Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

First Aid > Pathology > Flashcards

Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

What does apoptosis use for an energy source?

A

ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Is DNA laddering sensitive or specific for apoptosis?

A

sensitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What type of chromosome damage does radiation produce?

A

dsDNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Is the intrinsic or extrinsic pathway of apoptosis used during embryogenesis?

A

intrinsic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the two pro-apoptosis proteins?

A

BAX and BAK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which protein does Bcl-2 inhibit?

A

Apaf-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the fuction of Apaf-1?

A

induce caspases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which CD molecule is the Fas ligand?

A

CD95

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the two pro-apoptotic molecules released by Tcells?

A

perforin and granzyme B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which molecule mediates thymic medullary negative selection?

A

Fas Ligand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which bacteria can produce caseous necrosis?

A

Nocardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How does calcium appear during fat necrosis?

A

dark blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What type of necrosis take place during HSP and Churg-Strauss?

A

fibrinoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of necrosis takes place during malignant HTN?

A

fibrinoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Damage to what organ often triggers irreversible apoptosis?

A

mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What type of immune reaction takes place in response to a foreign body?

A

granuloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Granulomas are often surrounded by a ring of what type of immune cell?

A

lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

An excess of what type of tissue is found in Keloids?

A

granulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What two specific types of cells in the brain are most susceptible to ischemia?

A

pyramidal or Hippocampus

Purkinje of cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the name for the skin lesion produced by pseudomonas?

A

Ecthyema gangrenosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does ecythema gangrenosum look like?

A

black and necrotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Pseudomonas can infect people with what specific immune cell deficiency?

A

neutropenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which selectin is on endothelial cells?

A

E and P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which selectin is on neutrophils?

A

L-selectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which cells express ICAM-1?

A

endothellial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the four names for the protein that binds ICAM-1?

A

CD18

β2-integrin

LFA1

MAC1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which protein mediates transmigration through the endothelial cells?

A

PECAM-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Chromatolysis is involved after injury to what structure?

A

axon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What three reactions take place during chromatolysis?

A

cellular swelling

displacement of nucleus

dispersion of Nissl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Does dystrophic calcification take place during normocalcemia or hypercalcemia?

A

normo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Does metastatic calcification take place during normocalcemia or hypercalcemia?

A

hyper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Does calcium precipitate at a high or low pH?

A

high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which three organs are most likely to develop metastatic calcification?

A

kidney

lungs

gastric mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the two odd neutrophil chemotactic proteins?

A

kallikrein

platelet activating factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the free radical involved in repurfusion injury?

A

superoxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What does CCl4 do to liver cell membranes?

A

lipid peroxidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which cytokine mediates smooth muscle cell migration?

A

PDGF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What does TGF-β do to the cell cycle?

A

arrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which cytokine stimulates fibroblast growth for collagen synthesis?

A

PDGF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which cytokine do macrophages secrete to promote macrophage production?

A

TNF-α

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What type of inflammation is caused by bartonella heneslae?

A

granulomatous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What type of inflammation does Churg-Strauss produce?

A

granulomatous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What type of inflammation is produced during Francisella tularensis?

A

granulomatous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What gram-positive bacteria can produce a granuloma?

A

listeria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What type of inflammation would be produced during Hansen disease?

A

granulomatous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What protein adheres to RBCs that causes an increase in ESR during inflammation?

A

fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What three diseases can result with a decrease in ESR?

A

polycythemia

sickle cell

CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What does iron oxidation do to membranes?

A

peroxidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What does acute iron poisoning do to gastric mucosa?

A

bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What does chronic iron poisoning do to gastric mucosa?

A

scarring leading to obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the two preferred chelators for iron poisoning?

A

deferoxamine and deferasirox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What secondary structure is present during amyloidosis?

A

β-pleated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What protein mediates Primary Amyloidosis?

A

AL light chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What protein mediates Secondary Amyloidosis?

A

Amyloid A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which two proteins deposit during Heritable Amyloidosis?

A

mutated transthyreiten or pre-albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What protein gets deposited during age related/senile amyloidosis?

A

wild-type transthyreiten

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What protein does p53 activate?

A

p21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the function of p21?

A

inactivates all CDKs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which system is known to convert chemicals into carcinogenes?

A

microsomal mono-oxygenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What process forms lipofuscin?

A

lipid peroxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Which two specific proteins can carcinomas secrete that let them break through the basement membrane?

A

collagenase

hydrolases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is another name for MDR1?

A

P-glycoprotein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which two types of cancer are known to express MDR1?

A

liver and colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is metaplasia?

A

one adult cell type is replaced with another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is anaplasia?

A

resembling primitive cells of same tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which type of -plasia may one see giant cells?

A

anaplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the exact definition of desmoplasia?

A

fibrous tissue formation in response to a neoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the four carcinomas that spread hematogenously?

A

renal cell

follicular carcinoma of thyroid

choriocarcinoma

HCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is a benign tumor of blood vessels called?

