Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

What does apoptosis use for an energy source?

A

ATP

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2
Q

Is DNA laddering sensitive or specific for apoptosis?

A

sensitive

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3
Q

What type of chromosome damage does radiation produce?

A

dsDNA

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4
Q

Is the intrinsic or extrinsic pathway of apoptosis used during embryogenesis?

A

intrinsic

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5
Q

What are the two pro-apoptosis proteins?

A

BAX and BAK

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6
Q

Which protein does Bcl-2 inhibit?

A

Apaf-1

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7
Q

What is the fuction of Apaf-1?

A

induce caspases

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8
Q

Which CD molecule is the Fas ligand?

A

CD95

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9
Q

What are the two pro-apoptotic molecules released by Tcells?

A

perforin and granzyme B

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10
Q

Which molecule mediates thymic medullary negative selection?

A

Fas Ligand

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11
Q

Which bacteria can produce caseous necrosis?

A

Nocardia

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12
Q

How does calcium appear during fat necrosis?

A

dark blue

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13
Q

What type of necrosis take place during HSP and Churg-Strauss?

A

fibrinoid

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14
Q

What type of necrosis takes place during malignant HTN?

A

fibrinoid

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15
Q

Damage to what organ often triggers irreversible apoptosis?

A

mitochondria

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16
Q

What type of immune reaction takes place in response to a foreign body?

A

granuloma

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17
Q

Granulomas are often surrounded by a ring of what type of immune cell?

A

lymphocytes

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18
Q

An excess of what type of tissue is found in Keloids?

A

granulation

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19
Q

What two specific types of cells in the brain are most susceptible to ischemia?

A

pyramidal or Hippocampus

Purkinje of cerebellum

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20
Q

What is the name for the skin lesion produced by pseudomonas?

A

Ecthyema gangrenosum

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21
Q

What does ecythema gangrenosum look like?

A

black and necrotic

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22
Q

Pseudomonas can infect people with what specific immune cell deficiency?

A

neutropenia

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23
Q

Which selectin is on endothelial cells?

A

E and P

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24
Q

Which selectin is on neutrophils?

