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First Aid > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

What part of a lymph node would enlarge during a viral infection?

A

Paracortex

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2
Q

What cell is found in the PALS of the white pulp of the spleen?

A

Tcells

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3
Q

What happens in the marginal zone?

A

where APCs present blood borne antigen

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4
Q

What immunoglobulin is decreased post-splenectomy?

A

IgM

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5
Q

Which two additonal bacteria are encapsulated and arent in your mnemonic?

A

E. coli

GBS

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6
Q

Which pharyngeal pouch does the thymus develop from?

A

3rd

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7
Q

What type of Tcells are in the cortex?

A

Immature T cells

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8
Q

What type of Tcells are in the medulla?

A

mature T cells

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9
Q

What type of viral nucleic acid do innate immune cells respond to?

A

ssRNA

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10
Q

Which HLA loci correspond to MHC One?

A

A/B/C

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11
Q

Which HLA loci correspond to MHC Two?

A

DP/DQ/DR

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12
Q

What MHC event activates NK Cells?

A

loss of MHC One

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13
Q

In what organelle is antigen loaded onto MHC One? Via what protein?

A

rER

TAP transporter

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14
Q

In what organelle is antigen loaded onto MHC Two?

A

acidified endosome

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15
Q

Which HLA-Haplotype is associated with hemochromatosis?

A

HLA-A3

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16
Q

What condition is associated with HLA-B27?

A

PAIR

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17
Q

What HLA haplotype is associated with Pernicious anemia?

A

HLA-DR5

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18
Q

Which HLA haplotype is associated with Graves?

A

DR3

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19
Q

Which four cytokines activate NK cells?

A

IL2

IL12

IFN-α

IFN-β

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20
Q

Which CD molecule on NK cells mediates ADCC?

A

CD16

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21
Q

What is the function of CD16?

A

binds Fc of IgG

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22
Q

Where does positive Tcell selection occur?

A

cortex

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23
Q

Where does negative Tcell selection occur?

A

medulla

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24
Q

What is positive selection?

A

Capable of interacting with MHC

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25
Q

What is negative selection?

A

removes cells that bind MHC too much

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26
Q

Which CD molecules does an immature Tcell express?

A

CD4 and CD8

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27
Q

Which interleukin induces a TH1 response?

A

IL-12

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28
Q

Which interleukin induces a TH2 response?

A

IL-4

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29
Q

Which two cytokines induce a TH17 cell?

A

TGF-β

IL-6

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30
Q

What the the costimulatory molecules for Tcells?

A

B7 and CD28

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31
Q

What is the costimulatory molecule for Bcells?

A

CD40L

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32
Q

Do Tcells contain B7 or CD28?

A

CD28

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33
Q

Which cell secretes CD40L?

A

CD4

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34
Q

Which two interleukins inhibit a TH1 response?

A

IL4 and IL10

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35
Q

Which cell secretes IL12?

A

macrophages

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36
Q

Which CD molecule is unique to Tregs? What is this?

A

CD25

α-chain of IL2R

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37
Q

What is the txn factor for Tregs?

A

FOXP3

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38
Q

Which two cytokines do Tregs produce? What is the function of these cytokines?

A

IL10 and TGFβ

anti-inflammatory

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39
Q

What part of an antibody fixes complement?

A

Fc

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40
Q

Does the heavy or light chain contribute to both the Fab and Fc portion of an antibody?

A

Heavy

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41
Q

Does the Fc or Fab part of an antibody has carbohydrate side chains?

A

Fc

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42
Q

Which portion of the antibody determines its isotype?

A

Fc

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43
Q

What is the function of Tdt?

A

addition of nucleotides to DNA during recombination

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44
Q

What type of lymphocytes express IgM and IgD on their surface?

A

Mature Bcells

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45
Q

What is the most abundant immunoglobulin isotype in serum?

A

IgG

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46
Q

When is IgA a monomer?

A

circulation

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47
Q

When is IgA a dimer?

A

secreted

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48
Q

Which immunoglobulin isotype picks up a secretory component?

A

IgA

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49
Q

Is IgM a monomer when secreted or when on Mature Bcell?

