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First Aid > Neurology > Flashcards

Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the MOA of ethosuximide?

A

blocks T-type Ca2+ channels

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2
Q

What is the MOA of carbamazepine?

A

Na+ channel blocker

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3
Q

What is the MOA of valproic acid?

A

Na+ channel blocker

inhibit GABA transaminase

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4
Q

What is the MOA of gabapentin?

A

blocks Ca2+ channels

GABA analogue

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5
Q

What is the MOA of Topiramate?

A

Na+ channel blocker

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6
Q

What are the MOAs of tigabine?

A

inhibits GABA transaminase

inhibit GABA reuptake

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7
Q

What is the function of the notochord?

A

induce ectoderm to differentiate into neuroectoderm

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8
Q

What two things does the neural plate give rise to?

A

neural crest cells

neural tube

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9
Q

Is the alar plate dorsal or ventral?

A

dorsal

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10
Q

Is the alar plate motor or sensory?

A

sensory

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11
Q

Is the basal plate dorsal or ventral?

A

ventral

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12
Q

Is the basal plate motor or sensory?

A

motor

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13
Q

What two structures does the prosencephalon give rise to?

A

telencephalon and diencephalon

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14
Q

What two structures does the telencephalon give rise to in adults?

A

cerebral hemispheres

lateral ventricles

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15
Q

What two structures does the diencephalon give rise to in adults?

A

thalamus

3rd ventricle

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16
Q

What two structures does the mesencephalon give rise to in adults?

A

midbrain

cerebral aqueduct of sylvius

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17
Q

What two structures does the rhomboencephalon give rise to?

A

Metencephalon

Myelencephalin

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18
Q

What three structures does the Metencephalon give rise to?

A

pons

cerebellum

upper part of 4th ventricle

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19
Q

What two structures does the Myelencephalon give rise to?

A

medulla

lower part of 4th ventricle

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20
Q

Which epithelial layer gives rise to microglia?

A

mesoderm

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21
Q

During what week of development would the neuropores fail to close during a neural tube defect?

A

4th week

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22
Q

What enzyme can be elevated during a neural tube defect?

A

AchE

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23
Q

Maternal Diabetes is associated with what neural development defect?

A

anencephaly

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24
Q

What specific structure is defective during Anencephaly?

A

anterior neural tube

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25
Q

What lab value would be affected by Anencephaly?

A

increased AFP

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26
Q

What would be noticeable during pregnancy regarding anencephaly? Why?

A

polyhydramnios

swallowing center

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27
Q

What signaling pathway may be implicated during Holoprosencephaly?

A

sonic hedgehog

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28
Q

What two structures herniate during a Chiari Type II?

A

cerebellar tonsils and vermis

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29
Q

What other pathology is Chiari Type Two associated with? Causing?

A

lumbar myelomeningocele

paralysis below defect

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30
Q

Which specific structure undergoes agenesis during Dandy-Walker?

A

cerebellar vermis

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31
Q

What two diseases are associated with Dandy-Walker?

A

hydrocephalus

spina bifida

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32
Q

Between which two vertebral levels is syringomyelia most common?

A

C8-T1

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33
Q

Which disease is Syringomyelia associated with?

A

Chiari Type One

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34
Q

What two complaints would be consistent with the manifestation of Syringomyelia?

A

headaches

cerebellar symptoms

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35
Q

What nerve provides sensation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue? Taste?

A

V3

taste = seven

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36
Q

Muscles of the tongue are derived from which myotomes?

A

occipital

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37
Q

What is the function of genioglossus?

A

protrude tongue

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38
Q

What is the function of hyoglossus?

A

retract tongue

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39
Q

What is the function of palatoglossus?

A

push tongue to palate

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40
Q

Do dendrites send or receive signals?

A

receive

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41
Q

Do axons send or receive signals?

A

send

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42
Q

What stain can be used on neurons? What organelle is targeted?

A

Nissl

RER

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43
Q

What two parts of a neuron are stained by Nissl?

A

cell body and dendrites

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44
Q

During Wallerian degeneration, does the distal or proximal end of the axon degenerate?

A

distal degenerates

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45
Q

During Wallerian degeneration, does the distal or proximal end of the axon retract?

A

proximal retracts

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46
Q

What cell in the brain is responsible for potassium metabolism?

A

Astrocytes

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47
Q

Which cell in the brain stores glycogen?

A

astrocyte

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48
Q

Which cell participates in gliosis?

A

astrocyte

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49
Q

What is the function of microglia?

A

CNS phagocytes

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50
Q

Which HIV-infected cells fuse to form multinucleated giant cells in CNS?

A

Microglia

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51
Q

What cell does the JC Virus infect?

A

Oligodendroglia

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52
Q

Can Schwann Cells or Oligodendroglia myelinate multiple cells?

A

oligodendrocytes

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53
Q

What cell is destroyed during Guillain-Barre Syndrome?

A

Schwann cells

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54
Q

What is the function of Meissners Corpuscles?

A

fine/light touch

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55
Q

What is the function of Pacinian Corpuscles?

A

vibration

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56
Q

What is the function of Merkel Discs?

A

pressure

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57
Q

Where are Meissners Corpuscles located?

A

hairless skin

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58
Q

Where are pacinian corpuscles located?

A

deep skin layers

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59
Q

Where are Merkel discs located?

A

basal epidermal layer

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60
Q

What layer of the nerve is affected during Guillain-Barre?

A

Endoneurium

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61
Q

Which layer of nerve is the permeability barrier?

A

Perineurium

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62
Q

What brain center is norepinephrine synthesized?

A

locus ceruleus

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63
Q

What happens to norepinephrine levels during anxiety?

A

increase

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64
Q

What happens to norepinephrine levels during depression?

A

decrease

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65
Q

What two structures in the brain represent the sites of dopamine synthesis?

A

ventral tegmentum

Sustantia nigra pars compacta

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66
Q

Does dopamine increase or decrease in Huntingtons disease?