A

L-selectin

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25
Which cells express ICAM-1?
endothellial
26
What are the four names for the protein that binds ICAM-1?
CD18 β2-integrin LFA1 MAC1
27
Which protein mediates transmigration through the endothelial cells?
PECAM-1
28
Chromatolysis is involved after injury to what structure?
axon
29
What three reactions take place during chromatolysis?
cellular swelling displacement of nucleus dispersion of Nissl
30
Does dystrophic calcification take place during normocalcemia or hypercalcemia?
normo
31
Does metastatic calcification take place during normocalcemia or hypercalcemia?
hyper
32
Does calcium precipitate at a high or low pH?
high
33
Which three organs are most likely to develop metastatic calcification?
kidney lungs gastric mucosa
34
What are the two odd neutrophil chemotactic proteins?
kallikrein platelet activating factor
35
What is the free radical involved in repurfusion injury?
superoxide
36
What does CCl4 do to liver cell membranes?
lipid peroxidation
37
Which cytokine mediates smooth muscle cell migration?
PDGF
38
What does TGF-β do to the cell cycle?
arrest
39
Which cytokine stimulates fibroblast growth for collagen synthesis?
PDGF
40
Which cytokine do macrophages secrete to promote macrophage production?
TNF-α
41
What type of inflammation is caused by bartonella heneslae?
granulomatous
42
What type of inflammation does Churg-Strauss produce?
granulomatous
43
What type of inflammation is produced during Francisella tularensis?
granulomatous
44
What gram-positive bacteria can produce a granuloma?
listeria
45
What type of inflammation would be produced during Hansen disease?
granulomatous
46
What protein adheres to RBCs that causes an increase in ESR during inflammation?
fibrinogen
47
What three diseases can result with a decrease in ESR?
polycythemia sickle cell CHF
48
What does iron oxidation do to membranes?
peroxidation
49
What does acute iron poisoning do to gastric mucosa?
bleeding
50
What does chronic iron poisoning do to gastric mucosa?
scarring leading to obstruction
51
What are the two preferred chelators for iron poisoning?
deferoxamine and deferasirox
52
What secondary structure is present during amyloidosis?
β-pleated
53
What protein mediates Primary Amyloidosis?
AL light chains
54
What protein mediates Secondary Amyloidosis?
Amyloid A
55
Which two proteins deposit during Heritable Amyloidosis?
mutated transthyreiten or pre-albumin
56
What protein gets deposited during age related/senile amyloidosis?
wild-type transthyreiten
57
What protein does p53 activate?
p21
58
What is the function of p21?
inactivates all CDKs
59
Which system is known to convert chemicals into carcinogenes?
microsomal mono-oxygenase
60
What process forms lipofuscin?
lipid peroxidase
61
Which two specific proteins can carcinomas secrete that let them break through the basement membrane?
collagenase hydrolases
62
What is another name for MDR1?
P-glycoprotein
63
Which two types of cancer are known to express MDR1?
liver and colon
64
What is metaplasia?
one adult cell type is replaced with another
65
What is anaplasia?
resembling primitive cells of same tissue
66
Which type of -plasia may one see giant cells?
anaplasia
67
What is the exact definition of desmoplasia?
fibrous tissue formation in response to a neoplasm
68
What are the four carcinomas that spread hematogenously?
renal cell follicular carcinoma of thyroid choriocarcinoma HCC
69
What is a benign tumor of blood vessels called?
hemangioma
70
What is a malignant tumor of blood vessels called?
Angiosarcoma
71
Which three cytokines mediate cachexia?
TNF IL6 IFN-gamma
72
Which -myositis is associated with lung cancer?
Dermatomyositis
73
What drug is used to treat MG?
pyridostigmine
74
What two conditions are associated with a thymoma?
Myasthenia gravis pure red blood cell aplasia
75
Is Plummer-Vinson associated with squamous or adenocarcinoma of esophagus?
squamous
76
Which two cancers are most strongly associated with polycythemia?
hepatocellular renal cell carcinoma
77
Which type of thyroid cancer is known to be cause by radiation?
papillary
78
What are the three most common presentations of Tuberous Sclerosis?
facial angiofibroma seizures intellectual disability
79
What three cancers are most commonly associated wit Tuberous Sclerosis?
giant cell astrocytoma renal angiomyolipoma cardiac rhabdomyoma
80
Which type of colon cancer is associated with UC?
colon adenocarcinoma
81
Which two cancers feature BCR-ABL?
CML and ALL
82
What gene is associated with melanoma?
BRAF
83
What is the function of BRAF?
serine/threonine kinase
84
What is the associated tumor for c-kit?
gastrointestinal stromal tumor
85
Which three cancers feature HER2?
breast ovarian gastric
86
Which three cancers feature ras?
colon lung pancreatic
87
What type of protein is ret?
tyrosine kinase
88
What are the two genes associated with pancreatic cancer?
SMAD4 and CPD4
89
What type of protein is Neurofibromin?
RAS GTPase
90
Which specific CDK does p16 code for? Which cancer?
CDK 2A melanoma
91
Which protein is inhibited by Rb?
E2F
92
Which protein does TSC1 encode?
hamartin
93
Which protein does TSC2 encode?
tuberin
94
What protein does VHL inhibit?
hypoxia inducible factor 1a
95
Which tumor marker is secreted by a seminoma?
ALP
96
Which tumor marker is secreted by a hepatoblastoma?
α-FP
97
What is the tumor marker for breast cancer?
CA-15-3 CA-27-29
98
What is the tumor marker for pancreatic cancer?
CA-19-9
99
What is the tumor marker for ovarian cancer?
CA-125
100
Which four cancer express S-100?
Schwannoma Neural crest Melanoma Langerhans
