q

What is the function of β-glucan?

A

cross-links chitin

176
Q

Which class of anti-fungals is particularly good at treating fungal infections of the toenails and fingernails?

A

Terbinafine

177
Q

What is the drug for flukes?

A

Praziquantel

178
Q

Which antiviral can cause Ataxia?

A

Amantadine

179
Q

What drug is used for CMV retinitis?

A

Cidofovir

180
Q

Which HAART is known to cause megaloblastic anemia?

A

Zidovudine

181
Q

What are the three NNRTIs?

A

Nevirapine

Efavienz

Delavirdine

182
Q

What are the two toxicities for NNRTIs?

A

rash and hepatotoxicity

183
Q

What type of drug is Nalidixic Acid?

A

quinolone

184
Q

Are cephalosporins cidal or static?

A

cidal

185
Q

Which class of antibiotics can cause Vitamin K deficiency?

A

Cephalosporins

186
Q

Which three drugs are used for treatment resistant MRSA?

A

Daptomycin

Linezolid

Vancomycin

187
Q

Which antibiotic can cause an increase in CK and myopathy?

A

Daptomycin

188
Q

Which specific ribosomal subunit does Linezolid cause?

A

23s

189
Q

Name three toxicities of Linezoliod

A

thrombocytopenia

serotonin syndrome

optic neuritis

190
Q

Are carbapenems beta-lactamase resistant or sensitive?

A

resistant

191
Q

Which carbapenem is has a decreased risk of seizures?

A

Meropenem

192
Q

Which carbapenem is resistant to Dehydropeptidase?

A

Meropenem

193
Q

Which transmitters does permethrin block?

A

sodium

194
Q

Which transmitters does malathion block?

A

Ach

195
Q

Which transmitters does Lindane block?

A

GABA

196
Q

Which anti-fungal is synergistic with Amphotericin B?

A

Flucytosine

197
Q

What is the MOA of Bacitracin?

A

inhibits peptide transfer into bacterial cell wall

198
Q

Which class of antibiotic causes ototoxicity with loop diuretics?

A

aminoglycoside

199
Q

Which class of antibiotic is inactivated by modification? Which three modifications?

A

aminoglycosides

acetyl/phosphor/adenylation

200
Q

What is the mechanism of resistance to macolides?

A

methylation of 23s ribosome

201
Q

Are fluoroquinolones static or cidal?

A

cidal

202
Q

Fluoroquinolones can cause tendon rupture especially with administration of what other drug?

A

Prednisone

203
Q

Can linezolid cause pancytopenia?

A

yes

204
Q

Which antimicrobial can have a metallic taste?

A

metronidazole

205
Q

Which antigen does plasmodium bind?

A

duffy

206
Q

What two drugs for life threatening malaria in US? Elsewhere?

A

US = quinidine or artesunate

Elsewhere = quinine

207
Q

Which three “-lovir’s” are in the same class?

A

Acyclovir

Famciclovir

Valacyclovir

208
Q

What is gangciclovir an analogue of?

A

Guanosine

209
Q

Which anti-viral can cause major electrolyte disturbances?

A

Foscarnet

210
Q

What functional group do NRTIs lack?

A

3’ OH

211
Q

Which NRTI is a nucleotide?

A

Tenofivir

212
Q

Which NNRTI produces vivid dreams and CNS symptoms?

A

Efavirenz

213
Q

Which metabolic problem can nucleosides NRTIs causes?

A

lactic acidosis

214
Q

What three drugs are used for HCV therapy?

A

ribavirin

simeprevir

sofosbuvir

215
Q

What is the MOA of Simeprevir?

A

protease inhibitor

216
Q

What is the MOA of Sofosbuvir?

A

RNA dependent RNA polymerase inhibitor

First Aid (21 decks)

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