A

increase

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67
Q

Does dopamine increase or decrease in depression?

A

decrease

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68
Q

What structure synthesizes serotonin?

A

raphe nucleus

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69
Q

What is the level of serotonin in Parkinsons?

A

increased

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70
Q

What is the level of serotonin in Anxiety?

A

decreased

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71
Q

What is the level of serotonin in Depression?

A

decreased

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72
Q

Where is acetylcholine made in brain?

A

Nucleus Basilis of Meynert

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73
Q

What is the level of acetylcholine in Parkinsons?

A

increased

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74
Q

What is the level of acetylcholine in Alzheimers?

A

decreased

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75
Q

What is the level of acetylcholine in Huntington?

A

decreased

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76
Q

Where in the brain is GABA made?

A

nucleus accumbens

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77
Q

What happens to GABA levels during Huntingtons?

A

decreased

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78
Q

What is the function of the Nucleus Accumbens in the brain?

A

pleasure center

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79
Q

What area of the brain is responsible for osmotic sensing? Stands for?

A

OVLT

organum vasculosum of lamina terminalis

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80
Q

Which nucleus of the hypothalamus synthesizes ADH?

A

supra-optic

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81
Q

Which nucleus of the hypothalamus synthesizez oxytocin?

A

paraventricular

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82
Q

What is the function of the Lateral Area of the hypothalamus?

A

hunger

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83
Q

What does destruction of the Lateral Area of the hypothalamus result in?

A

anorexia

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84
Q

What is the function of the Ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus?

A

satiety

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85
Q

What does destruction of the Ventromedial of the hypothalamus result in?

A

hyper-phagia

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86
Q

What part of the hypothalamus can a craniopharyngioma obstruct?

A

ventromedial

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87
Q

What is the function of the Anterior nucleus of the hypothalamus?

A

parasympathetic cooling

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88
Q

What is the function of the Posterior nucleus of the hypothalamus?

A

sympathetic heating

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89
Q

What structure regulates eye movements during REM sleep?

A

paramedian pontine reticular formation

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90
Q

What neurotransmitter cause the pineal gland to release melatonin? Released from?

A

norepinephrine

SCN

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91
Q

Awake with eyes open corresponds to what EEG wave form?

A

beta

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92
Q

Awake with eyes closed corresponds to what EEG wave form?

A

alpha

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93
Q

N1 corresponds to what EEG wave form?

A

theta

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94
Q

N2 corresponds to what EEG wave form?

A

sleep spindles

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95
Q

N3 corresponds to what EEG wave form?

A

delta

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96
Q

Which wave on the EEG occurs during REM sleep?

A

beta

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97
Q

Which ‘N’ would bedwetting occur?

A

N3

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98
Q

Which ‘N’ would sleep walking occur?

A

N3

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99
Q

Which ‘N’ would night terrors occur?

A

N3

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100
Q

The VPL of the thalamus receives input from which two ascending pathways?

A

Spinothalamic

DCML

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101
Q

The VPM of the thalamus receives input from which two structures?

A

trigeminal

gustatory

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102
Q

What input does the Lateral Geniculate Nucleus receive?

A

visual

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103
Q

Where does the Lateral Geniculate Nucleus project?

A

calcarine sulcus

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104
Q

What are the two inputs to the Medial Geniculate Nucleus?

A

superior olive

inferior colliculus

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105
Q

What are the two inputs to the Ventral Lateral nucleus of the thalamus?

A

basal ganglia

cerebellum

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106
Q

Where does the cerebellum receive contralateral information? Via what structure?

A

cortex

middle cerebellar peduncle

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107
Q

Where does the cerebellum receive ipsilateral information? Via what structure?

A

spinal cord

inferior cerebellar peduncle

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108
Q

From medial to lateral, what are the nuclei of the cerebellum?

A

F,G,E,D

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109
Q

What two structures compose the Striatum?

A

putamen and caudate

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110
Q

What two structures compose the Lentiform?

A

putamen and globus pallidus

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111
Q

Is the cortex inhibitory or excitatory on the striatum?

A

excitatory

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112
Q

What neurotransmitter does the striatum release?

A

GABA

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113
Q

Does the globus pallidus externa or interna communicate with the subthalamic nucleus? Inhibitory or excitatory?

A

externa

inhibitory

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114
Q

Which globus pallidus does the subthalamic nuclei communicate with? Inhibitory or excitatory?

A

globus pallidus internal

excitatory

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115
Q

Which layer is the output of the globus pallidus?

A

globus pallidus interna

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116
Q

Is the pallidum excitatory or inhibitory on the thalamus?

A

inhibitory

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117
Q

Is the thalamus inhibitory or excitatory on the cortex?

A

excitatory

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118
Q

Are Lewy Bodies intracellular or extracellular?

A

intracellular

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119
Q

What causes neuronal cell death during Huntingtons?

A

excessive glutamate

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120
Q

What atrophies during Huntingtons?

A

caudate

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121
Q

What is hemiballismus?

A

sudden flailing movements of one arm and leg

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122
Q

A lesion to what structure could produce hemiballismus?

A

subthalamic nucleus

contralateral

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123
Q

What kind of stroke can cause hemiballismus?

A

lacunar

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124
Q

What is chorea?

A

purposeless movements

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125
Q

What is athetosis?

A

writhing movements in fingers

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126
Q

What is an essential tremor? What do patients self-medicate with?

A

action tremor

alcohol

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127
Q

What exacerbates an essential tremor?

A

holding a position

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128
Q

Which type of tremor can alcohol decrease the severity of?

A

essential tremor

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129
Q

What two drugs can be used to treat an essential tremor?

A

β-blockers

primdone

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130
Q

What type of drug is primidone?

A

barbiturate

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131
Q

Which virus is associated with Kluver Bucy Syndrome?

A

HSV-1

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132
Q

Hyperorality is associated with what CNS syndrome?

A

kluver bucy

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133
Q

Resurgence of primitive reflexes may be indicative of lesions to where?

A

frontal lobe

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134
Q

What part of the brainstem is the Reticular Activating System present?

A

Midbrain

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135
Q

What part of the brain is responsible for Spatial Neglect Syndrome?

A

right parietal-temporal

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136
Q

Agraphia/Acalculia/ would be indicative to lesions where in the brain? What is this called?

A

DOMINANT-parietal temporal cortex

Gerstmann Syndrome

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137
Q

What can precipiate Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome?

A

glucose without thiamine

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138
Q

Would damage to the hippocampus result in retrograde or anterograde amnesia?

A

anterograde

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139
Q

Where do the eyes look with a lesion to the Paramedian Pontine Reticular Formation?

A

away

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140
Q

Where do the eyes look with a lesion to the Frontal Eye Field?

A

toward

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141
Q

From low to high your brain will?

A

die

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142
Q

From high to low your brain will?

A

blow

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143
Q

What is the only muscular movement that is retained during central pontine myelinosis?

A

vertical gaze

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144
Q

What is the problem during Conduction Aphasia?

A

poor repitition

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145
Q

In what two ways would hypotension manifest regarding the watershed regions of the brain?

A

upper arm/leg weakness

visual processing

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146
Q

PO2 has to drop below what pressure to stimulate cerebral blood flow?

A

50 mm Hg

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147
Q

Cerebral blood flow increases in response to increased PCO2 until what pressure?

A

90 mm Hg

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148
Q

What two structures are supplied by the Lenticulostriate Arteries?

A

Striatum and Internal capsule

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149
Q

Does the tongue deviate in an ipsilateral or contralateral direction in relation to a lesion?

A

ipsilateral

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150
Q

Medial Medullary Syndrome is caused by an occlusion by what specific part of what specific artery?

A

paramedian branches of

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151
Q

What three tracts/nerves are disrupted during Medial MEdullary Syndrome?

A

Hypoglossal

medial lemniscus

corticospinal

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152
Q

What artery supplies the Lateral Medulla?

A

PICA

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153
Q

Where are two forms of pain lost during Lateral Medullary Syndrome?

A

ipsilateral face

contralateral body

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154
Q

Horner Syndrome could be caused by an occlusion to what artery?

A

PICA

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155
Q

What are the two most common presenting symptoms with Lateral Medullary Syndrome?

A

Hoarseness

Dysphagia

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156
Q

What artery supplies the lateral Pons?

A

AICA

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157
Q

Which artery supplies the Middle and Inferior Cerebral Peduncles?

A

AICA

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158
Q

What type of aneurysm can form on the ACom Artery?

A

Berry

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159
Q

What nerve can be impinged by an ACom ANeurysm?

A

optic

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160
Q

What type of aneurysm can form on the PCom Artery?

A

Saccular

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161
Q

What nerve can be impinged by an PCom Aneurysm?

A

CN three

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162
Q

What two directions does the eye move during a CN three lesion?

A

down and out

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163
Q

What junction is the most common for development of a Berry Aneurysm?

A

ACom and ACA

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164
Q

What type of hemorrhage would the rupture of a Berry Aneurysm produce?

A

Subarachpoid

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165
Q

What are the three genetic conditions that increase the risk of a Berry Aneurysm?

A

Marfan

ADPKD

Ehlers-Danlos

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166
Q

What two locations would be affected by a Charcot-Bouchard Microaneurysm?

A

Basal Ganglia and Thalamus

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167
Q

Central Post-Stroke Pain Syndrome causes pain due to lesions in what location? How does this present?

A

thalamus

tingling progressing to allodynia

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168
Q

Which Intracranial Hemorrhage can present with a lucid period?

A

middle meningeal

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169
Q

What CANT an epidural hematoma cross?

A

suture lines

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170
Q

What CAN an epidural hematoma cross?

A

falx cerebrum

tentorium cerebelli

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171
Q

What CANT an subdural hematoma cross?

A

falx or tentorium

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172
Q

What CAN an subdural hematoma cross?

A

suture lines

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173
Q

Rupture of a berry aneurysm would produce what type of intracerebral hemorrhage?

A

subarachnoid

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174
Q

Rupture of an AVM would produce what type of intracerebral hemorrhage?

A

subarachnoid

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175
Q

What type of intracerebral hemorrhage would have bilirubin or blood on a spinal tap?

A

subarachnoid

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176
Q

What is the most serious complication of SAH?

A

vasospasm

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177
Q

What drug is used to treat SAH vasospasm? MOA of this drug?

A

Nimodipine

CCB

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178
Q

What are the two most common locations of an Intraparenchymal Hemorrhage?

A

thalamus and internal capsule

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179
Q

What three locations are most common for hypoxia to produce irreversible damage?

A

neocortex

hippocampus

cerebellum

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180
Q

When over the time-frame of a stroke would MRI produce a bright image?

A

bright = early ischemia

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181
Q

What is the single most vulnerable area for hypoxia to produce damage?

A

hippocampus

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182
Q

What structure of the brain is most commonly affected during a hemorrhagic stroke?

A

basal ganglia

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183
Q

Which vessel is most commonly effected by a Thrombotic Stroke?

A

MCA

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184
Q

What are the three causes of hemorrhagic stroke?

A

cancer

anti-coagulation

HTN

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185
Q

What is the pathophysiology of a Communicating Hydrocephalus?

A

decreased absorption of CSF by arachnoid granulations

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186
Q

What is the most common cause of a Communicating Hydrocephalus?

A

post-meningitis scarring

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187
Q

What gets compressed during a Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus?

A

corona radiata

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188
Q

What is Hydrocephalus Ex Vacuo?

A

appearance of hydrocephalus due to cortical atrophy

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189
Q

How many spinal nerves are there?

A

31

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190
Q

Do cervical nerves exit above or below their corresponding vertebrae?

A

above

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191
Q

Do thoracic/lumbar nerves exit above or below their corresponding vertebrae?

A

below

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192
Q

Where does the DCML decussate?

A

medulla

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193
Q

What structure does DCML use to reach thalamus?

A

medial lemniscus

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194
Q

Where is the 2nd order neuron for the DCML?

A

VPL

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195
Q

Where does the spinothalamic decussate?

A

anterior white commissure

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196
Q

Where is the 2nd order neuron of spinothalamic tract?

A

VPL of thalamus

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197
Q

Where does the lateral corticospinal tract decussate?

A

caudal medulla

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198
Q

Where part of the spine does polio effect?

A

LMNs

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199
Q

Where part of the spine does Werdnig-Hoffman Disease effect?

A

anterior horn neurons

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200
Q

What part of the spine is effected during Tabes Dorsalis?

A

Dorsal Column

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201
Q

What three tracts are affected by Subacute Combined Degeneration?

A

DCML

lateral corticospinal

spinocerebellar

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202
Q

What is the pathological process responsible for the symtpoms seen during Subacute Combined Degeneration?

A

Demyelination

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203
Q

What two locations does polio replicate?

A

Oropharynx and small intestine

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204
Q

By what mechanism is polio spread to the CNS?

A

hematogenously

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205
Q

What is the main symptom of Polio presentation?

A

LMN signs

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206
Q

Where is Polio virus recovered from?

A

stool or throat

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207
Q

What are the two characteristics of CSF during Polio?

A

increased WBC

slightly increased protein

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208
Q

What muscle fasiculates during Werdnig-Hoffman Disease?

A

tongue

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209
Q

What is the mode of inheritance of Werdnig-Hoffman?

A

autosomal recessive

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210
Q

What is the mode of inheritance of Friedrich Ataxia?

A

autosomal recessive

211
Q

What is the repeat of Fiedrich Ataxia?

A

GAA

212
Q

What chromosome is frataxin located on?

A

9

213
Q

What is the function of frataxin?

A

mitochondrial iron handling

214
Q

What is notable about the foot during Friedrich Ataxia?

A

pes cavus

215
Q

What is the cause of death during Friedrich Ataxia?

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

216
Q

Which nerve innervates the cricothyroid?

A

external laryngeal

217
Q

Which nerve carries sympathetic fibers to the eye?

A

long ciliary nerve

218
Q

What is the dermatome of the inguinal ligament?

A

L1

219
Q

What is the dermatome of the xiphoid?

A

T7

220
Q

What vertebral levels compose the cremasteric reflex?

A

L1/L2

221
Q

What vertebral levels compose the anal wink reflex?

A

S3/S4

222
Q

What is touched during the suckling reflex?

A

roof of mouth

223
Q

What is Galant Reflex?

A

sidebending towards stroking on back

224
Q

Which cranial nerves lie medially at the brain stem?

A

three

six

twelve

225
Q

Are the eyes or ears associated with the superior colliculus?

A

eyes

226
Q

Are the eyes or ears associated with the inferior colliculus?

A

ears

227
Q

Where is the conjugate vertical gaze center located?

A

superior colliculus

228
Q

What is Parinaud Syndrome?

A

loss of conjugate vertical gaze due to impingement of superior colliculus

229
Q

What is contained in the Edinger-Westphal Nucleus?

A

PANS fibers destined for eye

230
Q

Which nerve provides pain sensation for the anterior 2/3 or the tongue?

A

trigeminal

231
Q

Which salivary glands are innervated by the Facial Nerve?

A

submandibular and sublingual

232
Q

Which cranial nerve mediates eyelid closing? Via what muscle?

A

facial

orbicularis oculi

233
Q

What nerve innervates the parotid gland?

A

glossopharyngeal

234
Q

What nerve innervates the stylopharyngeus?

A

glossopharyngeal

235
Q

What is the function of the stylopharyngeus?

A

elevates pharynx/larynx

236
Q

What nerve innervates the soft palate?

A

vagus

237
Q

Is the alar plate medial or lateral?

A

lateral

238
Q

Is the alar plate motor or sensory?

A

sensory

239
Q

Is the basal plate medial or lateral?

A

medial

240
Q

Is the basal plate motor or sensory?

A

motor

241
Q

What is the function of the sulcus limitans?

A

separate sensory from motor cranial nerve nuclei

242
Q

What is the afferent limb of the corneal reflex?

A

V1

243
Q

What is the efferent limb of the corneal reflex?

A

seven

244
Q

What is the afferent limb of the lacrimation reflex?

A

V1

245
Q

What is the efferent limb of the lacrimation reflex?

A

Seven

246
Q

What is the afferent limb of the gag reflex?

A

nine

247
Q

What is the efferent limb of the gag reflex?

A

ten

248
Q

What three cranial nerves compose the nucleus solitarius?

A

seven

nine

ten

249
Q

What is the function of the NTS?

A

sensory

250
Q

What three cranial nerves are house in the Nucleus Ambiguus?

A

nine

ten

eleven

251
Q

Does a high firing rate of aortic and carotid baroreceptors occur during a high or low pressure state?

A

high

252
Q

What will high firing rate of aortic and carotid baroreceptors do to PANS outflow?

A

increase

253
Q

What nerves transverse the cavernous sinus?

A

three

four

Vone

Vtwo

six

254
Q

What nerve is most often impinged during Cavernous Sinus Syndrome?

A

six

255
Q

Does the jaw deviate towards or away the lesion? What muscle causes this?

A

towards

pterygoids

256
Q

Does the uvula deviate towards or away from the side of the lesion?

A

away

257
Q

Which SCM contracts to turn the head to the left?

A

right

258
Q

Does the tongue deviate towards or away from side of lesion?

A

toward

259
Q

Is low or high frequency sound heart at the apex of the cochlea?

A

low

260
Q

Is low or high frequency sound heart at the base of the cochlea?

A

high

261
Q

Which part of the organ of corti is responsible for hearing loss?

A

Organ of Corti

262
Q

Is the upper or lower face spared during a facial UMN lesion? Why?

A

lower

bilateral LMNs to lower face

263
Q

What infectious disease can cause a facial nerve palsy?

A

Lyme disease

264
Q

Which two viruses can cause a facial nerve palsy ?

A

herpes simplex

herpes zoster

265
Q

Which autoimmune disease can cause a facial nerve palsy?

A

sarcoidosis

266
Q

Which pterygoid opens the jaw?

A

lateral

267
Q

Which pterygoid closes the jaw?

A

medial

268
Q

Is the eye too short or too long during Hyperopia?

A

short

269
Q

Where is light focused during Hyperopia?

A

behind the retina

270
Q

Is the eye too short or too long during Myopia?

A

too long

271
Q

Where is light focused during Myopia?

A

in front of retina

272
Q

Which two Autoimmune diseases can cause uveitis?

A

sarcoid and rheumatoid

273
Q

Which infectious disease can cause uveitis?

A

TB

274
Q

Which HLA haplotype can be associated with uveitis?

A

HLA-B27

275
Q

Which three viruses are associated with retinitis?

A

CMV/HSV/HZV

276
Q

What is non-proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy?

A

damaged vessels leak lipid and fluid

277
Q

What is proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy?

A

chronic hypoxia results in new blood vessel formation

278
Q

What anti-AB can be used to treat proliferative diabetic retinopathy?

A

anti-VEGF

279
Q

What atrophies during glaucoma?

A

optic disk

280
Q

What line of vision is lost during glaucoma?

A

peripheral

281
Q

What race is predisposed to open-angle glaucoma?

A

African americans

282
Q

What is the cause of primary closed/narrow angle glaucoma?

A

forward displacement of lens against iris

283
Q

Why is the pathophysiology against secondary closed/narrow angle glaucoma?

A

hypoxia produces vasoproliferation and enlargement of iris

284
Q

Prolonged administration of what drug could cause cataracts?

A

corticosteroids

285
Q

Which two genetic metabolic diseases could result in cataracts?

A

galactosemia

galactokinase deficiency

286
Q

Which molecule could cause cataracts during diabetes?

A

sorbitol

287
Q

What direction does the eye point during an optic nerve lesion?

A

down and out

288
Q

Where does the eye move during a trochlear nerve lesion?

A

upward

289
Q

Does the head tilt toward or away from the affected trochlear nerve lesion side? Going down stairs?

A

toward

stairs = opposite

290
Q

Which ciliary nerve contains PANS fibers?

A

short

291
Q

Which ciliary nerve contains SANS fibers?

A

long

292
Q

Which structure mediates the afferent cranial nerve pupillary light reflex?

A

Pretectal nucleus

293
Q

What does the pretectal nucleus activate during the pupillary light reflex?

A

Edinger-Westphal nucleus

294
Q

Which two layers of the retina are separated during retinal detachment?

A

rods/cones

photoreceptor layer

295
Q

Which is located on the exterior of the retina, pigmented layer or rods/cones?

A

pigmented

296
Q

Beneath which membrane is extracellular material deposited during dry macular degeneration?

A

Bruch

297
Q

Quadrantic anopia is downstream of what vessel?

A

MCA

298
Q

Is upper or lower quadrantic anopia projections found in the temporal lobe?

A

upper

299
Q

Is upper or lower quadrantic anopia projections found in the parietal lobe?

A

lower

300
Q

Hemianopia is downstream of what vessel?

A

PCA

301
Q

Does Meyer Loop correspond to upper or lower retina?

A

lower retina

302
Q

What does Meyers loop wrap across?

A

inferior horn of lateral ventricle

303
Q

Through what structure does the superior retina projection pass through?

A

internal capsule

304
Q

What is normal during INO?

A

convergence

305
Q

Why does MLF get affected so quickly during MS?

A

heavily myelinated

306
Q

Which chromosome is Presenelin-1 located on?

A

14

307
Q

Which chromosome is Presenelin-2 located on?

A

1

308
Q

Which chromosome is ApoE located on?

A

19

309
Q

What structure that develops during Alzheimers correlates with disease severity?

A

tau protein tangles

310
Q

What shape is Tau during Pick Disease?

A

spherical

311
Q

Which happens earlier in Pick disease, personality changes or dementia?

A

personality changes

312
Q

What gets spared during Pick Dementia?

A

posterior 2/3 of temporal gyrus

313
Q

What is the first symptom of Lewy Body Dementia?

A

Dementia

314
Q

What follows the dementia during Lewy Body Dementia?

A

visual hallucinations

315
Q

What follows the visual hallucinations during Lewy Body Dementia?

A

parkinsonian symptoms

316
Q

What is the pathological protein found during Lewy Body Dementia? Where?

A

α-synuclein

all over cortex

317
Q

Which neuro-pathological disease features startle myoclonus?

A

Creutzfeld-Jakob

318
Q

Which neuro-pathological disease features EEG sharp waves?

A

Creutzfeld-Jakob

319
Q

What is the secondary structure of Creutzfeld-Jakob?

A

β-pleated sheet

320
Q

Lack of which three B vitamins can cause dementia?

A

B1/B3/B12

321
Q

Which type of hydrocephalus can cause dementia?

A

NPH

322
Q

What does SIIN stand for regarding MS?

A

Scanning speech

intention tremor

INO

nystagmus

323
Q

What imaging modality is used for MS?

A

MRI

324
Q

What two activities make up the plaques in MS?

A

oligodendrocyte loss

reactive gliosis

325
Q

What antibody is used to treat MS? What does it target?

A

Natalizumab

α4-integrin

326
Q

What two drugs are used to treat spasticity during MS?

A

baclofen and benzos

327
Q

Which virus can cause AIDP?

A

CMV

328
Q

What is the treatment for AIDP?

A

plasmapharesis IV immunoglobulin

329
Q

What drug can be used to treat PML?

A

natalizumab

330
Q

Which four viruses can cause Acute Disseminated Encephalomyelitis?

A

Measles

Shingles

Smallpox

Rabies

331
Q

Are central, peripheral or both types of nerves demyelinated during Metachromatic Leukodystrophy?

A

peripheral and central

332
Q

What is another name for Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease?

A

hereditary motor and sensory neuropathy

333
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease?

A

defective proteins involved in myelin synthesis

334
Q

What two skeletal pathologies are associated with Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease?

A

scoliosis

foot deformities

335
Q

Which enzyme is defective during Krabbe Disease?

A

Galactocerebrosidase

336
Q

What two products accumulate during Krabbe Disease?

A

galactocerebroside and psychosine

337
Q

What is destroyed during Krabbe Disease? What type of cell appears?

A

myelin sheath

globoid

338
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for Adrenoleukodystrophy?

A

X-linked

339
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Adrenoleukodystrophy?

A

metabolic defect of VERY LONG CHAIN fatty acids

340
Q

In what three locations do long chain fatty acids buildup during Adrenoleukodystrophy?

A

CNS

adrenal gland

testes

341
Q

What lobe do most seizures arise?

A

temporal

342
Q

What should one do with a febrile seizure in an infant?

A

look for source

343
Q

What would be seen on physical exam during a cluster headache?

A

lacrimation

rhinorrhea

344
Q

What type of headache may induce Horner Syndrome?

A

cluster

345
Q

What are the two treatments for Cluster Headaches?

A

oxygen and sumatriptan

346
Q

Which tricycyclic is used to treat migraines?

A

Amitriptyline

347
Q

Which β-blocker is used to treat migraines?

A

propranalol

348
Q

How long does Trigeminal Neuralgia usually last?

A

less than 1 minute

349
Q

Where is the pathology for Peripheral Vertigo?

A

inner ear

350
Q

Where is the pathology for Central Vertigo?

A

brainstem or cerebellum

351
Q

How does Sturge-Weber arise?

A

sporadically

352
Q

Which cells are defective during Sturge-Weber Syndrome?

A

neural crest

353
Q

What gene is involved in Sturge-Weber? What type of mutation?

A

GNAQ

activating

354
Q

Would would be seen in the meninges during Sturge-Weber Syndrome? Causing what?

A

leptomeningeal angioma

increased ICP

355
Q

Which disease can present with an Episcleral Hemangioma?

A

Sturge Weber

356
Q

What is increased during Sturge-Weber? What can this lead to?

A

Intraocular pressure

early onset glaucoma

357
Q

Where does Tuberous Sclerosis produce hamartomas?

A

skin and CNS

358
Q

What type of fibroma is seen during Tuberous Sclerosis?

A

Angiofibromas

359
Q

Which two cardiac pathologies can be seen during Tuberous Sclerosis?

A

Mitral regurgitation

Rhabdomyoma

360
Q

Which renal pathology can bee seen during Tuberous Sclerosis?

A

Angiomyolipoma

361
Q

Which brain tumor is pathogonomic for Tuberous Sclerosis?

A

subependymal astrocytoma

362
Q

Why can Tuberous Sclerosis present with ash leaf spots?

A

hypo-pigmentation

363
Q

Neurofibromin is a negative regulator of what oncogene?

A

Ras

364
Q

What are Lisch Nodules?

A

iris hamartomas

365
Q

What type of neoplasm can NF1 produce in the eye?

A

Optic nerve glioma

366
Q

Which of the NF disease can present with pheochromocytoma?

A

NF1

367
Q

Skin tumors in NF1 are derived from which cell type?

A

Neural crest cells

368
Q

Which renal pathology can VHL present with?

A

bilateral renal cell carcinoma

369
Q

Which two types of hemanigio defects can VHL present with?

A

Cavernous hemangioma

Hemangioblastoma

370
Q

In which three locations can VHL produce a hemangioblastoma?

A

retina

brainstem

cerebellum

371
Q

Which adrenal pathology can VHL present with?

A

pheochromocytoma

372
Q

Is HIF constantly on or constantly being degraded during VHL disease?

A

degraded

373
Q

What is the stain for glioblastoma multiforme?

A

GFAP

374
Q

Glioblastoma Multiforme is a malignant proliferation of what cell type?

A

astrocytes

375
Q

“Pseudopalisading” is indicative of what brain cancer?

A

Glioblastome Multiforme

376
Q

What cell type does a meningioma arise from?

A

Arachnoid cell

377
Q

What brain tumor can attach to the dura?

A

meningioma

378
Q

Which brain tumor can present with psammoma bodies?

A

meningioma

379
Q

Which brain tumor can produce EPO?

A

hemangioblastoma

380
Q

Which brain tumor has thin walled capillaries?

A

hemangioblastoma

381
Q

What is the stain for a schwannoma?

A

S100

382
Q

In what lobes are oligodendrogliomas most often located?

A

frontal

383
Q

What is the capillary pattern of oligodendroglioma?

A

chicken-wire

384
Q

Round nuclei with a clear cytoplasm is indicative of what brain tumor?

A

oligodendroglioma

385
Q

Which brain tumor can often be calcified?

A

oligodendroglioma

386
Q

Where is a pilocytic astrocytoma most often found?

A

posterior fossa

387
Q

What is the stain for Pilocytic Astrocytoma?

A

GFAP

388
Q

What tumor has rosenthal fibers? What do they look like?

A

pilocytic astrocytoma

corkscrews

389
Q

Cystic mass with a mural nodule is indicative of what tumor?

A

pilocytic astrocytoma

390
Q

Where in the brain does a medulloblastoma often arise?

A

cerebellum

391
Q

From which cells does a medullablastoma arise?

A

neuroectoderm

392
Q

What tumor can send ‘drop metastasis’?

A

medullablastoma

393
Q

Homer-Wright rosettes are indicative of what tumor?

A

medulloblastoma

394
Q

Where do ependyomas most often arise? What age?

A

4th ventricle

four years old

395
Q

Subfalcine herniation can compress what cerebral artery?

A

anterior cerebral artery

396
Q

Why can a cerebellar tonsil hernia cause death?

A

inhibition of respiration

397
Q

How does epinephrine produce a decrease in aqueous humor synthesis?

A

vasoconstriction

398
Q

What are the two indirect cholinomimetics that decrease aqueous humor synthesis?

A

physostigmine

echothiophate

399
Q

What prostaglandin releives glaucoma? By what mechanism?

A

Latanoprost

increase outflow

400
Q

Which glaucoma drug can darken the iris? What is this drug an analogue of?

A

Latanoprost

PGF-2alpha

401
Q

Which two channels do opioids act on?

A

potassium and calcium

402
Q

Tolerance to which two side effects dont develop during opioid addiction?

A

miosis and constipation

403
Q

What two receptors is butorphanol active what?

A

mu partial agonist

kappa full agonist

404
Q

What is the potential unwanted effect of butorphanol?

A

cant reverse with naloxone

405
Q

What are the three MOAs of tramadol?

A

weak opioid agonist

inhibits reuptake or NE and 5HT

406
Q

What are the two main adverse effects of tramadol?

A

decreases seizure threshold

serotonin syndrome

407
Q

Which two antiepileptics are contraindicated in pregnancy?

A

valproate and carbamazepine

408
Q

What are the four short acting benzos?

A

alprazolam
triazolam
oxazepam
midazolam

409
Q

What are the three non-benzodiazepine hypnotics?

A

Zolpidem

Zaleplon

eszopiclone

410
Q

Which subtype do the non-benzodiazepine hypnotics function?

A

BZ1

411
Q

What do inhaled anesthetics do to cerebral blood flow?

A

increased

412
Q

Which general anesthetic is nephrotoxic?

A

methoxyflurane

413
Q

Which general anesthetic is pro-convulsant?

A

enflurane

414
Q

Malignant hyperthermia is a condition associated with the use of general anesthetics and what other drug?

A

Sucinylcholine

415
Q

What does thiopental do to cerebral blood flow?

A

decrease

416
Q

What is the only anesthetic that doesnt lower BP?

A

ketamine

417
Q

What is the MAO of propofol?

A

potentiates GABA-A

418
Q

Do local anesthetics bind to activated or inactivated sodium channels? Who does this mean?

A

activated

better target rapidly firing neurons

419
Q

Which local anesthetic has cardiotoxicity effects?

A

bupivicaine

420
Q

What is the MOA of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers?

A

Ach competitive antagonists

421
Q

Which two drugs are used to reverse non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers?

A

neostigmine and atropine

422
Q

What are the three dopamine agonists?

A

Bromocriptine

Pramipexole

Ropinirole

423
Q

What are the two COMT inhibitors?

A

Entacapone and Tolcapone

424
Q

Which two features of Parkinsons does Benztropine treat?

A

tremor and rigidity

425
Q

What is the toxicity of L-DOPA?

A

arrhythmias

426
Q

Which NMDA antagonist is used during Parkinsons? To prevent?

A

Memantine

Ca2+ toxicity

427
Q

What are the three AchE Inhibitors used during Parkinsons?

A

Donepezil

Galantamine

Rivastigmine

428
Q

What three drugs are used to treat Huntingtons?

A

Reserpine

Tetrabenazine

Haloperidol

429
Q

Sumatriptan is an agonist at which two receptors?

A

5HT1B and 5HT1D

430
Q

When would sumatriptan be contraindicated?

A

CAD and prinzmetal angina

431
Q

Which CNS cells has a friend egg appearance?

A

oligodendrocyte

432
Q

What structure in the brain controls conjugate gaze?

A

paramedian pontine reticular formation

433
Q

What is the output tract of the cerebellum?

A

superior cerebellar peduncle

434
Q

Does the cerebellum send output to the ipsilateral or contralateral cortex?

A

contralateral

435
Q

What is the only output cell of the cerebellum?

A

purkinje cell

436
Q

Why can morphine cause vasodilation?

A

increased release of histamine

437
Q

What cranial nerve can be affected during an Epidural Hematoma?

A

three

438
Q

What is the most common reason for intraparenchymal hemorrhage?

A

systemic HTN

439
Q

What imaging modality is used for an acute stroke?

A

MRI

440
Q

How does an acute stroke look on MRI?

A

bright

441
Q

What imaging modality is used for an stroke post-12 hours?

A

noncontrast

442
Q

How does a stroke look on noncontrast CT?

A

dark

443
Q

Where does DCML decussate?

A

medula

444
Q

What two structures does the medial lemniscus connect?

A

medulla to VPL

445
Q

What drug is used to treat ALS? MOA?

A

Riluzole

decreases presynaptic glutamate release

446
Q

What is the first physical manifestation of Friedreich Ataxia?

A

Kyphoscoliosis

447
Q

What nerve is the External Laryngeal Nerve a branch of?

A

Superior laryngeal nerve

448
Q

What muscle does the External Laryngeal Nerve supply?

A

cricothyroid

449
Q

Damage to the External Laryngeal Nerve or cricothryoid results in what type of voice?

A

monotone

450
Q

What ganglion does Horner Syndrome use?

A

superior cervical ganglion

451
Q

Which dermatome is a turtle neck?

A

C3

452
Q

Which dermatome is a skullcap?

A

C2

453
Q

Which structure detects muscle length?

A

spindle afferents

454
Q

Which carnail nerve nuclei are located in the spinal cord?

A

accessory

455
Q

What structure sends PANS autonomic fibers to the heart, lungs and upper GI?

A

dorsal motor nuclei

456
Q

Which nerve provides sensory for posterior part of external ear canal?

A

Auricular branch of vagus

457
Q

What is the treatment for facial nerve palsy?

A

corticosteroids

458
Q

Which field of vision is blocked during glaucoma?

A

peripheral

459
Q

How is the superior oblique tested?

A

look down and aDDuct

460
Q

What are the four major causes of ring enhancing lesions?

A

Toxo

GB

Lymphoma

Abscess

461
Q

Which pathway is associated with the positive signs of schizophrenia?

A

mesolimbic

462
Q

Which pathway is associated with the negative signs of schizophrenia?

A

mesocortical

463
Q

What vessel of the brain is responsible for prosopagnosia?

A

non-dominant PCA

464
Q

What nucleus of the thalamus would produce a motor defect?

A

ventro-lateral

465
Q

What are the two inputs to the ventro-lateral nucleus of the thalamus?

A

basal ganglia and cerebellum

466
Q

What is the destination of the ventro-lateral nucleus of the thalamus?

A

motor cortex

467
Q

Which nerve innervates the lacrimal gland? Branch of which cranial nerve?

A

greater petrosal

seven

468
Q

What cell in the brain doesnt stain with Nissl?

A

microglia

469
Q

Which in the brain cell removes excess neurotransmiter?

A

astrocyte

470
Q

Which protein can be stained for identification of presynaptic nerve terminals?

A

Synaptophysin

471
Q

What is the function of GTOs?

A

to inhibit excessive muscle contraction

472
Q

What is the function of intrafusal muscle fibers?

A

stretch reflex

473
Q

Which specific structure is affected during Wilsons disease?

A

Putamen

474
Q

Which hormone induces REM Sleep?

A

acetylcholine

475
Q

Which hormone inhibits REM Sleep?

A

Norepinephrine

476
Q

Which hormone induces sleep?

A

serotonin

477
Q

Which hormone produces arousal and wakefullnes?

A

Dopamine

478
Q

Where does the lateral geniculate nucleus project?

A

calcarine sulcus

479
Q

Which peduncle transmits information into the cerebellum from the cortex? Ipsilateral or contralateral side?

A

middle

contralateral

480
Q

Which peduncle transmits information into the cerebellum from the spinal cord? Ipsilateral or contralateral side?

A

inferior

ipsilateral

481
Q

Which peduncle transmits information into the cortex from the cerebellum? Ipsilateral or contralateral side?

A

superior

contralateral

482
Q

What are the only output cells of the cerebellum? What neurotransmitter?

A

Purkinje

GABA

483
Q

What causes neuronal death in Huntingtons?

A

NMDA toxicity

484
Q

Which two neurotransmitters are decreased in Huntingtons?

A

GABA and Acetylcholine

485
Q

What is apraxia?

A

inability to make purposeful movements

486
Q

What is Aprosodia?

A

inability to understand emotion in speech

487
Q

What is agnosagnosia?

A

inability to recognize oneself

488
Q

What is prosopagnosia?

A

inability to recognize known faces

489
Q

What are the two characteristics of Transcortical Motor Aphasia?

A

Brocas with intact repitition

490
Q

What are the two characteristics of Transcortical Sensory Aphasia?

A

fluent aphasia with intact repitition

491
Q

What is the only thing a person with Mixed Transcortical Speech can do?

A

repeat

492
Q

What two parts of the brain are affected by Cerebral Amyloid Angiopathy?

A

occipital and parietal lobe

493
Q

At what partial pressure does oxygen cause cerebral vasodilation?

A
494
Q

A stroke of which vessel effects the tongue?

A

Anterior spinal

495
Q

Xanthochromia is indicative of what stroke?

A

SUbarachnoid

496
Q

Which sinus contains arachnoid granulations?

A

superior sagittal

497
Q

Which brain tumor can cause an non-communicating hydrocephalus? Which specific structure is affected?

A

Pinealoma

cerebral aqueduct of sylvius

498
Q

What is the MOA of Ketamine?

A

NMDA antagonist

499
Q

Pseudotumor Cerebri can impinge which cranial nerve?

A

six

500
Q

What are the two pharmacological causes of Pseudotumor Cerebri?

A

Vitamin A and danazol

501
Q

Which nerve mediates the afferent and efferent branch of the jaw jerk reflex?

A

V3

502
Q

Microglial nodules in the brain are indicative of what disease?

A

HIV

503
Q

What is Ramsay Hunt Syndrome?

A

facial nerve paralysis in setting of zoster reactivation

504
Q

Does a LMN lesion to cranial nerve seven effect the upper face, lower face or both?

A

both

505
Q

What are Cholesteatomas comoposed of?

A

squamous cell debris

506
Q

What week would Neural Tube Defects present?

A

4th

507
Q

What is the MOA of baclofen?

A

GABA agonist

508
Q

Paraneoplastic Cerebellar Degeneration is seen during which three cancers?

A

breast

ovarian

small cell

509
Q

Which virus can produce a slowly progressive demyelinating syndrome?

A

HTLV1

510
Q

What is an advantage of Butorphanol over morphine?

A

less respiratory depression

511
Q

Decerebrate posturing reflects a lesion to where?

A

pons or below

512
Q

Decorticate posturing reflects a lesion to where?

A

midbrain or above

513
Q

Which three benzos are the preferred for patients with liver disease?

A

Oxazepam

Trazolam

Lorazepam

514
Q

Do almost all INHALEd anesthetics increase or decrease cerebral blood flow?

A

increase

515
Q

In order, what four senses are lost due to local anesthetics?

A

Pain>temperature>touch>pressure

516
Q

What is the toxicity of amantadine?

A

ataxia

517
Q

What is the central COMT Inhibitor?

A

Tolcapone

518
Q

Is dopamine increased or decreased during Huntingtons?

A

increased

519
Q

Does ASA Syndrome produce ipsilateral or contralateral extremity symptoms?

A

contralateral

520
Q

Which papillary muscle has two blood supplies?

A

antero-lateral papillary muscle

521
Q

What stage of sleep does Bruxism occur in?

A

N2

522
Q

Which local anesthetic can cause methemoglobinemia?

A

benzocaine

523
Q

What protein does alpha-synuclein interact with?

A

tubulin

First Aid (21 decks)

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