A

Mature Bcell

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50
Q

Is IgM a pentamer when secreted or when on Mature Bcell?

A

secreted

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51
Q

Which two cell types can IgE bind?

A

basophils and mast cells

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52
Q

Which immunoglobulin is found in the lowest concentration in the serum?

A

IgE

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53
Q

What type of component must antigens have in order to be presented by MHC?

A

peptide

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54
Q

What are the two major functions of CRP?

A

opsonin

fix complement

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55
Q

Which two acute phase reactants are down-regulated during an immune response?

A

Albumin

Transferrin

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56
Q

Which complement protein is the main opsonin?

A

C3b

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57
Q

Which complement proteins mediate anaphylaxis?

A

C3a/C4a/C5a

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58
Q

Which complement protein is a chemoattractant for netrophils?

A

C5a

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59
Q

What are the two main opsonins?

A

IgG and C3b

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60
Q

Which complement protein can help clear immune complexes?

A

C3b

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61
Q

Which CD molecule is DAF?

A

CD55

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62
Q

What activates the alternative complement pathway?

A

spontaneous

microbial surfaces

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63
Q

What complement protein is activated by the alternative complement pathway?

A

C3b

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64
Q

What activates the lectin pathway of complement? Specifically?

A

microbial surfaces

mannose

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65
Q

What activates the classic complement pathway?

A

antigen-antibody complexes

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66
Q

Which version of C5 joins the MAC?

A

C5b

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67
Q

What condition causes Hereditary Angioedema?

A

C1 Esterase Inhibitor

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68
Q

C3 deficiency would predispose one to what type of infections?

A

severe pyogenic sinus and respiratory

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69
Q

A deficiency in what complement protein would predispose one to immune complex diseases?

A

C3

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70
Q

Which interleukin is an osteoclast activating factor?

A

IL1

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71
Q

Which cytokine mediates septic shock?

A

TNF-α

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72
Q

Which interleukin functions like GM-CSF?

A

IL-3

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73
Q

Which cytokine activates NK cells to kill virus infected cells?

A

IFN-gamma

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74
Q

Which cytokine increases MHC expression?

A

IFN-gamma

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75
Q

IL4 induces the class switching of what two immunoglobulins?

A

IgE and IgG

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76
Q

Which interleukin induces the growth of Bcells?

A

IL4

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77
Q

Which interleukin promotes the class switching to IgA?

A

IL-5

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78
Q

Which interleukin promotes the differentiation of eosinophils?

A

IL5

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79
Q

Which interleukin inhibits TH1 responses?

A

IL-10

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80
Q

Which type of nucleic acid can activate interferon?

A

dsRNA

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81
Q

What enzyme is produced in response to interferon?

A

RNaseL

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82
Q

What is the receptor for EBV?

A

CD21

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83
Q

What cell synthesizes and secretes B7?

A

Antigen presenting cells

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84
Q

Which three CD molecules are expressed on Bcells?

A

CD19/CD20/CD21

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85
Q

What is the unique marker for NK cells?

A

CD56

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86
Q

What two proteins are linked by superantigens?

A

β-region of TCR to class two MHC

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87
Q

What does CD14 bind?

A

LPS

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88
Q

What is the antigenic variation component of salmonella?

A

flagella

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89
Q

What does antigenic variation do for Borrelia?

A

relapsing fever

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90
Q

What is the antigenic variation component of Neisseria?

A

pillus

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91
Q

What causes major antigenic variation in influenza?

A

shift

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92
Q

What causes minor antigenic variation in influenza?

A

drift

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93
Q

Which four exposures can one receive pre-formed antibodies?

A

Tetanus

Botulism

HBV

Rabies

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94
Q

What are the live attenuated vaccines?

A

measles/mumps/rubella

polio (saban)

flu (intranasal)

varicella

yellow fever

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95
Q

What are the five inactivated vaccines?

A

Polio (salk)

Hepatitis A

Cholera

Rabies

Influenza (IM)

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96
Q

Which antibodies mediate Type Two Hypersensitivity Rxns?

A

IgM/IgG

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97
Q

What two things are attracted during a Type Three reaction?

A

complement and neutrophils

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98
Q

How long does it take for serum sickness to set in?