101
Alkylating agents are most likely to give rise to which type of tumor?
leukemia/lymphoma
102
Aromatic amines give rise to what type of cancer?
bladder
103
Which three specific cancers does arsenic cause?
angiosarcoma lung squamous of skin
104
What kind of cancer do nitrosamines cause?
stomach
105
Which type of cancer does vinyl chloride cause?
angiosarcoma
106
Which paraneoplastic hormone does Hodgkins Lymphoma secrete?
calcitriol
107
Which three cancers are known to secrete PTHrp?
renal cell breast squamous lung
108
Which six cancers can cause polycythemia?
Hemangioblastoma Hepatocellular Renal Thymoma Leiomyoma Pheochromocytoma
109
What are the three most common cancers to metastasize to brain?
lung > breast > genital
110
What gene is implicated in the bacterial pathogenesis of IBD? Increased or decreased?
NFKB decreased
111
What is another name for nuclear shrinkage?
Pyknosis
112
What is another name for nuclear fragmentation?
karryohexis
113
What is the color of the cytoplasm of a cell undergoing apoptosis?
eosinophilic
114
Would C1 Esterase Deficiecy present in chidhood or adulthood?
child
115
Would septic shock have high or low PCWP?
low
116
Would loss of Nissl substance be a reversible or irreversible cell injury?
irreversible
117
Which two congenital infections can produce calcifications?
CMV and toxo
118
Would age related calcification of the aorta be dystrophic or metastatic?
drytrophic
119
Woud psamomma bodies be dystrophic or metastatic calcifications?
dystrophic
120
Which chromosome is Rb located on?
13
121
Which two 'p' proteins does TGF-Beta increase?
p16 and p21
122
Are CD11 and CD18 expressed on endothelial cells or leukocytes?
leukocytes
123
What protein does LFA1 bind on endothelial cells?
ICAM/VCAM
124
Which CD molecule is PECAM?
CD31
125
Is PECAM expressed on endothelial, leukocytes or both?
both
126
Which phase of hepatic metabolism produces free radicals?
Phase One
127
Fat necrosis has what kind of macrophage?
lipid laden
128
PDGF is released from what two cell types?
platelets and macrophages
129
Which parasite can produce granulomas?
Schistosoma
130
What is a gumma?
necrotizing granuloma
131
Which acid-base abnormality can iron poisoning produce? Why?
metabolic acidosis iron is mitochondrial poison
132
How many cells thick is simple squamous epithelium?
one
133
What is the metaplasia of smokers lung?
pseudostratifed ciliated columnar to stratified squamous
134
Which hematological abnormality does primary amyloidosis cause?
easy bruising
135
Which clotting factor can primary amyloidosis effect?
ten
136
What two tissues do heritable or age related amyloidosis effect?
brain and heart
137
What is the tumor suppressor gene for many adenocarcinomas?
KRAS
138
What is the tumor suppressor gene for many small cell cancers?
Myc
139
Which protein can cause localized amyloidosis in the heart?
ANP
140
Which p450 enzyme is involved in the generation of free radicals from ingested drugs?
microsomal mono-oxygenase
141
What ion is required for many metalloproteinases?
zinc
142
Which specific chromosome can be implicated in CLL?
13q
143
Name three human enzymes that can generate ROS?
NOX xanthine oxidase NOS
144
Name three human enzymes that can degrade ROS?
catalase superoxide dismutase glutathione peroxidase
145
Which two amino acid residues does a zinc finger bind?
cysteine and histidine
146
What is dysplasia?
abnormal growth characterized by loss of polarity
147
Which three types of plasia are Irreversible?
Anaplasia Neoplasia Desmoplasia
148
What is a benign tumor of smooth muscle?
leiomyoma
149
What is a benign tumor of striated muscle?
rhabdomyoma
150
Which chromosome is BRCA1 on?
17
151
Which chromosome is BRCA2 on?
13
152
Does BRCA repair ssDNA or dsDNA breaks?
double stranded
153
Which male testicular cancer increases ALP?
seminoma
154
A mixed testicular cancer releases which two tumor markers?
aFP B-HCG
155
The sis gene is associated with what cytokine? Which two tumors are implicated?
astrocytoma osteosarcoma
156
Which virus is associated with a Body Fluid Cavity Bcell Lymphoma?
HHV8
157
Which virus can cause a de-myelinating syndrome?
HTLV1
158
Prostate cancer can be associated with which heavy metal?
cadmium
159
What are the two largest risk factors for Laryngeal carcinoma?
tobacco and alcohol
160
What is the cause of Laryngeal Polyps?
HPV
161
What is the function of p27?
inhibit cyclin D
162
What is the function of p16?
inhibitor of all CDKs
163
What are the top three tumors to metastisize to the brain?
Lung>breast>genitourinary
164
What are two characteristcis of Good Syndrome?
thymoma and immunodeficiency
165
anti-NDMA receptors are associated with what malignancy?
Ovarian Teratoma
166
Opsoclonus-Myoclonus Ataxia Syndrome is characteried by what two symptoms?
Dancing eyes dancing feet
167
Opsoclonus-Myoclonus Ataxia Syndrome is seen with what malignancy in adults?
small cell lung
168
Opsoclonus-Myoclonus Ataxia Syndrome is seen with what malignancy in kids?
neuroblastoma
169
Paraneoplastic Cerebellar Degeneration can be seen with antibodies against what three antigen?
Hu Yo Tr
170
In what cells are the Hu/Yo/Tr antigens seen?
deep purkinje cells of cerebellum
171
In which three cancers can Paraneoplastic Cerebellar Degeneration be seen?
small cell lung gynecologic/breast hodgkins
172
Paraneoplastic Encephalomyelitis has antibodies against what antigen?
Hu
173
Paraneoplastic Encephalomyelitis is seen in which cancer?
small cell lung
174
What are the two irreversible changes to mitochondria seen during cell injury?
Vacuolization phospholipid accumulation