A

hemangioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is a malignant tumor of blood vessels called?

A

Angiosarcoma

71
Q

Which three cytokines mediate cachexia?

A

TNF

IL6

IFN-gamma

72
Q

Which -myositis is associated with lung cancer?

A

Dermatomyositis

73
Q

What drug is used to treat MG?

A

pyridostigmine

74
Q

What two conditions are associated with a thymoma?

A

Myasthenia gravis

pure red blood cell aplasia

75
Q

Is Plummer-Vinson associated with squamous or adenocarcinoma of esophagus?

A

squamous

76
Q

Which two cancers are most strongly associated with polycythemia?

A

hepatocellular

renal cell carcinoma

77
Q

Which type of thyroid cancer is known to be cause by radiation?

A

papillary

78
Q

What are the three most common presentations of Tuberous Sclerosis?

A

facial angiofibroma

seizures

intellectual disability

79
Q

What three cancers are most commonly associated wit Tuberous Sclerosis?

A

giant cell astrocytoma

renal angiomyolipoma

cardiac rhabdomyoma

80
Q

Which type of colon cancer is associated with UC?

A

colon adenocarcinoma

81
Q

Which two cancers feature BCR-ABL?

A

CML and ALL

82
Q

What gene is associated with melanoma?

A

BRAF

83
Q

What is the function of BRAF?

A

serine/threonine kinase

84
Q

What is the associated tumor for c-kit?

A

gastrointestinal stromal tumor

85
Q

Which three cancers feature HER2?

A

breast

ovarian

gastric

86
Q

Which three cancers feature ras?

A

colon

lung

pancreatic

87
Q

What type of protein is ret?

A

tyrosine kinase

88
Q

What are the two genes associated with pancreatic cancer?

A

SMAD4 and CPD4

89
Q

What type of protein is Neurofibromin?

A

RAS GTPase

90
Q

Which specific CDK does p16 code for? Which cancer?

A

CDK 2A

melanoma

91
Q

Which protein is inhibited by Rb?

A

E2F

92
Q

Which protein does TSC1 encode?

A

hamartin

93
Q

Which protein does TSC2 encode?

A

tuberin

94
Q

What protein does VHL inhibit?

A

hypoxia inducible factor 1a

95
Q

Which tumor marker is secreted by a seminoma?

A

ALP

96
Q

Which tumor marker is secreted by a hepatoblastoma?

A

α-FP

97
Q

What is the tumor marker for breast cancer?

A

CA-15-3

CA-27-29

98
Q

What is the tumor marker for pancreatic cancer?

A

CA-19-9

99
Q

What is the tumor marker for ovarian cancer?

A

CA-125

100
Q

Which four cancer express S-100?

A

Schwannoma

Neural crest

Melanoma

Langerhans

101
Q

Alkylating agents are most likely to give rise to which type of tumor?

A

leukemia/lymphoma

102
Q

Aromatic amines give rise to what type of cancer?

A

bladder

103
Q

Which three specific cancers does arsenic cause?

A

angiosarcoma

lung

squamous of skin

104
Q

What kind of cancer do nitrosamines cause?

A

stomach

105
Q

Which type of cancer does vinyl chloride cause?

A

angiosarcoma

106
Q

Which paraneoplastic hormone does Hodgkins Lymphoma secrete?

A

calcitriol

107
Q

Which three cancers are known to secrete PTHrp?

A

renal cell

breast

squamous lung

108
Q

Which six cancers can cause polycythemia?

A

Hemangioblastoma

Hepatocellular

Renal

Thymoma

Leiomyoma

Pheochromocytoma

109
Q

What are the three most common cancers to metastasize to brain?

A

lung > breast > genital

110
Q

What gene is implicated in the bacterial pathogenesis of IBD? Increased or decreased?

A

NFKB

decreased

111
Q

What is another name for nuclear shrinkage?

A

Pyknosis

112
Q

What is another name for nuclear fragmentation?

A

karryohexis

113
Q

What is the color of the cytoplasm of a cell undergoing apoptosis?

A

eosinophilic

114
Q

Would C1 Esterase Deficiecy present in chidhood or adulthood?

A

child

115
Q

Would septic shock have high or low PCWP?

A

low

116
Q

Would loss of Nissl substance be a reversible or irreversible cell injury?

A

irreversible

117
Q

Which two congenital infections can produce calcifications?

A

CMV and toxo

118
Q

Would age related calcification of the aorta be dystrophic or metastatic?

A

drytrophic

119
Q

Woud psamomma bodies be dystrophic or metastatic calcifications?

A

dystrophic

120
Q

Which chromosome is Rb located on?

A

13

121
Q

Which two ‘p’ proteins does TGF-Beta increase?

A

p16 and p21

122
Q

Are CD11 and CD18 expressed on endothelial cells or leukocytes?