A

five days

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99
Q

What is the stain for an Arthus reaction?

A

fluorescence

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100
Q

What are the three main Type Four Hypersensitivity Rxns?

A

Transplant rejection

TB skin tests

Contact dermatitis

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101
Q

What type of immune reaction is Bullous Pemphigoid?

A

two

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102
Q

What type of immune reaction is Pemphigus Vulgaris?

A

two

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103
Q

What type of immune reaction is Guillain Barrie?

A

four

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104
Q

What type of immune reaction is MS?

A

four

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105
Q

An allergic Blood Transfusion Reaction is against what antigen?

A

plasma proteins in blood

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106
Q

What is the treatment for an allergic Blood Transfusion Reaction?

A

anti-histamines

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107
Q

What is the antigen for an anaphylactic Blood Transfusion Reaction?

A

IgA

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108
Q

What is the antigen during a Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction?

A

HLA

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109
Q

What is the antigen during an Acute Hemolytic transfusion reaction?

A

ABO

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110
Q

What is the antigen during anti-phospholipid syndrome of Lupus?

A

cardiolipin

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111
Q

What is the antigen during Limited Scleroderma?

A

anticentromere

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112
Q

What are the two specific antibodies found in SLE?

A

anti-dsDNA

anti-smith

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113
Q

What is the antigen for anti-smith antibodies?

A

ribonuclear protein

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114
Q

What is the auto-antibody during T1DM?

A

anti-glutamate decarboxylase

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115
Q

What are the three main autoantibody during polymyositis and dermatomyositis?

A

anti-Jo

anti-SRP

anti-Mi-2

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116
Q

What are the two autoantibodies during Hashimoto?

A

anti-microsomal

anti-thyroglobulin

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117
Q

What is the autoantibody during Diffuse Scleroderma? Against what?

A

anti-SCL-70

DNA topoisomerase

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118
Q

What is the autoantibody during Mixed Connective Tissue Disease?

A

anti-U1-RNP

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119
Q

What are the two autoantibodies during Rheumatoid?

A

IgM to Fc of IgG

anti-citrullinated

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120
Q

Agranulocytosis predisposes a person to infection with which four bacteria?

A

Staph

Burkholderia cepacia

Nocardia

Serratia

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121
Q

What two fungi arise when a patient lacks Tcells?

A

Candida and PCP

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122
Q

IgA deficiency could lead to what bug?

A

Giardia

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123
Q

No granulocytes could predispose a person to infection by what two fungi?

A

Candida and aspergillus

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124
Q

Are recurrent bacterial infections indicative of Tcell or Bcell deficiency?

A

Bcell

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125
Q

Are recurrent fungal infections indicative of Tcell or Bcell deficiency?

A

Tcell

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126
Q

What is the inheritance pattern for Brutons agammaglobulinemia?

A

X-linked recessive

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127
Q

What is absent during Brutons agammaglobulinemia?

A

CD19 Bcell count

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128
Q

What two structures are missing during Brutons?

A

tonsils and lymph nodes

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129
Q

Which immunoglobulins are decreased during Brutons agammaglobulinemia?

A

all classes

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130
Q

What are IgA levels during selective IgA deficiency?

A

less than 7

131
Q

What is defective during Common Variable Immunodeficiency?

A

Bcell maturation into plasma cells

132
Q

What is a patient with Common Variable Immunodeficiency at an increased risk of?

A

autoimmune disease

133
Q

What three infections are patients with Common Variable Immunodeficiency susceptible to?

A

lymphoma

bronchiectasis

sinopulmonary infections

134
Q

What cell is decreased during Common Variable Immunodeficiency? What does this result in?

A

plasma

decreased all classes of immunoglobulin

135
Q

What pharyngeal structure is disrupted during DiGeorge?

A

pouch

136
Q

How is the gene deletion detected in DiGeorge?

A

FISH

137
Q

What type of cell response is defective during IL12 Receptor Deficiency?

A

decrease TH1

138
Q

What cytokine is decreased during IL12 Receptor Deficiency?

A

IFN-gamma

139
Q

What two bugs is a person with IL-12 deficiency susceptible to?

A

mycobacterial

fungal

140
Q

What disease may present after BCG vaccination?

A

IL12 receptor deficiency

141
Q

What is the mode of inheritance of Job Syndrome?

A

Autosomal Dominant

142
Q

What cell type is deficient in Job Syndrome?

A

TH17

143
Q

What protein is mutated during Job Syndrome?

A

STAT3

144
Q

A recruitment of which immune cell fails during Job Syndrome?

A

neutrophil

145
Q

Which immunodeficiency can result in cold abscesses?

A

Job Syndrome

146
Q

What bacteria is a person with Job Syndrome particularly susceptible at forming an abscess full of?

A

Staph

147
Q

Which immune syndrome can result with retained primary teeth?

A

Job

148
Q

Which immunoglobulin is high during Job Syndrome?

A

IgE

149
Q

Which cytokine is low during Job Syndrome?

A

IFN-gamma

150
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for IL2R Deficiency?

A

X-linked

151
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for ADA Deficiency?

A

Autosomal Recessive

152
Q

What is the cure for SCID?

A

Bone marrow transplant

153
Q

What is the function of the ATM Gene?

A

repair DNA double stranded breaks

154
Q

What is the triad of Ataxia Telangiectasia?

A

Ataxia

spider Angiomas

IgA deficiency

155
Q

What is the marker for Ataxia Telangiectasia?

A

AFP

156
Q

What are the immunoglobulin levels during Ataxia Telangiectasia?

A

↓ IgG/ ↓ IgA / ↓ IgE

157
Q

What atrophies during Ataxia Telangiectasia?

A

Cerebellum

158
Q

What hematological abnormality is present during Ataxia Telangiectasia?

A

Lymphopenia

159
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for Hyper IgM?

A

X-linked

160
Q

What is defective during Hyper IgM?

A

CD40L

161
Q

Which two parasites can be found during Hyper IgM? Virus?

A

Cryptosporidium Parvum

Pneumocystis

CMV

162
Q

What are immunoglobulins are decreased during Hyper IgM?

A

↓IgG/ ↓ IgA / ↓ IgE

163
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for Wiskott-Aldrich?

A

X-linked recessive

164
Q

What process is defective during Wiskott-Aldrich?

A

Tcells are unable to rearrange cytoskeleton

165
Q

Which immunoglobulins are decreased during Wiskott-Aldrich?

A

↓ to normal IgM and IgG

166
Q

Which immunoglobulins are increased during Wiskott-Aldrich?

A

↑ IgA/ ↑ IgE

167
Q

Which cells are defective during Wiskott Aldrich?

A

Tcells

168
Q

Which two types of diseases is a person with Wiskott-Aldrich at an increased risk of inheriting?

A

Autoimmune and Malignancy

169
Q

What is another name for CD18?

A

Lymphocyte Function Associated Antigen-1

170
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency-1?

A

autosomal recessive

171
Q

What hematological abnormality would be present during LAD1?

A

neutrophilia

172
Q

What is the Mode of Inheritance for Chediak Higashi?

A

Autosomal recessive

173
Q

What protein is defective during Chediak Higashi?

A

LYST

174
Q

What is the word-for-word function of LYST?

A

microtubule dysfunction in phagosome-lysosome fusion

175
Q

Which two bacteria would a person with Chediak Higashi be susceptible to?

A

Staph and Strep

176
Q

What would be seen on a blood smear during Chediak-Higashi?

A

giant granules in neutrophils and platelets

177
Q

What immunodeficiency would present with partial albinism?

A

Chediak Higashi

178
Q

What immunodeficiency would present with peripheral neuropathy?

A

Chediak Higashi

179
Q

What immunodeficiency would present with pancytopenia?

A

Chediak Higashi

180
Q

What immunodeficiency would present with mild coagulation defects?

A

Chediak-Higashi

181
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for CGD?

A

X-linked recessive

182
Q

Which seven organisms is a person with CGD susceptible to?

A

Pseudomonas

Listeria

Aspergillus

Candidia

E. coli

S. aureus

Serratia

183
Q

What common characteristic do bacteria a person with CGD is susceptible to have in common?

