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First Aid > GI > Flashcards

GI Flashcards

1
Q

What are the borders of the foregut?

A

pharynx to duodenum

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2
Q

What are the borders of the midgut?

A

duodenum to proximal 2/3 of transverse colon

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3
Q

What are the borders of the hindgut?

A

distal 1/3 of transverse colon to anal canal above pectinate line

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4
Q

What is gastroschisis?

A

extrusion of abdominal contents through abdominal folds

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5
Q

Is gastroschisis covered by peritoneum?

A

no

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6
Q

What is an omphalocele?

A

protrusion of abdominal contents through the umbilicus

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7
Q

What does the E of SAD PUCKER stand for?

A

Rectum

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8
Q

Duodenal atresia is a common defect in what disease?

A

Down’s Syndrome

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9
Q

What week does the midgut herniate through the umbilical ring? What week does it return?

A

herniate = 6th week

return = 10th week

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10
Q

What week does the midgut rotate? Around what vessell?

A

rotate = 10th weeks

SMA

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11
Q

Pyloric stenosis manifests at what age?

A

2-6 weeks

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12
Q

What does the V of VACTERL stand for?

A

vertebral defects

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13
Q

What does the C of VACTERL stand for?

A

cardiac defects

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14
Q

What does the T of VACTERL stand for?

A

tracheoesophageal fistula

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15
Q

What does the E of VACTERL stand for?

A

esophageal atresia

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16
Q

What does the R of VACTERL stand for?

A

renal and radial defects

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17
Q

What does the L of VACTERL stand for?

A

limb defects

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18
Q

What part of the gut is the pancreas derived from?

A

foregut

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19
Q

Which bud, ventral or dorsal, forms the uncinate process?

A

ventral

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20
Q

What pancreatic bud is defective during annular pancreas?

A

ventral bud

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21
Q

What does the S of SAD PUCKER stand for?

A

suprarenal glands

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22
Q

What does the A of SAD PUCKER stand for?

A

aorta and IVC

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23
Q

What does the D of SAD PUCKER stand for?

A

2-4th part of duodenum

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24
Q

What does the P of SAD PUCKER stand for?

A

pancreas (except the tail)

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25
Q

What does the U of SAD PUCKER stand for?

A

ureters

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26
Q

What does the C of SAD PUCKER stand for?

A

descending and ascending

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27
Q

What does the K of SAD PUCKER stand for?

A

kidney

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28
Q

What does the K of SAD PUCKER stand for?

A

kidney

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29
Q

What does the E of SAD PUCKER stand for?

A

esophagus

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30
Q

What is the function of the falciform ligament?

A

attach liver to anterior abdominal wall

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31
Q

What is the falciform ligament a remnant of?

A

ligamentum teres hepatis

fetal umbilical vein

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32
Q

What is the falciform ligament a remnant of?

A

ligamentum teres hepatitis

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33
Q

What three structures are contained within the hepatic triad?

A

common bile duct

portal vein

proper hepatic artery

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34
Q

From inside to out, what are the four layers of the stomach?

A
  1. mucosa
  2. submucosa
  3. muscularis mucosa
  4. serosa
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35
Q

What are the two layers of the mucosa?

A

epithelium

lamina propria

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36
Q

In what layer of the GI tract is Meissner’s plexus contained?

A

submucosa

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37
Q

What is the 4th layer of GI tract in the intraperitoneum?

A

serosa

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38
Q

What is the 4th layer of GI tract in the intraperitoneum?

A

serosa

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39
Q

What is the 4th layer of GI tract in the retroperitoneum?

A

adventitia

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40
Q

What part of the GI tract are Brunner’s glands located?

A

Duodenum

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41
Q

What layer of the GI tract are Brunner’s glands located?

A

Submucosa

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42
Q

What do Brunner’s glands secrete?

A

bicarb

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43
Q

What are plicae circulares? Where are the plicae circulares located?

A

circular folds

jejunum

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44
Q

Where in the GI tract features the largest collection of goblet cells?

A

ileum

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45
Q

Where in the GI tract features the largest collection of Crypts of Lieberkuhn?

A

ileum

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46
Q

What arteries does the common hepatic artery branch into?

A

proper hepatic

gastroduodenal

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47
Q

What arteries does the common hepatic artery branch into?

A

proper hepatic

right gastric

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48
Q

What two vessels does a TIPS procedure connect?

A

portal vein to hepatic vein

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49
Q

What is significant about the pectinate line?

A

where endoderm meets ectoderm

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50
Q

What type of hemorrhoids occur above the pectinate line?

A

internal hemorrhoids

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51
Q

What type of cancer occurs above the pectinate line?

A

adenocarcinoma

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52
Q

What is the arterial supply of the rectum superior to the pectinate line?

A

superior rectal artery

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53
Q

What is the venous drainage of the rectum superior to the pectinate line?

A

superior rectal vein

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54
Q

What type of cancer would occur below the pectinate line?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

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55
Q

What is the arterial supply of the rectum below the pectinate line? Branch of?

A

inferior rectal artery

internal pudendal

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56
Q

What is the venous drainage of the rectum below the pectinate line?

A

inferior rectal vein

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57
Q

What are Kupffer cells?

A

macrophages in the liver

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58
Q

What cell in the liver is responsible for liver fibrosis?

A

Stellate cell

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59
Q

What zone of the hepatic lobule is most effected by ingested toxins and viruses?

A

zone 1

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60
Q

What zone of the hepatic lobule is most effected by ischemia?

A

Zone 3

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61
Q

What zone of the hepatic lobule most susceptible to metabolic toxins?

A

three

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62
Q

What zone of the hepatic lobule is the site of alcoholic damage?

A

zone 3

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63
Q

What zone of the hepatic lobule is the site of cytochrome p450?

A

zone 3

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64
Q

Regarding the femur, does NAVEL go from lateral to medial or medial to lateral?

A

lateral to medial

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65
Q

What three structures form the femoral triangle?

A

inguinal ligament

sartorius

adductor longus

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66
Q

What inguinal ring does an indirect hernia penetrate? What muscle layer?

A

deep ring

transversus abdominis

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67
Q

What inguinal ring does an indirect hernia penetrate? What muscle layer?

A

deep ring

transversalis fascia

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68
Q

If a hernia occur medial to the inferior epigastric atery, what type is it?

A

direct

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69
Q

If a hernia occur medial to the inferior epigastric atery, what type is it?

A

direct

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70
Q

If a hernia occur lateral to the inferior epigastric atery, what type is it?

A

indirect

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71
Q

Are femoral hernias more common in males or females?

A

females

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72
Q

What are the borders of hesselbechs triangle?

A

rectus abdominus

inferior epigastric artery

inguinal ligament

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73
Q

What does the I-cell secrete? What are the two locations of the I-cells?

A

CCK

duodenum and jejunum

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74
Q

What does CCK do to pancreatic secretions?

A

increase

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75
Q

What does CCK do to gallbladder contractions?

A

increases contrations

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76
Q

What does CCK do to gastric emptying?

A

decrease

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77
Q

What does CCK do to the Sphincter of Oddi?

A

relax

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78
Q

What two substances trigger the release of CCK?

A

fats and amino acids

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79
Q

What cell release gastrin? Where is this cell found?

A

G-cells

antrum of stomach

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80
Q

What does gastrin do to gastric acid secretion?

A

increase

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81
Q

What does gastrin do to gastric mucosa?

A

increase

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82
Q

What does gastrin do to gastric motility?

A

increase

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83
Q

What two amino acids are potent stimulators of gastrin?

A

Trp and Phe

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84
Q

What cells release glucose-dependent insulinotropic hormone? Where are these cells found?

A

K-cells

duodenum and jejunum

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85
Q

What does GIP due to gastric acid secretion?

A

decrease

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86
Q

What does GIP due to insulin release?

A

increases insulin release

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87
Q

What are the three triggers for the release of GIP?

A

fatty acids

amino acids

oral glucose

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88
Q

Where is motilin released from?

A

small intestine

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89
Q

What is the function of motilin?

A

induce MMCs

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90
Q

When does motilin release most often occur?

A

fasting state

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91
Q

What drug is a motilin receptor agonist?

A

erythromycin

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92
Q

What type of cells release secretin? Where are these cells?

A

S-cells

duodenum

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93
Q

What does secretin do to bicarb secretion?

A

increase

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94
Q

What does secretin do to bile secretion?

A

increase

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95
Q

What does secretin do to gastric acid release?

A

decrease

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96
Q

What type of cells release somatostatin?

A

D-cells

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97
Q

What does somatostatin do to gastric acid secretion?

A

decrease

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98
Q

What does somatostatin do to pepsinogen release?

A

decrease

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99
Q

What does somatostatin due to intestinal fluid release?

A

decrease

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100
Q

What does somatostatin do to gallbladder contraction?

A

decrease

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101
Q

What does somatostatin do to insulin release?

A

decrease

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102
Q

What does somatostatin do to glucagon release?

A

decrease

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103
Q

What increases somatostatin release?

A

acid

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104
Q

What decreases somatostatin release?

A

vagal stimulation

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105
Q

What two neurotransmitter are implicated during achalasia?

A

NO and VIP

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106
Q

What structure releases VIP?

A

parasympathetic ganglia

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107
Q

What does VIP do to intestinal water secretion?

A

increase

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108
Q

What does VIP do to intestinal electrolyte secretion?

A

increase

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109
Q

What does VIP do to intestinal smooth muscle contraction and sphincters?

A

relax

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110
Q

What two factors increase VIP release? What decreases VIP release?

A

distension and vagal tone

adrenergic tone

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111
Q

What is the mnemonic for the symptoms of a VIPoma?

A

WDHA

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112
Q

Regarding a VIPoma, what does the W and D of WDHA stand for?

A

Watery Diarrhea

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113
Q

Regarding a VIPoma, what does the H stand for?

A

Hypokalemia

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114
Q

Regarding a VIPoma, what does the A stand for?

A

achlorhydria

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115
Q

Regarding a VIPoma, what does the A stand for?

A

achlorhydia

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116
Q

What type of cell is pepsinogen released from? What activates pepsinogen into pepsin?

A

chief

H+

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117
Q

Where are Brunners glands located? What do Brunners glands secrete?

A

duodenum

bicarb

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118
Q

What hormone increaes the pancreatic secretin of bicarb?

A

secretin

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119
Q

Atropine will block acid secretion of what cells? The acid secretion of what cells will not be affected?

A

parietal

g-cells

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120
Q

Gastrin release leads to increased acid secretion by what mechanism?

A

stimulation of ECL cells to secrete histamine

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121
Q

What hormone leads to the release of gastrin?

A

gastrin releasing peptide (GRP)

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122
Q

What is the tonicity of pancreatic secretions?

A

isotonic

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123
Q

What ion is low flow pancreatic secretion rich in?

A

chloride

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124
Q

What ion is high flow pancreatic secretion rich in?

A

bicarb

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125
Q

What G-protein will somatostatin activate on gastric parietal cells?

A

Gi

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126
Q

What two 2nd messengers will activate the H+/K+ ATPase?

A

Ca2+ and cAMP

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127
Q

When do Brunner’s glads hypertrophy?

A

duodenal ulcer

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128
Q

What ion is released during low flow pancreatic secretions?

A

chloride

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129
Q

What ion is released during high flow pancreatic secretions?

A

HCO3

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130
Q

What four peptidases are released from the pacreas as zymogens?

A

trypsin, chymotrypsin, elastase and carboxypeptidase

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131
Q

What is the enzyme responsible for activating other zymogens?

A

trypsin

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132
Q

What two monosaccharides are taken up by SGLT1? What ion is this dependent on?

A

glucose and galactose

sodium

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133
Q

What monosaccharide is taken up by GLUT5?

A

fructose

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134
Q

What monosaccharides are taken up by GLUT2?

A

glucose, galactose and fructose

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135
Q

What drug is used to Dx pancreatic insufficiency?

A

D-Xylose

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136
Q

Where in the GI tract is iron absorbed? In what oxidation state?

A

duodenum

Fe2+

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137
Q

Where in the GI tract is folate absorbed?

A

jejunum and ileum

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138
Q

Where in the GI tract is B12 absorbed?

A

terminal ileum

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139
Q

Where in the GI tract are bile salts absorbed?

A

terminal ileum

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140
Q

In what two layers of the GI tract are Peyer’s patches located?

A

Submucosa and lamina propria

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141
Q

In what part of the GI tract are Peyer’s patches located?

A

ileum

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142
Q

What type of specialized cells are contained in Peyer’s patches?

A

M-cells

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143
Q

What is the function of M-cells?

A

sample and present antigens to immune cells in Peyers patches

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144
Q

What three genus of bacteria can attach to M-cells and be transported across the intestinal epithelium?

A

Shigella, Salmonella and Yersinina

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145
Q

What specific virus can use M-cells to be transported across Mcells?

A

CXCR4 HIV

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146
Q

Stimulated plasma cells located in Peyer’s Patches secrete what type of immunoglobulin? What layer do these Plasma cells eventually reside?