A

leukocytes

123
Q

What protein does LFA1 bind on endothelial cells?

A

ICAM/VCAM

124
Q

Which CD molecule is PECAM?

A

CD31

125
Q

Is PECAM expressed on endothelial, leukocytes or both?

A

both

126
Q

Which phase of hepatic metabolism produces free radicals?

A

Phase One

127
Q

Fat necrosis has what kind of macrophage?

A

lipid laden

128
Q

PDGF is released from what two cell types?

A

platelets and macrophages

129
Q

Which parasite can produce granulomas?

A

Schistosoma

130
Q

What is a gumma?

A

necrotizing granuloma

131
Q

Which acid-base abnormality can iron poisoning produce? Why?

A

metabolic acidosis

iron is mitochondrial poison

132
Q

How many cells thick is simple squamous epithelium?

A

one

133
Q

What is the metaplasia of smokers lung?

A

pseudostratifed ciliated columnar to stratified squamous

134
Q

Which hematological abnormality does primary amyloidosis cause?

A

easy bruising

135
Q

Which clotting factor can primary amyloidosis effect?

A

ten

136
Q

What two tissues do heritable or age related amyloidosis effect?

A

brain and heart

137
Q

What is the tumor suppressor gene for many adenocarcinomas?

A

KRAS

138
Q

What is the tumor suppressor gene for many small cell cancers?

A

Myc

139
Q

Which protein can cause localized amyloidosis in the heart?

A

ANP

140
Q

Which p450 enzyme is involved in the generation of free radicals from ingested drugs?

A

microsomal mono-oxygenase

141
Q

What ion is required for many metalloproteinases?

A

zinc

142
Q

Which specific chromosome can be implicated in CLL?

A

13q

143
Q

Name three human enzymes that can generate ROS?

A

NOX

xanthine oxidase

NOS

144
Q

Name three human enzymes that can degrade ROS?

A

catalase

superoxide dismutase

glutathione peroxidase

145
Q

Which two amino acid residues does a zinc finger bind?

A

cysteine and histidine

146
Q

What is dysplasia?

A

abnormal growth characterized by loss of polarity

147
Q

Which three types of plasia are Irreversible?

A

Anaplasia

Neoplasia

Desmoplasia

148
Q

What is a benign tumor of smooth muscle?

A

leiomyoma

149
Q

What is a benign tumor of striated muscle?

A

rhabdomyoma

150
Q

Which chromosome is BRCA1 on?

A

17

151
Q

Which chromosome is BRCA2 on?

A

13

152
Q

Does BRCA repair ssDNA or dsDNA breaks?

A

double stranded

153
Q

Which male testicular cancer increases ALP?

A

seminoma

154
Q

A mixed testicular cancer releases which two tumor markers?

A

aFP

B-HCG

155
Q

The sis gene is associated with what cytokine? Which two tumors are implicated?

A

astrocytoma

osteosarcoma

156
Q

Which virus is associated with a Body Fluid Cavity Bcell Lymphoma?

A

HHV8

157
Q

Which virus can cause a de-myelinating syndrome?

A

HTLV1

158
Q

Prostate cancer can be associated with which heavy metal?

A

cadmium

159
Q

What are the two largest risk factors for Laryngeal carcinoma?

A

tobacco and alcohol

160
Q

What is the cause of Laryngeal Polyps?

A

HPV

161
Q

What is the function of p27?

A

inhibit cyclin D

162
Q

What is the function of p16?

A

inhibitor of all CDKs

163
Q

What are the top three tumors to metastisize to the brain?

A

Lung>breast>genitourinary

164
Q

What are two characteristcis of Good Syndrome?

A

thymoma and immunodeficiency

165
Q

anti-NDMA receptors are associated with what malignancy?

A

Ovarian Teratoma

166
Q

Opsoclonus-Myoclonus Ataxia Syndrome is characteried by what two symptoms?

A

Dancing eyes

dancing feet

167
Q

Opsoclonus-Myoclonus Ataxia Syndrome is seen with what malignancy in adults?

A

small cell lung

168
Q

Opsoclonus-Myoclonus Ataxia Syndrome is seen with what malignancy in kids?

A

neuroblastoma

169
Q

Paraneoplastic Cerebellar Degeneration can be seen with antibodies against what three antigen?

A

Hu

Yo

Tr

170
Q

In what cells are the Hu/Yo/Tr antigens seen?

A

deep purkinje cells of cerebellum

171
Q

In which three cancers can Paraneoplastic Cerebellar Degeneration be seen?

A

small cell lung

gynecologic/breast

hodgkins

172
Q

Paraneoplastic Encephalomyelitis has antibodies against what antigen?

A

Hu

173
Q

Paraneoplastic Encephalomyelitis is seen in which cancer?

A

small cell lung

174
Q

What are the two irreversible changes to mitochondria seen during cell injury?

A

Vacuolization

phospholipid accumulation

First Aid (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions