Vascular Tumors And Malformations - Vascular Injury Hand & Lower Extremities Flashcards
A 62-year-old woman has had a long history of a compressible, nonpulsatilelesion on the lip and chin; photographs are shown above. The lesion swells with activity, sometimes produces pain, and is associated with episodes of bleeding and ulceration.
These findings are most consistent with which of the following types of malformation?
(A) Arteriovenous
(B) Capillary
(C) Lymphatic
(D) Venous
The correct response is D
This 62-year-old woman has a classic venous malformation, a dark lesion that often becomes swollen with dependency and is exsanguinated easily. Venous malformations occur in 1% to 4% of patients and may vary from well-localized lesions to diffuse generalized ectasia. Intermittent pain can develop secondary to generalized thrombosis; analgesics are frequently prescribed for relief. Wedge resection is most appropriate for removal of this patient’s small lesion on the chin. Other recommended procedures include sclerotherapyand surgical resection. Laser therapy can be used to remove small superficial lesions, and compression garments can be applied for lesions on the extremities. More invasive techniques are reserved for symptomatic malformations characterized by chronic pain, ulceration, and bleeding.
Arteriovenousmalformations are generally pulsatile and not associated with pain. Surgery is often recommended because of the risk for hemorrhage. Capillary malformations (ie, port-wine stains), which involve the intradermal capillaries, are most frequently seen on the face and can be linked to other anomalies. Although lymphatic malformations appear as superficial lesions characterized by cutaneous vesicles, they are much deeper than their appearance, involving both the dermis and subcutaneous tissue.
A 14-year-old boy is referred to the office by his pediatrician for consultation regarding a purple mass on the right hand. The lesion has been present since birth but has been enlarging over the past year. The patient says that the mass increases in size when he exercises. On physical examination, the lesion is warm to touch and has a palpable thrill. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
(A) Arteriovenousmalformation
(B) Capillary malformation
(C) Hemangioma
(D) Lymphatic malformation
(E) Venous malformation
The correct response is A
Arteriovenous malformations are present at birth but may be mistaken at that time for hemangiomas. However, they do not regress and can increase in size with puberty. The fast-flow nature of these lesions results in the cutaneous warmth and palpable thrill. Hemangiomasusually grow during the first year of life and usually regress spontaneously by age 5 to 10 years. Vascular malformations are present at birth but will not spontaneously involute. They are characterized by channel type (venous and capillary) and by flow rate. Arteriovenousmalformations are characterized by a red-purple color with warmth and palpable thrill.
A 45-year-old male presents with a right lower extremity wound after a motorcycle collision. He had no fractures but debridement by the orthopedic team showed a large lateral, proximal third deficit of the right lower extremity. Which of the follow choices correctly gives a flap option and correct blood supply?
A) Anteriolateral thigh flap – ascending branch of lateral circumflex
B) Medial gastrocnemius flap – medial sural artery
C) Tibialis anterior flap – anterior tibial artery
D) Lateral gastrocnemius flap – lateral sural artery
E) Latissimus Dorsi flap – Thoracodorsal artery
Correct answer is option D.
Lower extremity reconstructions can be planned based on the idea of the proximal, middle, and lower thirds. One of the main reconstruction options for a proximal third defect is the gastrocnemius flap. The gastrocnemius flap has two heads, the lateral and medial. Depending on the location of the wound, either portion can be used. In this patient, the deficit is of the proximal third, lateral aspect. Thus, the lateral head of the gastrocnemius with its blood supply from the lateral sural artery is the correct option. A free flap in this patient can be used but a local flap option should be thought of first if it is available. The tibialis flap may be used but it does have the risk of a functional loss. Lastly, the anteriolateral thigh flap is supplied by the descending branch of the lateral circumflex.
A 2-year-old girl is evaluated because of a rapidly enlarging mass in the left forearm that her parents first noticed 6 months ago. Physical examination shows a 3-cm firm mass in the volar aspect of the left forearm. Passive extension of the fingers and wrist elicits pain. MRI shows a mass within the deep forearm compartment suggestive of a vascular lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in treatment?
A ) Application of a compression garment
B ) En bloc surgical resection
C ) Oral administration of prednisone
D ) Percutaneous sclerotherapy
E ) Pulsed-dye laser therapy
The correct response is Option C.
This rapidly growing vascular lesion, not present at birth, most likely represents an intramuscular hemangioma. These vascular anomalies can pose diagnostic challenges because of their depth and lack of cutaneous changes characteristic of the more common infantile hemangioma. The treatment algorithm, however, parallels that of other hemangiomas. In this case, the first line of therapy would be medical treatment with either propranolol or corticosteroids.
Compression garments may be useful in managing arteriovenous or lymphatic malformations of the extremities. In this patient, with pain caused by increased intracompartmental volume, compression may exacerbate the symptoms.
En bloc surgical resection is reserved for lesions that fail to respond to medical management or that compromise function. In the case of upper extremity lesions, this would be indicated most commonly for refractory pain or nerve compression.
Percutaneous sclerotherapy can successfully treat low-flow arteriovenous malformations and lymphatic malformations. It would not be a first-line intervention for hemangioma.
Cutaneous arteriovenous malformations may be treated with pulsed-dye laser or other light-based therapies. Deep, intramuscular lesions without a cutaneous component will not be reached by these interventions.
A 7-month-old female infant is brought to the office because of a large mass on the left side of the neck. Her parents report that the mass has been present since birth and has remained consistent proportionately in size with the child’s growth. It has become firmer after a recent upper respiratory tract infection. Examination shows an active child in no distress. The mass measures 3 × 2 cm at the child’s left mandibular body and angle going down into the upper neck. It is easily compressible, has no pulse, and causes no pain. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
A) Admission of the infant and propranolol therapy
B) Angiography and injection of a sclerosing agent
C) CT angiography
D) Fine-needle aspirate biopsy
E) MRI
The correct response is Option E.
Differential diagnosis for congenital head and neck mass in a child includes malignancy, branchial remnants, and malformations. History and physical examination suggest a vascular malformation vs. malignancies. Due to the non-emergent nature of the mass, further imaging in the form of an MRI will help elucidate the nature of the mass, specifically to see whether it is a lymphatic malformation or a venous-lymphatic malformation. MRI will also assist in demonstrating which deeper tissues are involved, such as the parotid and the neck vessels. Invasive measures which are also treatment may eventually be required; however, at this time, there is no indication for urgent treatment in the form of angiography and either embolism or sclerosis. Propranolol currently does not have a role in treatment of vascular malformations, although it does have a role in hemangioma management. CT angiography can help define whether it is an arteriovenous malformation; however, clinical examination puts that further down the differential.
A 2-year-old boy has the new onset of a rapidly growing 7-mm lesion on the nasal tip. The lesion is pedunculatedand bleeds easily
(A) Hemangioma
(B) Lymphatic malformation
(C) Pyogenic granuloma
(D) Vascular malformation
The correct response is C
The 3-month-old infant has a vascular malformation, which is comprised of anomalous vascular structures. Vascular malformations are present at birth and do not regress; they grow commensurately with the child. Skeletal deformities are associated. Treatment is often difficult, and recurrence rates are high. Surgical excision of the entire lesion is required to remove all residual tissue, decreasing the risk for recurrence.
The 2-year-old boy has a pyogenic granuloma, a rapidly growing, pedunculatedlesion in the central face that often bleeds easily. Pyogenic granulomas can be differentiated from hemangiomasbecause they break down spontaneously with bleeding and do not typically develop during the first year of life. Curettage or excision is appropriate.
Hemangiomasare true neoplasms that develop by age 1 year, grow rapidly for the next four to eight months, and then regress spontaneously. Less than 5% of hemangiomasbreak down spontaneously with bleeding. Skeletal deformities are rarely associated.
Lymphatic malformations can be superficial or deep. Superficial lymphatic malformations are comprised of anomalous lymphatic remnants that manifest as clear vesicles. Deep lymphatic malformations appear similar to hemangiomasbut are soft and compressible on palpation. Bony overgrowth is associated.
A 5-year-old boy is brought to the office because of a 2-month history of pain and diffuse swelling in the left leg. His parents report that his left foot has always been larger than his right foot. Physical examination shows purple macular lesions over the majority of the lateral left leg. Circumference of the left leg is nearly twice that of the right leg. No other abnormalities are noted. MRI of the left leg shows numerous tortuous, low-flow vessels. There is no evidence of arteriovenousfistulas. The patient is at greatest risk for which of the following?
A ) Deep venous thrombosis
B ) Heart failure
C ) Pathologic fracture
D ) Seizure
E ) Thrombocytopenia
The correct response is A
In the patient described with hallmark findings for Klippel-Trenaunaysyndrome (KTS), the major risks relate to deep venous thrombosis and pulmonary embolism. Compression therapy may alleviate the pain and assist in venous return. Surgical interventions for the mixed vascular/lymphatic malformations have limited success and have been associated with increased incidence of deep venous thrombosis.
Heart failure can occur in high-flow vascular malformations, which often demonstrate significant arteriovenousfistulas. Patients with Parkes-Weber syndrome may have symptoms similar to KTS; however, KTS lacks the arteriovenousfistulas.
Patients with Maffuccisyndrome manifest multiple cutaneous hemangiomasand extremity enchondromas. The risk of pathologic fracture is increased at sites of cortical thinning around the enchondromas.
Seizures are associated with Sturge-Weber syndrome; in the absence of a capillary malformation (port-wine stain) involving the V1 distribution of the face, Sturge-Weber syndrome would not be in the differential diagnosis.