A

IgA

lamina propria

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147
Q

What two prosthetic groups are bile acids attached to?

A

glycine and taurine

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148
Q

What enzyme is the RLS of bile salt synthesis?

A

Cholesterol 7α-hydroxylase

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149
Q

What is bilirubin conjugated to?

A

glucoronate

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150
Q

Which form, direct or indirect, of bilirubin is conjugated to glucoronate and is water soluble?

A

direct = conjugated

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151
Q

What protein carries unconjugated bilirubin in the blood stream?

A

albumin

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152
Q

What is the RLS enzyme of bilirubin degradation?

A

UDP-glucoronosyl Transferase

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153
Q

What turns conjugated bilirubin into Urobilinogen?

A

gut bacteria

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154
Q

How is bilirubin secreted into urine? Fecess?

A

urine = urobilin

feces = stercobilin

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155
Q

What gland do most salivary gland tumors present in?

A

parotid

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156
Q

What is the most common benign type of salivary gland tumor?

A

pleomorphic adenoma

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157
Q

What are the two most common components of a pleomorphic adenoma?

A

stromal

epithelial cells

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158
Q

What is the name for a benign cystic tumor of the salivary glands? What is another name for this tumor?

A

Warthin Tumor

Papillary Cystadenoma Lymphomatosum

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159
Q

What structure is contained within a Papillary Cystadenoma Lymphomatosum?

A

germinal centers

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160
Q

What are the two prevalent cell types of a mucoepidermoid adenoma?

A

mucinous and squamous

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161
Q

What plexus is defective in Achalasia?

A

Myenteric / Auerbach

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162
Q

A pt with achalasia has a greater chance of developing what type of cancer?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

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163
Q

What disease may produce achalasia?

A

Chagas

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164
Q

What bug causes Chagas?

A

T. .cruzi

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165
Q

What three organs succumb to Chagas disease?

A

Heart failure

colon

esophagus

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166
Q

What is Boerhaave Synrome? What usually causes Boerhaave Syndrome?

A

Transmural distal Esophageal Rupture

violent retching

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167
Q

What is atopy?

A

predisposition to develop hypersensitive allergic rxns

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168
Q

Esophageal strictures are associated with what two happenings?

A

lye ingestion

alcohol consumption

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169
Q

What causes esophageal varices?

A

portal hypertension

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170
Q

Other than relfux, what is esophagitis associated with?

A

immunocompromised individuals

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171
Q

What three pathogens cause the majority of esophagitis cases?

A

Candida, HSV-1 and CMV

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172
Q

How does Candidia esophagitis present?

A

white film

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173
Q

How does HSV-1 esophagitis present?

A

punched out lesions

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174
Q

How does CMV esophagitis present?

A

linear ulcers

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175
Q

What is Mallory-Weiss Syndrome? What does Mallory-Weiss syndrome lead to?

A

gastro-esophageal syndrome

hematemesis

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176
Q

What two types of pt’s present with Mallory-Weiss Syndrome?

A

alcoholics and bulimics

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177
Q

What does the C of CREST stand for?

A

calcinosis

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178
Q

What does the R of CREST stand for?

A

raynauds

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179
Q

What does the E of CREST stand for?

A

Esophageal dysmotility

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180
Q

What does the S of CREST stand for?

A

sclerodactyly

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181
Q

What does the T of CREST stand for?

A

telangiectasia

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182
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Sclerodermal Esophageal Dysmotility?

A

esophageal smooth muscle atrophy

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183
Q

What is the metaplasia that takes place during Barrett’s Esophagus?

A

NKSS to non-ciliated epithelium with goblet cells

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184
Q

What type of cancer can Barrett’s esophagus give rise to?

A

Adenocarcinoma

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185
Q

What are the two histologies of esophageal cancer?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

adenocarcinoma

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186
Q

What part of the esophagus does squamous cells carcinoma likely to develop?

A

upper 2/3

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187
Q

What part of the esophagus does adenocarcinoma likely to develop?

A

lower 1/3

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188
Q

What is the mnemonic to remember the causes of esophageal cancer?

A

AABCDEFFGH

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189
Q

What do the A’s of AABCDEFFGH stand for?

A

achalasia and alcohol

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190
Q

What type of esophageal cancer does alcohol predispose to?

A

squamous

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191
Q

What does the B of AABCDEFFGH stand for? What type of cancer does this predispose a pt to develop?

A

Barrett’s

adeno

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192
Q

What does the C of AABCDEFFGH stand for? What type of cancer does this predispose a pt to develop?

A

cigarettes

both

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193
Q

What does the D of AABCDEFFGH stand for? What type of cancer does this predispose a pt to develop?

A

Diverticula (Zenker)

squamous

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194
Q

What is a Zenkers Diverticulum? True or false?

A

Pharyngo-Esophageal

false

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195
Q

What does the E of AABCDEFFGH stand for? What type of cancer does this predispose a pt to develop?

A

esophageal web

squamous

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196
Q

Where in the esophagus do esophageal webs develop?

A

upper esophagus

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197
Q

What layers of the esophagus are effected by esophageal webs?

A

mucosa and submucosa

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198
Q

What are esophageal webs associated with?

A

chronic iron deficient anemia

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199
Q

What do the F’s of AABCDEFFGH stand for?

A

fat and familial

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200
Q

Obesity is associated with what type of esophageal neoplasia?

A

adeno

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201
Q

What does the G of AABCDEFFGH stand for? What type of cancer does this predispose a pt to develop?

A

GERD

adeno

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202
Q

What does the H of AABCDEFFGH stand for? What type of cancer does this predispose a pt to develop?

A

Hot liquids

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203
Q

What is acute gastritis?

A

disruption of mucosal layer of stomach

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204
Q

What causes a Curling’s ulcer? What happens? Why?

A

Burns

decreased plasma volume

sloughing of gastric mucosa

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205
Q

Where is the GI tract do Curling’s Ulcers arise?

A

duodenum

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206
Q

What causes a Cushing’s Ulcer? Why? What is produced?

A

elevated intracranial pressure

too much vagal tone

excessive acid

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207
Q

What is Type A Chronic Gastritis caused by? What is Type B Chronic Gastritis caused by?

A

A = autoimmune

B = H. pylori

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208
Q

Where do Type A chronic gastritis ulcers occur?

A

fundus/body

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209
Q

Where do Type B chronic gastritis ulcers occur?

A

antrum

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210
Q

Where in the stomach does H. pylori adhere itself? What two types of cancer can H. pylori cause?

A

antrum

gastric adenocarcinoma and MALT lymphoma

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211
Q

What macromolecule is lost during Menetrier disease?

A

protein

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212
Q

What cell atrophies during Menetrier disease?

A

parietal cell

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213
Q

What cells undergoes hyperplasia during Menetrier disease?

A

mucus cell

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214
Q

Menetrier disease is associated with excess of what cytokine?

A

TGF-β

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215
Q

Stomach cancer is almost always what type of cancer?

A

adenocarcinoma

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216
Q

What are the two common locations of stomach cancer metastasis?

A

nodes and liver

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217
Q

What dermatological condition can arise during stomach cancer?

A

acanthosis nigricans

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218
Q

What group of nodes are most likely to present with a metastasis during stomach cancer?

A

Virchow

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219
Q

What type of dietary carcinogen is associated with gastric cancer?

A

nitrosamines

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220
Q

Is stomach cancer more commonly on the greater curvature or lesser curvature?

A

lesser

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221
Q

What is a Krukenberg tumor? What type of cells are found in this tumor?

A

bilateral metastasis to ovary

signet ring cell

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222
Q

What is a Sister Mary Joseph nodule?

A

periumbilical metastasis

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223
Q

What type of cell is present in a Krukenburg Tumor?

A

signet ring cell

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224
Q

Which H2R is a potent inhibitor of Cyp p450?

A

Cimetidine

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225
Q

Which two H2R blockers decrease creatinine release?

A

cimetidine and rinatidine

226
Q

The use of PPI’s increase the risk of what type of infection?

A

C. difficile

227
Q

Long term PPI use can cause a decrease in what metal ion?

A

magnesium

228
Q

Which H2R is a potent inhibitor of Cyp p450?

A

Cimetidine

229
Q

What drug is used to maintain a PDA?

A

misoprostol

230
Q

What osmotic laxative can be used to treat hepatic encephalopathy? Why?

A

lactulose

acetic acid and lactic acid bind to NH4 and promote their excretion

231
Q

Which type of ulcer improves with meals?

A

duodenal

232
Q

Which type of cancer worsens with meals?

A

gastric

233
Q

H. pylori infection is almost always associated with what type of ulcer?

A

Duodenal

234
Q

Would Zolliner-Ellison cause a gastric or duodenal ulcer?

A

duodenal

235
Q

Which types of ulcers are almost always benign?

A

duodenal

236
Q

What cell hypertrophies with a Duodenal ulcer?

A

Brunner

237
Q

How is Tropical Sprue Treated?

A

antibiotics

folate

238
Q

What type of macrophages are seen in Whipple Disease?

A

foamy

239
Q

How does WHipple Disease stain? What layer?

A

PAS positive

lamina propria

240
Q

What is the triad of symptoms in Whipple Disease? What is the mneminoc to remember the symtpoms?

A

Cardiac/Arthralgia/Neurology

CAN

241
Q

What two haplotypes are seen in celiac sprue?

A

DQ2 and DQ8

242
Q

Antibodies against what three antigens are found in Celiac Sprue?

A

endomysium

gliadin

tissue transglutaminase

243
Q

What type of immune cell is present during celiac disease? What specific lamina propria in the GI tract?

A

lymphocyte

lamina propria

244
Q

Serum levels of what protein are used to diagnose celiac disease?

A

tissue transglutaminase

245
Q

Dermatitis herpetiformis is associated with what other disease?

A

Celiac

246
Q

What structure is affected during Dermatitis herpetiformis?

A

Dermal papillae

247
Q

What antibody deposits during Dermatitis Herpetiforms?

A

IgA

248
Q

What cancer can celiac disease increase the chance of developing?

A

T-cell lymphoma

249
Q

Lactose Intolerance can be diagnosed if the glucose levels rise below what level after a meal?

A

20 mg/dL

250
Q

What part of the GI tract is least likely to be affected during Crohns?

A

rectum

251
Q

Which form of IBS presents with pseudopolyps?

A

UC

252
Q

What two immune structures are found during Crohns?

A

lymphoid aggregrates

non-caseating granulomas

253
Q

What immune structure are found during UC? Wich immune cells?

A

Crypt abscesses

neutrophils

254
Q

Which form of IBS can present with sclerosing cholangitis?

A

UC

255
Q

Which form of IBS can present with toxic megacolon?

A

UC

256
Q

Which form of IBS could present with bloody stool?

A

UC

257
Q

Which GI disease presents with pain that improves with defecation?

A

IBS

258
Q

What is the cause of appendicitis in adults? Kids?

A

Adults = fecalith

kids = lymphoid hyperplasia

259
Q

What is the most common location for a colonic diverticula?

A

sigmoid

260
Q

Diverticulosis is associated with which type of diet?

A

diet low in fiber

261
Q

Where does a Zenker diverticulum often arise?

A

Pharyngo-esophageal junction

262
Q

Are Zenker’s true or false diverticula?

A

false

263
Q

What is the pathological anatomy behind a Meckel’s diverticulum?

A

persistence of Vitelline/omphalomesenteric duct

264
Q

What two types of tissues can be found in a Meckels Diverticulum?

A

gastric mucosal or pancreatic

265
Q

Is Meckels Diverticulum a true or false diverticulum?

A

true

266
Q

What stain is used to diagnose a Meckel’s Diverticulum? What type of tissue does this stain identify?

A

Pertechnetate

gastric tissue

267
Q

Where is itussusception most commonly found?

A

ileo-cecal junction

268
Q

What disease most often presents with a ‘Currant Jelly’ stool?

A

Intussusception

269
Q

What type of volvulus is most common in the elderly?

A

sigmoid

270
Q

What is the most common area for a volvulus in a child or infant?

A

midgut

271
Q

Hirschsprung Disease is associated with what gene?

A

RET

272
Q

Hirschsprung Disease is most common in patients with what other type of disease?

A

Down’s Syndrome

273
Q

What three locations is angiodysplasia most often found?

A

ileum, cecum and ascending colon

274
Q

Is angiodyaplasia more common in elderly or young patients?

A

elderly

275
Q

Duodenal atresia is associated with what other disease?

A

Down Syndrome

276
Q

How does duodenal atresia present on X-ray?

A

double bubble

277
Q

What is the most common location for Ischemic Colitis? Why?

A

splenic flexure

watershed of SMA

278
Q

How does ischemic colitis often present?

A

pain after eating

279
Q

A meconium ileus is common in patients with what disease?

A

cystic fibrosis

280
Q

What patient group has the largest chance of necrotizing enterocolitis?

