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First Aid > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Enzyme kinetics that follow a sigmoidal curve follow what type of kinetics?

A

Cooperative kinetics

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2
Q

On a Lineweaver-Burk plot, what point is on the X-axis less than zero?

A

-1/K_M

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3
Q

On a Lineweaver-Burk plot, what point is on the Y-axis

A

1/V

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4
Q

On a Lineweaver-Burk plot, what is the Y-intercept?

A

1/Vmax

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5
Q

On a Lineweaver-Burk plot, what equation represents the slope?

A

Km/Vmax

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6
Q

Which type of inhibitors intercept the Y-axis with the natural agonist?

A

competitive

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7
Q

Which type of inhibitors do not intercept the Y-axis with the natural agonist?

A

noncompetitive

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8
Q

How many half lives does it take to reach 90% of steady state concentration?

A

3.3

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9
Q

Failure of what three organs can lead to decreased drug clearance?

A

heart, liver, kidneys

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10
Q

What is the equation for maintenance dose?

A

(desired concentration)(clearance)(interval)/F

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11
Q

What is zero order elimination?

A

clearance is constant regardless of drug concentration

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12
Q

What class of drugs are weak bases?

A

amphetamines

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13
Q

What drug is given to treat an amphetamine OD?

A

ammonium chloride

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14
Q

What three modifications are made during Phase I drug metabolism?

A

oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis

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15
Q

Do the CYP enzymes function during Phase I or Phase II clearance?

A

phase I

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16
Q

Do elderly patiets lose phase I or Phase II metabolism first?

A

Phase I

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17
Q

What three modifications are done during Phase II metabolism?

A

Glucoronidation, Acetylation, Sulfation

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18
Q

Are drugs still often active after Phase I metabolism? Phase II?

A

Phase I = yes

Phase II = no

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19
Q

What is the equation for therapeutic index?

A

TD50/ED50

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20
Q

Where are most D2 receptors found?

A

brain

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21
Q

Where are H1 receptors located?

A

nasal and bronchi

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22
Q

What do H1 receptors do to the bronchioles?

A

increase contraction

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23
Q

Where are the V1 receptors? What is their action?

A

smooth muscle

contraction

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24
Q

What class of drug blocks choline entry into the nerve terminal? What ion is used for this transport?

A

hemicholiniums

sodium

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25
Q

What drug blocks acetylcholine transport into the vesicle? What ion?

A

vesamicol

H+

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26
Q

What class of drug prevents vesicular discharge of acetylcholine?

A

Botulinum

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27
Q

What drug blocks Tyrosine Hydroxylase? What is the normal product of this enzyme?

A

Metyrosine

DOPA

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28
Q

What drug blocks the incorporation of dopamine into adrenergic vesicles?

A

reserpine

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29
Q

What are the two drugs that block adrenergic vesicular fusion with the presynaptic cell membrane?

A

bretylium

Guanethidine

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30
Q

What hormone can increase norepinephrine discharge from adrenergic nerve terminals?

A

AT II

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31
Q

What are the two uses of bethanechol?

A

ileus

urinary retention

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32
Q

What is the main use of carbachol?

A

glaucoma

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33
Q

Which two choline esters are resistant to AchE?

A

carbachol and bethanechol

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34
Q

Which choline ester has no effect on nicotinic synapses?

A

bethanechol

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35
Q

Is pilocarpine subject to AchE activity?

A

No

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36
Q

What are the three uses of neostigmine?

A

ileus

urinary retention

Myasthenia

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37
Q

Does neostigmine penetrate the CNS?

A

no

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38
Q

What AchE Inhibitor can cross the BBB?

A

physostigmine

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39
Q

What is the clinical use of pyridostigmine?

A

Long-term Tx of Myasthenia

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40
Q

What are the three AchE inhibitors for Alzheimers?

A

Donepezil

RIvastigmine

Galantamine

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41
Q

What is the clinical use of edrophoniium?

A

Tx of Myasthenia

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42
Q

What three diseases can be exacerbated by choline esters?

A

COPD

asthma

peptic ulcers

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43
Q

What are the three ocular muscarinic antagonists? Two effects?

A

Atropine/Hometropine/Tropicamide

mydriasis and cycloplegia

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44
Q

What disease is Benztropine used to Tx?

A

Parkinsons

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45
Q

What is scopolamine used to Tx?

A

motion sickness

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46
Q

What is Ipratropium used to treat?

A

COPD

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47
Q

What type of glaucoma would excessive mydriasis cause?

A

closed angle

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48
Q

What receptor does epinephrine activate at high doses?

A

α

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49
Q

What three receptors, in decreasing order, does norepinephrine activate?

A

α1 > α2 > β1

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50
Q

What two receptors does isoproterenol activate?

A

β1 = β2

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51
Q

What three receptors, in dose order, can dopamine activate?

A

D1 = D2 > β1

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52
Q

What is albuterol used for?

A

acute asthma

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53
Q

What are the two mechanisms of amphetamines?

A

inhibit reuptake

displace adrenergic catecholamines

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54
Q

Wat drug is used to treat HTN in pregnancy?

A

α-methyldopa

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55
Q

What anti-HTN drug can cause a Warm Agglutinin test?

A

α-methyldopa

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56
Q

What is the drug of choice for a pheochromocytoma?

A

Phenoxybenzamine

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57
Q

What drug is given to pt’s on MAOIs who eat fermented cheese?

A

phentolamine

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58
Q

Which β-blocker is used for glaucoma?

A

Timolol

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59
Q

Which β-blocker can cause dyslipidemias?

A

Metoprolol

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60
Q

Which three β-blockers are used in the event of an acute MI?

A

metoprolol, carvedilol, bisoprolol

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61
Q

Which β-blocker can β1 and stimulate β3? What does stimulation of β3 do?

A

Nebivolol

production of NO

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62
Q

Why does atropie cause hyperthermia?

A

inhibits sweating

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63
Q

What molecule does acetominophen overdose destroy?

A

glutathione

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64
Q

What is the antidote for acetominophen overdose?

A

N-acetylcysteine

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65
Q

What is antidote for amphetamine OD?

A

NH4Cl

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66
Q

What is the antidote for benzodiazepine overdose?

A

Flumazenil

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67
Q

What is the antidote for β-blocker OD?

A

glucagon

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68
Q

What is the treatment for Carbon Monoxide poisoning?

A

100% O2

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69
Q

What metals can penicillamine chelate?

A

copper, arsenic and gold

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70
Q

What are the three treatments, in order, for an overdose of cyanide?

A

nitrite + thiosulfate then hydroxycobalamin

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71
Q

What are the two chelators for iron?

A

DeFERoxamine and deFERasirox

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72
Q

What are the four chelators for lead?

A

EDTA, Dimercaprol, Succimer, Penicillamine

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73
Q

What metals can dimercaprole chelate?

A

mercury, arsenic, gold

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74
Q

What drug is used to treat methylene or ethylene glycol poisoning?

A

Fomepizole

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75
Q

What are the two antidotes for methemoglobin?

A

methylene blue and Vitamin C

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76
Q

What is the antidote for opioids?

A

Naloxone

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77
Q

What is the treatment for salicyclates?

A

NaHCO3

78
Q

What is the treatment for tPA, streptokinase or urokinase?

A

aminocaproic acid

79
Q

What is the treatment for warfarin OD?

A

vitamin K

80
Q

What three drugs can cause coronary vasospasm?

A

Cocaine, Sumatriptan, Ergot alkaloids

81
Q

What four drugs are known to cause cutaneous flushing?

A

vancomycin, Adenosine, Niacin, calcium channel blockers

82
Q

What two drugs are known to cause dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

doxorubicin, daunorubicin

83
Q

What two classes of antiarrythmics are known to cause TdP?

A

Class III

Class Ia

84
Q

What family of antibiotics are known to cause TdP?

A

Macrolide

85
Q

What two drugs cause hot flashes?

A

Tamoxifen

Clomiphene

86
Q

What are the six drugs that can cause hyperglycemia?

A

tacrolimus

protease inhibitors

Niacin

HCTZ

Beta-blockers

corticosteroids

87
Q

What is the Mnemonic to remember the six drugs that can cause hyperglycemia?

A

Taking Pills Necessitates Having Blood Checked

88
Q

What drugs can cause hypothyroidism?

A

Lithium, Amiodarone, Sulfonamides

89
Q

What drug can cause acute cholestatic hepatitis?

A

erythromycin

90
Q

What is the Mnenomic for the drugs that may cause diarrhea?

A

Might Excite Colon On Accident

91
Q

What are the five drugs that may cause diarrhea?

A

Metformin, Erythromycin, Colchicine, Orlistat, Acarbose

92
Q

What is the mnemonic to remeber the drugs that cause cause focal to massive hepatic necrosis?

A

Liver ‘HAVAc’

93
Q

What four drugs can cause massive hepatic necrosis?

A

Halothane, Amanita, Valproic Acid, Acetominophin

94
Q

What is the mnenomic to remember the drugs that cause pancreatitis?

A

Drugs Causing A Violent Abdominal Distress

95
Q

What are the six drugs that can cause pancreatitis?

A

Didanosine, Corticosteroids, Alcohol, Valproic Acid, Azathioprine, Diuretics

96
Q

What are the three drugs known to cause pseudomembrane colitis?

A

Clindamycin, Ampicillin, Cephalosporin

97
Q

What is the Mnemonic to remember drugs that can cause agranulocytosis?

A

Drugs CCCrush Myeblasts and Promyelocytes

98
Q

What is the drug of Drugs CCCrush Myeblasts and Promyelocytes?

A

dapsone

99
Q

What are the three C’s of Drugs CCCrush Myeblasts and Promyelocytes?

A

Clozapine

Carbamezapine

Colchicine

100
Q

What is the M of Drugs CCCrush Myeblasts and Promyelocytes? What is the MOA of this drug?

A

Methimazole

inhibits thyroid peroxidase

101
Q

What is the P of Drugs CCCrush Myeblasts and Promyelocytes? What is the MOA of this drug?

A

Propylthiouracil

inhibits thyroid peroxidase

102
Q

What is the mnemonic for drugs that cause aplastic anemia?

A

Cant Make New Blood Cells Properly

103
Q

What is the C of Cant Make New Blood Cells Properly?

A

Carbamazepine

104
Q

What is the M of Cant Make New Blood Cells Properly?

A

Methimazole

105
Q

What is the N of Cant Make New Blood Cells Properly?

A

NSAIDs

106
Q

What is the B of Cant Make New Blood Cells Properly?

A

benzene

107
Q

What is the C of Cant Make New Blood Cells Properly?

A

chloramphenicol

108
Q

What is the P of Cant Make New Blood Cells Properly?

A

propylthiouracil

109
Q

What two drugs can give a positive coombs test?

A

methyldopa and penicillin

110
Q

What drug causes Gray baby syndrome?

A

chloramphenicol

111
Q

What three drugs can cause a megaloblastic anemia?

A

Phenytoin, Methotrexate, Sulfa

112
Q

What two drugs can cause thrombocytopenia?

A

heparin and cimetidine

113
Q

What is the mnemonic to remember the drugs that can exacerbate G6PDase deficiency?

A

IS D PAIN

114
Q

What is the I of IS D PAIN?

A

isoniazid

115
Q

What is the S of IS D PAIN?

A

Sulfonamides

116
Q

What is the D of IS D PAIN?

A

dapsone

117
Q

What is the P of IS D PAIN?

A

primaquine

118
Q

What is the A of IS D PAIN?

A

Aspirin

119
Q

What is the I of IS D PAIN?

A

Ibuprofen

120
Q

What is the N of IS D PAIN?

A

Nitrofurantoin

121
Q

What two drugs can cause fat redistribution?

A

Protease Inhibitors

Glucocorticoids

122
Q

What four drugs can cause gingival hyperplasia?

A

phenytoin, verapamil, cyclosporine, nifedipine

123
Q

What is the Mnemonic to remember the drugs that can cause hyperuricemia?

A

Painful Tophi Need Foot Care

124
Q

What five drugs can cause hyperuricemia?

A

Pyrazinamide

Thiazides

Niacin

Furesomide

Cyclosporine

125
Q

What two drugs are known to cause osteoporosis?

A

corticosteroids and heparin

126
Q

What is the Mnemonic to remember the drugs that can cause photosensitivity?

A

SAT for Photo

127
Q

Which five drugs cause photosensitivity?

A

Sulfonamides

Amiodarone

Tetracyclines

5-FU

128
Q

What four types of drugs can cause Steven Johnsons Syndrome?

A

anti-Epileptics

Allopurinol

Sulfa drugs

Penicillin

129
Q

What is the Mnemonic to remember the drugs that can cause SLE-like symptoms?

A

SHIPP-E

130
Q

What are the six drugs that can cause lupus like syndromes?

A

Sulfa

hydralazine

Isoniazid

Procainamide

Phenytoin

Etanercept

131
Q

What drug can discolor teeth?

A

tetracyclines

132
Q

What drug can cause tendonitis, tendon rupture or cartilage damage?

A

Fluroquinolones

133
Q

What two drugs cause Cinchoism?

A

Quinidie and quinine

134
Q

What three drugs can produce Parkinsons like symptoms?

A

Anti-psychotics, Reserpine, Metoclopromide

135
Q

What is the Mnenomic to remember the drugs that cause seizures?

A

I BITE My (tongue)

136
Q

What six drugs cause seizures?

A

Isoniazid

Bupropion
Imipenem/Cilastatin
Tramadol
Enflurane

Metoclopromide

137
Q

What two drugs are known to cause diabetes insipidus?

A

lithium and demeclocycline

138
Q

What specific drug is known to cause Fanconi Syndrome?

A

expired tetracyclines

139
Q

What two drugs are known to cause hemorrhagic cystitis?

A

cyclophosphamide

ifosfamide

140
Q

What three drugs are known to cause interstitial nephritis?

A

Methicillin

NSAIDs

Furesomide

141
Q

What three drugs are known to cause SIADH?

A

Carbamazepine

Cyclophosphamide

SSRI

142
Q

What four drugs are known to cause pulmonary fibrosis?

A

bleomycin

busulfan

amiodarone

methotrexate

143
Q

What four drugs are known to exert anti-muscarinic properties?

A

Atropine
tricyclics
H1 antagonists
antipsychotics

144
Q

What four drugs are known to cause nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity?

A

Aminoglycosides
Cisplatin
Vancomycin
Loop diuretics

145
Q

What drugs act as p450 inducers?

A

chronic alcohol

modafinil

St. johns wort

Phenobarbital

Phenytoin

Nevirapine

Rifampin

Griseofulvin

Carbamezapine

146
Q

What are the p450 inducers?

A

anti-epileptics

anti-psychotics

antidepressants

anesthetics

theophylline

warfarin

statins

OCPs

147
Q

What are the p450 inhibitors?

A

Acute alcohol

Gemfibrozil

Ciprofloxacin

isoniazid

grapefruit juice

quinidine

amiodarone

ketaconazole

macrolides

Sulonamides

Cimetidine

Ritonavir

148
Q

What are the eight sulfa drugs?

A

Probenicid

fureosomide

acetlzolamide

Celecoxbin

thiazides

sulfonamide

sulfasalazine

sulfonylureas

149
Q

What are the drugs of Peas and WHEATS?

A

phenyton/phenylbutazone

Warfarin

heparin

ethanol

aspirin

theophylline/tolbutamide

salicyclates

150
Q

What drug is used pre-op to reduce airway secretions?

A

Glycopyrrolate

151
Q

What plant can atropine be isolated from?

A

Jimson

152
Q

What is the use of salmeterol? Which receptor?

A

long-term treatment of COPD

β2

153
Q

What is the MOA of Mirtazapine? What is the clinical use of mirtazapine?

A

α2 blocker

depression

154
Q

What are the three genitourinary muscarinic antagonists

A

oxybutynin

darifenacin

solifenacin

155
Q

Name a plant that has muscarine in it?

A

Jimson weed

156
Q

What is the biggest difference between amphetamine and ephedrine?

A

ephedrine isnt a reuptake inhibitor

157
Q

What drug is used to treat antimuscarinic overdose?

A

physostigmine

158
Q

What are two locations where scombroid toxin may be found?

A

tuna and mackerel

159
Q

What fish toxin is histamine associated with?

A

Scombroid

160
Q

What drug can produce ovulation?

A

clomiphene

161
Q

What does the permissive effect mean?

A

one drug is needed for the other drug to achieve maximum effect

162
Q

In liver and renal disease, what happens to the loading dose?

A

stays the same

163
Q

In liver and renal disease, what happens to the maintenance dose?

A

decreases

164
Q

Which adrenergic receptor does cortisol up-regulate?

A

alpha-one

165
Q

What does the blood/gas partition coefficient measure?

A

solubility in blood

166
Q

What receptor is present on sweat glands?

A

muscarinic acetylcholine

167
Q

What substance does capsacin deplete?

A

Substance P

168
Q

What two senses is Neuropeptide Y implicated in?

A

pain and appetite

169
Q

Which adrenergic receptor decreases insulin release?

A

alpha-two

170
Q

Which adrenergic receptor increases platelet aggregation?

A

alpha-two

171
Q

Which adrenergic receptor increases aqueous humor synthesis?

A

beta-two

172
Q

Which three ions are nicotonic acetylcholine receptors permeable to?

A

sodium

potassium

calcium

173
Q

What two tissues does bethanechol activate?

A

bladder and bowel

174
Q

Which cholinomimetic can be used for both types of glaucoma?

A

Pilocarpine

175
Q

What is the toxicity of the mnemonic PQRST?

A

phototoxicity

176
Q

What does PQRST stand for?

A

Psoralen/phenothiazine

Quinolones

Retinoids

Sulfonamides

tetracyclines

177
Q

What type of drug is tolterodine?

A

muscarinic antagonist

178
Q

What is tolterodine used to treat?

A

neurogenic bladder

179
Q

What will a lesion above the sacrum to do the bladder?

A

over-active bladder

180
Q

What will a lesion at the sacrum to do the bladder?

A

areflexic bladder

181
Q

What are the two anti-spasmodics for IBS?

A

hyoscyamine

dicyclomine

182
Q

Does dobutamine have a higher inotropic or chronotropic effect?

A

inotropic

183
Q

How does latanoprost aid in the Tx of glaucoma?

A

increase outflow

184
Q

Does clonidine decrease renal blood flow?

A

no

185
Q

What does the Spare Receptor Theory say?

A

irreversible antagonist will produce a right shift

186
Q

What is the MOA of Ciguatoxin? Tx?

A

opens sodium channels

supportive

187
Q

What do alpha-agonists do to venous return?

A

increase

188
Q

What enzymatic ativity does scombroid have?

A

histadine decarboxylase

189
Q

What reaction does scombroid toxin catalyze?

A

histidine to histamine

190
Q

Name six drugs that cause Gynecomastia?

A

Spironolactone

Digitalis

Cimetidine

Risperidone

Alcohol

Ketoconazole

191
Q

Which Hepatic Zone does acetominophen affect?

A

three

192
Q

What is the MOA of Black Widow Spider toxin?

A

increase presynaptic release of Ach

First Aid (21 decks)

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