A

catalase positive

184
Q

What does a negative tetrazolium blue test indicate?

A

NADPH is absent

185
Q

What other test can be used for CGD other than Nitroblue Tetrazolium?

A

Dihydrorhodamine

186
Q

Where is an autograft from?

A

yourself

187
Q

Where is an allograft from?

A

different individual of same species

188
Q

Where is a xenograft from?

A

different species

189
Q

What mediates a hyperactue graft rejection?

A

pre-formed antibody

190
Q

What type of immune reaction with hyperactue graft rejection be?

A

Type Two

191
Q

What type of Hypersensitivity is cellular acute graft rejection?

A

Type four

192
Q

What is the antigen during cellular Acute Graft Rejection?

A

donor MHCs

193
Q

What type of inflammation takes place during acute graft rejection?

A

vasculitis

194
Q

What immune cell invades during acute graft rejection?

A

lymphocytic

195
Q

Is chronic graft rejection mediated by Tcells or Bcells?

A

both

196
Q

What happens to the heart during Chronic Graft Rejection?

A

atherosclerosis

197
Q

What happens to the Lungs during Chronic Graft Rejection?

A

bronchiolitis obliterans

198
Q

What happens to the Liver during Chronic Graft Rejection?

A

vanishing bile ducts

199
Q

What two things happen to the kidney during Chronic Graft Rejection?

A

vascular fibrosis

glomerulopathy

200
Q

Which cells mediate GVHD?

A

grafted Tcells

201
Q

WHat are four symptoms of GVHD?

A

Rash

Jaundice

Diarrhea

Hepatosplenomegaly

202
Q

Which two transplants most often have GVHD?

A

bone marrow and liver

203
Q

Chronic Immune Suppression can result in which two abnormalaties?

A

infection and cancer

204
Q

What two proteins does cyclosporine inhibit?

A

Calcineurin and cyclophilin

205
Q

What is the MOA of cyclosporin?

A

blocks IL2 txn

206
Q

What is the main toxicity of cyclosporin?

A

nephrotoxic

207
Q

Which immunosuppressive can cause poor BMP findings?

A

cyclosporine

208
Q

What are the two odd toxicities of cyclosporine?

A

hirsutism and gingival hyperplasia

209
Q

What are the two immunosuppressants that inhibit calcineurin?

A

Cyclosporine and Tacrolimus

210
Q

Drugs ending in what suffix inhibit FKBP?

A

-limus

211
Q

What does FKBP stand for?

A

FK Binding Protein 506

212
Q

What does tacrolimus inhibit?

A

IL2 txn

213
Q

What are two toxicities of cyclosporine that tacrolimus lacks?

A

gingival hyperplasia and hirsutism

214
Q

What are two additional toxicities of tacrolimus that cyclosporine does not have?

A

diabetes and neurotoxicity

215
Q

What does sirolimus inhibit?

A

mTor

216
Q

What is the MOA of sirolimus?

A

inhibit IL2 signaling

217
Q

Which immunosuppressant has poor hematological toxicities?

A

Sirolimus

218
Q

Is sirolimus nephrotoxic?

A

no

219
Q

What are the three toxicities of Basiliximab?

A

edema

HTN

tremor

220
Q

Which immune cell does azathioprine inhibit?

A

lymphocytes

221
Q

What is the main toxicity of azathioprine?

A

myelosuppression

222
Q

What drug can increase the toxicity of azathioprine?

A

allopurinol

223
Q

Which immune protein is inhibited by glucocorticoids?

A

NFKB

224
Q

What enzyme does Mycophenolate Mofetil inhibit?

A

IMP Dehydrogenase

225
Q

What nucleotide does Mycophenolate Mofetil inhibit the synthesis of?

A

GMP

226
Q

Which interleukin is Oprevelkin an analogue of?

A

IL-11

227
Q

What condition is Oprevelkin used to treat?

A

thrombocytopenia

228
Q

Which drug is a G-CSF?

A

Filgrastim

229
Q

What drug is a GM-CSF?

A

Sargramostim

230
Q

Which interleukin molecule is Aldesleukin an analogue of?

A

IL2

231
Q

What two conditions is Aldesleukin used to treat?

A

renal cell carcinoma

metastatic melanoma

232
Q

What CD molecule is targeted by Alemtuzumab?

A

CD52

233
Q

What disease is treated with Alemtuzumab?

A

CLL

234
Q

What is the VEGF antibody?

A

Bevacizumab

235
Q

What two diseases for Bevacizumab treat?

A

colorectal cancer

renal cell carcinoma

236
Q

What does Cetuximab target?

A

EGFR

237
Q

What two diseases are treated with Cituximab?

A

stage four colon cancer

head/neck cancer

238
Q

What is treated with Rituximab?

A

NHL

Rheumatoid

ITP

239
Q

Which two cancers are treated with Trastuzumab?

A

breast and gastric

240
Q

What diseases are treated with Infliximab/Adalimumab?

A

PAIR

241
Q

Which two diseases is Natalizumab used to treat?

A

MS

Crohns

242
Q

Which disease could Natalizumab cause?

A

PML

243
Q

What antibody targets RANKL?

A

Denosumab

244
Q

What antibody targets IgE?

A

Omalizumab

245
Q

Which antibody targets RSV Fusion protein?

A

Palivizumab

246
Q

What does Muromonab target?

A

CD3

247
Q

What antibody targets C5 Convertase?

A

Eculizumab

248
Q

Which four areas drain into the para-aortic lymph nodes?

A

Kidney

Ovary

Ureter

Testicles

249
Q

What part of the foot drains into the popliteal nodes?

A

dorso-lateral

250
Q

Where nodes does the prostate lymph drain into?

A

internal iliac

251
Q

Between what two vessels does the thoracic duct drain?

A

subclavian and internal jugular

252
Q

What embryonic layer are lymphocytes derived from?

A

mesenchyme

253
Q

What two blood cell abnormalities can be seen post-splenectomy?

A

thrombocytosis

lymphocytosis

254
Q

Would endogenous or exogenous antigens be presented on MHC One?

A

endogenous

255
Q

Would endogenous or exogenous antigens be presented on MHC Two?

A

exogenous

256
Q

What haplotypes are found with SLE?

A

DR2 and DR3

257
Q

What is the function of Tdt?

A

VDJ rearrangement

258
Q

Which virus is notorious for appearing after a kidney transplant?

A

BK Virus

259
Q

What type of hypersensitivity could TH17 cells contribute to?

A

type three

260
Q

What cytokine do TH1 cells secrete?

A

IFN-gamma

261
Q

Which immunoglobulin is the antigen receptor on the surface of Bcells?

A

IgM

262
Q

What are thymus dependent antigens?

A

peptides

263
Q

What are thymus independent antigens?

A

non-peptides

264
Q

Which Acute Phase Reactant promotes endothelial cell repair?

A

Fibrinogen

265
Q

Which two CD molecules inhibit complement activation?

A

CD55

C1 Esterase Inhibitor

266
Q

Which two interleukins are the endogenous pyrogens?

A

IL1 and IL6

267
Q

What is the F of FACES regarding Job Syndrome?

A

coarse Facies

268
Q

What is the A of FACES regarding Job Syndrome?

A

cold Abscess

269
Q

What is the T of FACES regarding Job Syndrome?

A

retained Teeth

270
Q

What is the E of FACES regarding Job Syndrome?

A

IgE

271
Q

What is the D of FACES regarding Job Syndrome?

A

Dermatological

272
Q

What is a syngenic graft?

A

from identical twin or clone

273
Q

What does Palivizumab block?

A

RSV fusion protein

274
Q

Early complement deficiencies predispose to what type of bacteria?

A

encapsulated

275
Q

What two types of immune cells are located in the medulla of a lymph node?

A

plasma cells and lymphocytes

276
Q

What type of immune cells are located in the medullary sinus of a lymph node?

A

macrophages

277
Q

A spleenectomy can cause what myeloid cell to become more numerous?

A

thrombocytosis

278
Q

Which cytokine is involved in cachexia?

A

TNF

279
Q

Which three substances can result in IgE Independent Mast Cell Degranulation?

A

opioids

vancomycin

radiocontrast dyes

280
Q

A large population of CD4/CD8 containing Tcells can be indicative of what disease?

A

Hodgkiins lymphoma

281
Q

Where does Bcell somatic hypermutation occur?

A

Bcell germinal centers

282
Q

By what mechanism does IgA cross epithelial cell membranes?

A

Transcytosis

283
Q

The spleen synthesizes what specific isotype of immunoglobulin?

A

IgM

284
Q

Which Acute Phase Reactant is a coagulation factor?

A

fibrinogen

285
Q

Which Acute Phase Reactant correlates with ESR?

A

fibrinogen

286
Q

What starts the Alternative Complement pathway?

A

bacteria

287
Q

What starts the Lectin Complement pathway?

A

mannose

288
Q

Which two proteins help prevent complement mediated destruction of self cells?

A

DAF/CD55

C1 Esterase Inhibitor

289
Q

Which interleukin activates NK cells?

A

IL12

290
Q

Which complement protein does EBV bind?

A

C3d

291
Q

Which innate immune cell possessed Fc and C3b receptors?

A

macrophages

292
Q

Which two viruses have active and passive immunity?

A

HBV and rabies

293
Q

Antibodies to what antigen of influenza are created?

A

Hemagglutinin

294
Q

Which two immunoglobulin do macrophages have a receptor for? Not for?

A

IgG

not for = IgM

295
Q

What enzyme does Protein Kinase R inactivate?

A

EF2

296
Q

What is the function of CTLA4?

A

down-regulate immune system

297
Q

Which live vaccine is the only one that can be given to a HIV positive person?

A

MMR

298
Q

How many days after insult does serum sickness take place?

A

5–10 days

299
Q

What are three symptoms of Serum Sickness?

A

Fever

Arthralgias

Urticaria

300
Q

What is another name for a desmosome?

A

desmoglein

301
Q

What genes for SCID?

A

Rag genes

302
Q

Delay Accelerating Factor inhibits what two complement proteins?

A

C3 and C5 convertase

303
Q

Mixed connective tissue disease has manifestations of what three other autoimmune diseases?

A

Lupus

Polymyositis

Systemic sclerosis

304
Q

Not having Bcells predisposes to what two viruses?

A

Polio

enteroviruses

305
Q

Which stage of maturation of Bcells is stopped during Brutons Agammaglobulinemia?

A

pro-Bcells

306
Q

Patients with Selective IgA Deficiency can have anaphylactic reactions to what?

A

blood products

307
Q

Which immune disease can predispose to fungal/viral/bacterial and protozoan infection?

A

SCID

308
Q

What rxn does ADA Catalyze?

A

adenosine into inosine

309
Q

What disease is indicative of decreased Tcell Receptor Excision Circles?

A

SCID

310
Q

What are the two characteristics of platelets during Wiskott Aldrich?

A

smaller and fewer

311
Q

Which specific subunit is defective during LFA1?

A

beta-two-integrin

312
Q

What specific gene is defective during Chediak Higashi?

A

Lysosomal Trafficking Regulator Gene

313
Q

Do integrins mediate tight or loose adherment?

A

tight

314
Q

Which immunosuppressant can cause hyperlipidemia?

A

sirolimus

315
Q

Which immunosuppressant can cause insulin resistance?

A

sirolimus

316
Q

Which immunosuppressant is sirolimus synergistic with?

A

cyclosporine

317
Q

What organelle does bortezimib inhibit? What disease?

A

Proteasome

Multiple Myeloma

318
Q

What txn factor is normally activated by Calcineurin?

A

NFAT

319
Q

Which six diseases can be treated with IFN-alpha?

A

Hep B and C

Kaposi

Hairy/Renal/Melanoma

320
Q

What are two side effects of EPO agents?

A

HTN and thromboembolic events

321
Q

Which gene functions as an ‘Off-Switch’ for Tcell responses?

A

CTLA4

322
Q

What is the target of Natalizumab? What does this target inhibit?

A

alpha-4-integrin

leukocyte migration

323
Q

What are the two functions of CRP?

A

fix complement

opsonin

324
Q

What is the function of DAF?

A

decay C3 and C5

First Aid (21 decks)

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