A

premature infants

281
Q

What part of the GI tract is most commonly effected during necrotizing enterocolitis?

A

colon

282
Q

What layer of the GI tract is most effected by necrotizing enterocolitis?

A

mucosa

283
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for Peutz Jeghers?

A

Autosomal Dominant

284
Q

What chromosome is APC located on?

A

5q

285
Q

Other than FAP, what two cancers can arise in Gardner Syndrome?

A

osteoma

fibromatosis

286
Q

Other than FAP, what cancer can arise in Turcot Syndrome?

A

brain tumors

287
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for HNPCC?

A

autosomal dominant

288
Q

What part of the GI tract is HNPCC always involved in?

A

proximal colon

289
Q

What is the most common site for colorectal carcinoma to arise?

A

recto-sigmoid

290
Q

How does right sided colorectal carcinoma present?

A

iron deficiency anemia

291
Q

What bacteria, though rare, would be suggestive of colorectal carcinoma?

A

Strep. bovis

292
Q

What is the sign of a colorectal carcinoma on a barium enema?

A

Apple core

293
Q

Microsatellites are indicative of mutation in what genes?

A

DNA mismatch repair

294
Q

In order,loss of what three genes are implicated in colorectal carcinoma?

A

APC, K-ras and p53

295
Q

What three disease would present with elevated ALP?

A

biliary obstruction

hepatocellular carcinoma

bone disease

296
Q

During viral hepatitis which is more elevetaed, AST or ALT?

A

ALT

297
Q

During alcoholic hepatitis which is more elevated, AST or ALT?

A

AST

298
Q

What two disease can present with increased serum amylase?

A

acute pancreatitis and mumps

299
Q

Is Ceruloplasmin increased or decreased during Wilsons disease?

A

decreased

300
Q

What serum marker is the most specific for acute pancreatitis?

A

serum amylase

301
Q

What is the diagnostic value of GGT and ALP?

A

GGT is not elevated in bone disease

302
Q

What two organs does Reye Syndrome primarily effect?

A

Hepatoencephalopathy

303
Q

What two viruses are most commonly involved in Reye SYndrome?

A

VZV and influenza B

304
Q

What organelle is abnormal during Reye Disease?

A

mitochondria

305
Q

What immune cell invades during alcoholic hepatitis?

A

neutrophil

306
Q

What are Mallory Bodies composed of?

A

cytokeratin

307
Q

What liver enzyme is increased during alcoholic hepatitis? To what ratio?

A

AST

1.5x

308
Q

Where does alcoholic cirrhosis occur in the hepatic lobule?

A

central vein

309
Q

What is the pattern of liver enzyme levels in non-alcoholic fatty liver disease?

A

ALT > AST

310
Q

What drug is used to remove ammonium from the circulation?

A

lactulose

311
Q

Which antibiotic is used to treat hyperammonemia?

A

Rifaximin

312
Q

Hepatitis B and C can give rise to what liver cancer?

A

HCC

313
Q

Wilsons disease can cause what type of cancer to develop?

A

HCC

314
Q

Hematochromatosis can cause what type of cancer to develop?

A

HCC

315
Q

α1 anti-trypsin deficiency can give rise to what cancer?

A

HCC

316
Q

What type of cancer can Aflatoxins give rise to?

A

HCC

317
Q

What is the diagnostic marker for HCC?

A

α-fetoprotein

318
Q

What two compounds can give rise to angiosarcoma?

A

arsenic and vinyl chloride

319
Q

What two conditions can give rise to Nutmeg liver?

A

right-sided heart failure

Budd-Chiari Syndrome

320
Q

What stain can be used for α1 anti-trypsin deficiency?

A

PAS

321
Q

What type of emphysema would α1 anti-trypsin deficiency present with?

A

panacinar

322
Q

What enzyme is defective during Crigler-Najjar Syndrome?

A

UDP glucoronosyltransferase

323
Q

What enzyme is deficient during Crigler-Najjar and Gilbert Syndrome?

A

UDP-glucoronosyltransferase

324
Q

In what disease is UDP-glucoronosyltransferase absent? What does this lead to an elevation of?

A

Crigler-Najjar

highly elevated unconjugated bilirubin

325
Q

In what disease is UDP-glucoronosyltransferase reduced? What does this lead to an elevation of?

A

Gilbert

mildly elevated unconjugated bilirubin

326
Q

What form of bilirubin accumulates during Dubin Johnson Syndrome?

A

conjugated bilirubin

327
Q

What enzyme may be deficient during neonatal jaundice?

A

UDP-glucoronosyltransferase

328
Q

What drug can be used to treat Cirggler-Najjar Syndrome? Why? Which type?

A

phenobarbital increases hepatic enzyme synthesis

Type II

329
Q

What disease can produce a black liver?

A

Dubin-Johnson

330
Q

What is the problem in Dubin-Johnson Syndrome?

A

defective excretion of conjugated bilirubin

331
Q

What is the problem in Gilbert Syndrome?

A

bilirubin uptake

332
Q

What is the problem in Crigler-Najjar?

A

bilirubin conjugation

333
Q

Where in the eye does copper accumulate during Wilsons disease?

A

cornea

334
Q

Where in the eye does copper accumulate during Wilsons disease?

A

Basal ganglia

335
Q

What two drugs are used to treat Wilsons disease?

A

Penicillamine

trientine

336
Q

What type of movement can Wilsons disease produce?

A

Asterixis

337
Q

What blood disorder can wilsons disease produce?

A

hemolytic anemia

338
Q

What are the three D’s of Wilsons disease?

A

dysarthria/dyskinesia/dementia

339
Q

What is the triad of hemochromatosis?

A

micronodular cirrhosis

diabetes mellitus

skin pigmentation

340
Q

What organ can fail during hemochromatosis?

A

heart failure

341
Q

What can atrophy during Hemochromatosis?

A

testicular atrophy

342
Q

What haplotype is hemochromatosis associated with?

A

HLA-A3

343
Q

What two drugs is hemochromatosis treated with?

A

deferasirox

deferoxamine

344
Q

What are the two appearances of primary sclerosing choangitis ?

A

onion skin

beaded

345
Q

What two types of immune cells are present during Primary Biliary Cirrhosis?

A

lymphocytic infiltrate

granulomas

346
Q

What is the cause of Secondary biliary Cirrhosis?

A

extrahepatic biliary cirrhosis

347
Q

What are the five classical presentations for Biliary tract disease?

A

pruritis

pale stool

jaundice

splenomegaly

dark urine

348
Q

What is secondary biliary cirrhosis complicated by?

A

ascending cholangitis

349
Q

What specific bile duct obstruction presents with an auto-antibody? What is the antibody against? What angiten?

A

Primary Biliary Sclerosis

anti-Mitochondrial

PDC-E2

350
Q

What other type of disease is primary biliary cirrhosis associated with?

A

autoimmune disease

351
Q

What bile tract disease can present with hypergammaglobulinemia? Which immunoglobulin?

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

IgM

352
Q

What disease is associated with the four F’s? What are the four F’s?

A

cholelithiasis

fat/forty/female/fertile

353
Q

Which cholesterol stones are radio-opaque?

A

bilirubin

354
Q

Which cholesterol stones are radio-lucent?

A

cholesterol

355
Q

Which type of gall stones would Crohns disease likely present with?

A

cholesterol

356
Q

Which type of gall stones would cystic fibrosis likely present with?

A

cholesterol

357
Q

Which type of gall stones would clofibrate therapy likely present with?

A

cholesterol

358
Q

Which type of gall stones would females likely present with?

A

cholesterol

359
Q

Cholesterol gallstones can be present in what ethnic group?

A

Native Americans

360
Q

Which type of gall stones would alcoholic cirrhosis likely present with?

A

bilirubin

361
Q

Which type of gall stones would biliary obstruction likely present with?

A

bilirubin

362
Q

What is biliary colic?

A

gall stone obstructing cystic duct

363
Q

What is hormonal signal for gallbladder contraction?

A

CCK

364
Q

How is duodenal colic diagnosed?

A

air in biliary tree

365
Q

What is the most common cause of cholecystisis ?

A

cholelithiasis

366
Q

What lab is order to Dx cholecystitis?

A

ALP

367
Q

What are the three labs for Secondary Biliary Cirrhosis?

A

↑ ALP

↑ cholesterol

↑ UNconjugated bilirubin

368
Q

What is the main cause of porcelain gall bladder?

A

chronic cholecystitis

369
Q

What is the Tx for porcelain gallbladder?

A

cholecystectomy

370
Q

What is the reason behind treating porcelain gallbladder by removal?

A

to avoid carcinoma

371
Q

What is the mnemonic to remember Acute Pancreatitis?

A

GET SMASHHED

372
Q

What is the G of GET SMASHED?

A

gall stones

373
Q

What are the two E’s of GET SMASHED?

A

ethanol

endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography

374
Q

What is the T of GET SMASHED?

A

trauma

375
Q

What is the S of GET SMASHED?

A

steroids

376
Q

What are the H’s of GET SMASHED?

A

hypertriglyceridemia (> 1,000)

Hypercalcemia

377
Q

What is the D of GET SMASHED?

A

drugs (sulfa)

378
Q

Where does acute pancreatitis radiate?

A

back

379
Q

What are the two labs for acute pancreatitis? Which is more specific?

A

Amylase and lipase

lipase = more specific

380
Q

What two potentially fatal diseases can acute pancreatitis lead to?

A

ARDS and DIC

381
Q

What ion disturbance can acute pancreatitis produce?

A

hypocalcemia

fat necrosis of peri-pancreatic fat requires Ca2+

382
Q

What can rupture during Acute Pancreatitis?

A

pseudocyst

383
Q

What happens to the pancreas during Chronic Pancreatitis?

A

calcification

384
Q

What type of cancer can Chronic Pancreatitis lead to?

A

adenocarcinoma

385
Q

What is the difference in labs between acute and chronic pancreatitis

A

amylase and lipase may not be elevated during chronic pancreatitis

386
Q

What can Chronic Pancreatitis lead to?

A

pancreatic enzyme deficiency

387
Q

Where is the most common location for a pancreatic adenocarcinoma?

A

head

388
Q

What are the two markers for pancreatic adenocarcinoma? Which is more specific?

A

CA 19-9 and CEA

CA 19-9 = more specific

389
Q

What are the two major risk lifestyle risk-factors for pancreatic adenocarcinoma?

A

tobacco

diabetes

390
Q

What two ethnicities present with pancreatic adenocarcinoma the most often?

A

Jewish and AA males

391
Q

What finding on physical exam may suggest pancreatic adenocarcinoma?

A

migratory thrombophlebitis

392
Q

Would the gallbladder be palpable or non-palpable during pancreatic adenocarcinoma?

A

non-palpable

393
Q

Is H2 blockade by -dine reversible or irreversible?

A

reversible

394
Q

PPIs increase the risk of infection from what organism?

A

C. difficile

395
Q

What ion can PPIs deplete?

A

magnesium

396
Q

What are the four uses of octreotide?

A

variceal bleeds, acromegaly, VIPoma, Steatorrhea

397
Q

When is misoprostol contraindicated? Why?

A

pregnancy

can induce uterine contractions

398
Q

Which antacid can cause constipation?

A

aluminum hydroxide

399
Q

Which antacid can cause hypophosphatemia?

A

aluminum hydroxide

400
Q

What drug can calcium carbonate deplete?

A

tetracyclines

401
Q

Which antacid can cause diarrhea?

A

magnesium hydroxide

402
Q

What is inflixamab an antibody against?

A

TNF

403
Q

Which four diseases can be treated by inflixamab?

A

IBS, Rheumatoid, Ankylosing spondylitis, psoriasis

404
Q

What bug could inflixamab cause reactivation of?

A

latent TB

405
Q

What two drugs compose sulfasalazine?

A

Sulfapyridine

5-aminosalicyclic acid

406
Q

What part of the GI tract does metoclopramide not effect?

A

colon

407
Q

What drug is metoclopramide known to interact with?

A

digoxin

408
Q

In what two situations would metoclopramide be contraindicated?

A

Parkinsons

bowel obstruction

409
Q

The ventral bud contributes to what two parts of the pancreas?

A

head and duct

410
Q

What part of the pancreas would annular pancreas encircle?

A

2nd

411
Q

What is pancreas divisum? When would pancreas divisum happen?

A

ventral and dorsal dont fuse

8th week

412
Q

What layer of embryological origin iis the spleen?

A

mesodermal

413
Q

Which zone of the hepatic lobule is effected by yellow fever?

A

2nd zone

414
Q

At what vertebral level is the bifurcation of the aorta?

A

L4

415
Q

What is Cullens Sign?

A

bruising around periumbilical area

416
Q

What is Cullens sign indicative of?

A

Acute pancreatitis

417
Q

What drug is used to treat a variceal bleed?

A

octreotide

418
Q

Do anal fissures arise from anterior or posterior to the anus?

A

posterior

419
Q

Veous near the???

A

penis

420
Q

An indirect hernia in males can be attributed to the failure of what structure to close? What can this lead to in infants?

A

processus vaginalis

hydrocele

421
Q

What inguinal ring do indirect hernias pass through?

A

internal inguinal ring

422
Q

What inguinal ring do direct hernias pass through?

A

external

423
Q

Is an oral glucose load or IV glucose load used quicker? Why?

A

oral

GIP

424
Q

What enzyme activates Trypsin?

A

enteropeptidase

425
Q

Where is enteropeptidse located?

A

brush border of duodenum/jejunum

426
Q

What is the MOA of Rifaximin?

A

inhibits bacterial RNA polymerase

427
Q

What two receptors can metoclopramide block in the CTZ?

A

5HT3 and D2

428
Q

What is the main cause of eosinophilic esophagitis?

A

allergies

429
Q

What does candida esophagitis look like?

A

pseudomembrane

430
Q

What does HSV-1 esophagitis look like?

A

punched out lesions

431
Q

What does CMV esophagitis look like?

A

linear ulcers

432
Q

What is the C of CREST?

A

calcinosis

433
Q

What is the R of CREST?

A

Reynauds syndrome

434
Q

What is the E of CREST?

A

esophageal dysmotility

435
Q

What is the S of CREST?

A

Sclerodactyly

436
Q

What is the T of CREST?

A

Telangiectasia

437
Q

Are Signet Ring cells found in intestinal or diffuse gastric cancer?

A

diffuse

438
Q

A peptic ulcer that ruptures the posterior wall of the duodenum carries a greater risk of causing what vessell to rupture?

A

Gastroduodenal

439
Q

When is erythromycin used to promote motility?

A

when gastroparesis doesnt respond to metoclopramide

440
Q

What is the triad of whipple disease?

A

cardiac abnormalities

arthralgia

neurological issues

441
Q

What are the anti-Spasmotics for IBS?

A

hyoscamine and dicyclomine

442
Q

What is the most common electrolyte disturbance during IBS?

A

hypomagnesium

443
Q

What enzyme activates Trypsin?

A

enterokinase

444
Q

What is the radiological sign for volvolus in an elderly patient?

A

coffee-bean sign

445
Q

What ion abnormality is ileus associated with?

A

hypokalemia

446
Q

What two GI drugs are known to impair creatinine clearance?

A

cimetidine and rinatidine

447
Q

What process in inhibited during Reye Syndrome?

A

β-oxidation

448
Q

Is an angiosarcoma benign or malignant? Angiosarcoma is a cancer of what cell type?

A

malignant

Endothelial

449
Q

Which liver cancer is associated with Budd Chiari Syndrome?

A

HCC

450
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for α1-anti-trypsin deficiency?

A

co-dominant

451
Q

What is the landmark to separate the upper GI tract from the lower GI tract?

A

Ligament of Treitz

452
Q

What are the two iron chelators used in hematochromatosis?

A

Deferasirox

Deferoxamine

453
Q

Which monoclonal antibody can be used to treat Menetriers disease?

A

cetuximab

454
Q

What is Ogilvie’s Syndrome?

A

Acute dilation of the RIGHT colon in absence of obstruction

455
Q

What two amino acids substitutions can be present during hemochromatosis?

A

C282Y

H63D

456
Q

Which virus can cause cholecystitis?

A

CMV

457
Q

What is the most common location of a carcinoid tumor?

A

ileo-cecal junction

458
Q

What type of tissue lines a pancreatic pseudocyst?

A

granulation tissue

459
Q

Rhabdomyolysis can be caused by what drug?

A

fibrates

460
Q

Other than being a p450 inhibitor, what two other deleterious effects can cimetidine produce?

A

anti-andronergic

can cross BBB

461
Q

What causes Type A Chronic Gastritis?

A

autoimmune

462
Q

What causes Type B Chronic Gastritis?

A

H. pylori

463
Q

In type A gastritis, what are autoantibodies produced against?

A

parietal cells

intrinsic factor

464
Q

What cell hypertrophies during Type A gastritis?

A

G-cells

465
Q

What are the two primary gastric causes of peptic ulcer disease?

A

decreased bicarb secretion

increased acid secretion

466
Q

What form of gastritis has the greatest chance to transform into carcinoma?

A

Type B

467
Q

What is the diarrhea and constipation cycle of Diverticulitis?

A

diarrhea followed by constipation

468
Q

What makes the livers endothelial cells unique?

A

liver endothelial cells dont possess basement membrane

469
Q

What two fish is scombroid toxin found in?

A

tuna and mackerel

470
Q

What molecule does scombroid most closely act like?

A

histamine

471
Q

What anterior abdominal fold is disrupted during omphalocele or gastroschisis?

A

lateral fold

472
Q

Which anterior abdomnial wall fold is disrupted during bladder exstrophy?

A

caudal

473
Q

What is the most common TEF?

A

proximal Esophagus atresia

distal esophageal/tracheal fistula

474
Q

What is the most serous salivary gland? What is the most mucinous gland?

A

serous = parotid

mucinous = sublingual

475
Q

What is the most common cause of liver failure in US? Asia?

A

US = acetominophen

ASIA = HEV or HAV

476
Q

Through what type of mechanism is chloride reabsorbed?

A

paracellular

477
Q

What type of drug is glycopyrollate?

A

anti-muscarinic

478
Q

What is the difference between glycopyrollate and atropine?

A

atropine crosses BBB

479
Q

What is the problem during jejunal atresia?

A

jejunum fails to vascularize

480
Q

Is saliva hypotonic or hypertonic to the blood?

A

hypotonic

481
Q

What structure is obstructed during Superior Mesenteric Syndrome? What is this structure trapped between?

A

duodenum

SMA and aorta

482
Q

What is the difference between PPIs and H2Rs in therms of their effects on gastric emptying?

A

H2Rs do not effect gastric emptying like PPIs do

483
Q

What cell releases inflammatory cytokines tat are picked up by the stellate cells?

A

Kupffer

484
Q

What type of cell are stellate cells?

A

pericytes

485
Q

What is it called if pain radiates to the back from acute pancreatitis?

A

Boas sign

486
Q

What is the RLS of heme metabolism?

A

excretion of conjugated bilirubin

487
Q

What are the GI pacemaker cells?

A

interstitial cells of Cajal

488
Q

Where are Paneth cells located? What is the function of paneth cells?

A

small intestine

anti-microbial

489
Q

Where is the most common location for a VIPoma?

A

tail of pancreas

490
Q

Bombesin stimulates the release of what in the stomach?

A

gastrin

491
Q

What is the alkaline tide?

A

secreting bicarb into blood when secreting protons into stomach

492
Q

What is the tonicity of pancreatic secretions?

A

isotonic

493
Q

What two proteins does APC sequester?

A

WNT and β-catenin

494
Q

Which two genes are involved with Microsatellite Instability?

A

MLH1 and MSH2

495
Q

What cell in the small intestine would likely secrete lysozyme?

A

Paneth cells

496
Q

What type of dysphagia does achalasia present with?

A

progressive

497
Q

Would esophageal carcinoma have dysphagia for solids, liquids or both?

A

only solids

498
Q

What is tenesmus?

A

feeling one has to defecate with empty rectal vault

499
Q

Which form of esophageal cancer is more common worldwide?

A

squamous

500
Q

Which form of esophageal cancer is more common in the US?

A

adeno

501
Q

What drug can be used to treat Menetrier’s Disease?

A

Cetuximab

502
Q

What type of cancer can Celiac Disease lead to?

A

T-cell lymphoma

503
Q

How would abetalipoproteinemia present? What age group?

A

child

ataxia and night blindness

504
Q

How is D-xylose normally eliminated?

A

urine

505
Q

Which two conditions can cause an abnormal excretion in D-xylose?

A

intestinal mucosal damage

bacterial overgrowth

506
Q

What are the two antispasmodics for IBS?

A

Hyoscyamine and dicyclomine

507
Q

Which electrolyte disturbance is most common during PPI therapy?

A

hypomagnesia

508
Q

Which form of IBS is more likely to present with Colorectal Carcinoma?

A

UC

509
Q

What two molecules is cholesterol converted into?

A

cholic acid

chendeoxycholic acid

510
Q

What three diseases are likely to produce a diverticulitis?

A

ED

Marfan

ADPKD

511
Q

What lab should be performed in diverticulitis?

A

leukocytosis

512
Q

What two GI diseases can cause a fistula formation with the bladder?

A

Crohns and Diverticulitis

513
Q

What two muscles ae involved in a Zenker diverticulim?

A

cricopharyngeal and thyropharngeal

514
Q

What is the most common reason for intussusception in an adult?

A

tumor or obstruction

515
Q

What is the most common reason for intussusception in children?

A

lymphoid hyperplasia

516
Q

A radiologic coffee bean sign is indicative of what disease?

A

volvulus

517
Q

What is he most common cause of a small bowel obstruction?

A

adhesions after surgery

518
Q

What drug is used in pt’s for intubation with renal failure?

A

rucuronium

519
Q

What junction are most GI polyps found?

A

recto-sigmoid

520
Q

What is the most common site for juvenile polyposis?

A

rectum

521
Q

What is the most common component of Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome?

A

smooth muscle

522
Q

What gene is defective in Peutz Jeghers?

A

STK11

523
Q

What are the two changes seen during CCl4 ingestion?

A

centrolobular necrosis

fatty change

524
Q

Other than osteomas and fibromas, what would be visible on a patient with Gardner Syndrome?

A

Retinal Epithelium Hyperpigmentation

525
Q

What is the mnemonic to remember the locations where Peutz-Jeghers can produce neoplasms?

A

CUP BLOT

526
Q

What is the T of CUP BLOT?

A

testicular

527
Q

What is the mnemonic to remember the order of k-Ras/APC/p53 mutations in colorectal cancer?

A

AK53

528
Q

What hormone cant be processed during liver failure?

A

estrogen

529
Q

What can hyper-estrogenism in males lead to?

A

gynocomastia

spider angioma

testicular atrophy

palmar erythema

530
Q

What metabolite is abnormal during Reye Syndrome?

A

hypoglycemia

531
Q

In what cell is vitamin A stored in the liver?

A

Stellate

532
Q

What five cancers like to metastisize to the liver?

A

Colorectal, Stomach, Panceas, Breast, Lung

533
Q

What are the three most common locations for a cavernous hemangioma?

A

Brain/Liver/Orbit

534
Q

What are the two most common causes of a hepatic adenoma?

A

OCPs and anabolic steroids

535
Q

Would Budd-Chiari Syndrome present with JVD?

A

no

536
Q

What gene is defective during α1 anti-trypsin deficiency? What chromosome?

A

SERPIN1

chromosome 14

537
Q

What is the main cause for the increase in unconjugated and conjugated bilirubin?

A

hepatitis

538
Q

Would a biliary tract disease produce an increase in conjugated or unconjugated bilirubin?

A

conjugated

539
Q

What β2 agonist is used in the treatment of asthma?

A

salmeterol

540
Q

What two conditions can lead to jaundice during Gilbert Syndrome?

A

stress and fasting

541
Q

What are the two treatments for Criggler-Najjar?

A

fasting and plasmapharesis

542
Q

What three drugs are used in the Tx of Wilsons disease?

A

D-penicillamine

zinc acetate

trientine

543
Q

What gene is defective during Wilsons disease?

A

ATP7B

544
Q

What chromosome is ATP7B located on?

A

13

545
Q

Other than hyoscamine or dicyclomine, what drug can be used to treat bowel spasms? What is the MOA of this drug ?

A

propantheline

AchR antagonist

546
Q

What haplotype is associated with Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis?

A

HLA-DR52A

547
Q

What is primary sclerosing cholangitis?

A

inflammation and fibrosis of INTRA and EXTRA hepatic bile ducts

548
Q

What makes primary biliary sclerosis unique?

A

portal HTN occurs before the cirrhosis

549
Q

Which biliary tract disease cad lead to cholangiocarcinoma?

A

Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis

550
Q

Which zone of the liver is cholesterol synthesized in?

A

Zone 1

551
Q

How would pancreatitis present in relation to Vitamin A?

A

night blindness

552
Q

How would pancreatitis present in relation to Vitamin D?

A

osteomalacia

553
Q

How would pancreatitis present in relation to Vitamin E?

A

ataxia

554
Q

How would pancreatitis present in relation to Vitamin K?

A

bleeding

555
Q

Which endocrine tumor can Gardner Syndrome produce?

A

thyroid

556
Q

What layer of the GI tract is damaged during toxic megacolon?

A

muscularis externa

557
Q

What is the most common presenting symptom of toxic megacolon?

A

bloody diarrhea

558
Q

What two parts of the GI tract are most effected by celiac disease?

A

distal duodenum and proximal jejunum

559
Q

Does alcohol produce a micro or macro nodular hepatitis?

A

micro

560
Q

Does viral hepatitis produce a micro or macro nodular hepatitis?

A

macro

First Aid (21 decks)

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