Thrombocytopenia occurs either by sequestration, as in kaposiformhemangioendothelioma, or because of consumption in low-flow vascular malformations such as KTS. In the consumptive conditions, platelet counts are depressed (50,000-150,000 µL) but not life-threatening. Profound thrombocytopenia (<25,000 µL), the Kasabach-Merritt phenomenon, is not associated with the clinical scenario of KTS.
A 24-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance because of injuries to the right leg he sustained in a motorcycle collision. Physical examination shows fracture of the tibia and fibula, thrombosis of the anterior and posterior tibial arteries, and transection of the posterior tibial and peroneal nerves just below the knee. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A) External fixation
B) Skeletal traction and vacuum-assisted closure of the wound
C) Revascularization and coverage with a gastrocnemius flap
D) Revascularization and coverage with a latissimus dorsi flap
E) Below-the-knee amputation
Correct answer is option E.
This patient has sustained multiple traumas including injury to the skin, bone, arteries, and nerves. Using the injury severity scale, the prognosis of this injury is very poor. In an adult, there is little chance of regaining useful protective sensation or motor function after nerve repair in light of the open fractures and vascular injury. The best immediate management is amputation. Additionally, the return to weight-bearing and work is significantly shorter with amputation.
A 36-year-old executive comes to the office because of an 8-year history of cold intolerance and ulcers on the tips of the index and long fingers bilaterally. The patient is a nonsmoker. Physical examination shows thin fingers with shiny skin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Buerger disease
B) CREST syndrome
C) Hyperthyroidism
D) Hypothenar hammer syndrome
E) Sickle cell anemia
Correct answer is option B.
The set of symptoms in the patient described are consistent with scleroderma or systemic sclerosis. Findings in these patients include calcinosis, Raynaud phenomenon, esophageal dysphasia, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia, or CREST syndrome. Those with overlap syndrome have associated findings characteristic of lupus, dermatomyositis, or rheumatoid arthritis.
Therefore, CREST syndrome is the most likely diagnosis. A history of heavy smoking is more consistent with finger ulcers associated with thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease); however, these patients do not have shiny skin, and their symptoms are generally limited to the hands and feet. A blow or repetitive vibration to the hand might suggest ulnar artery thrombosis and hypothenar hammer syndrome, which can also lead to fingertip ulceration, but these conditions are often limited to one hand and in most cases involve only the ring and little fingers.
This syndrome is often seen in patients employed as manual laborers. Hyperthyroidism has nothing in common with the symptoms of the patient described. Finally, sickle cell anemia is characterized by severe pain in the long bones, abdomen, and face. Although hand pain with dactylitis and leg ulcers can be present, ulceration of the fingertips is not common.
A 2-month-old child with mild stridor has a circumferential subglottic hemangioma. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
(A) Administration of a corticosteroid
(B) Carbon dioxide laser ablation
(C) Interferon therapy
(D) Observation
(E) Radiation therapy to the neck
The correct response is A
Although hemangiomasof the upper aerodigestivetract are rare, they can be life-threatening. Children with large hemangiomasof the face or multiple cutaneous hemangiomasalso are likely to have visceral hemangiomasand hemangiomasof the upper aerodigestivetract. Because subglottic lesions typically result in stridor, aggressive treatment is warranted. Oral or intralesionaladministration of corticosteroids is the most effective initial therapy.
Observation alone is inadequate because of the potential for airway compromise in this child. Interferon therapy is limited to those patients in whom corticosteroid therapy has been unsuccessful. Adverse effects include flu-like symptoms and occasionally neutropenia and liver enzyme abnormalities. Because results may not be seen for one to two months after initiation of therapy, a tracheostomy may be necessary to maintain the patency of the airway. Although radiation therapy can effectively ablate the hemangioma, it is contraindicated in the neck because of the risk for subsequent development of malignancy. Carbon dioxide laser ablation is recommended only for unilateral subglottic lesions, and its use with circumferential lesions may result in stenosis.
Patients with Sturge-Weber syndrome usually have intracranial vascular abnormalities in addition to which of the following skin anomalies?
(A) Arteriovenousmalformation
(B) Capillary malformation
(C) Endothelioma
(D) Hemangioma
(E) Lymphatic malformation
The correct response is B
By definition, a vascular malformation is always present at birth, although the anomaly may not become obvious until the early neonatal period. Usually one type of abnormal vascular channel may predominate in a vascular malformation, frequently combined with capillary, arterial, venous, and lymphatic components, as well as some complex combined anomalies often referred to as specific syndromes.
Sturge-Weber syndrome is considered a vascular developmental anomaly of the pialand ocular regions along with capillary malformation of the trigeminal dermatomes. The most common dermatome to be involved is ophthalmic, although maxillary and mandibular dermatomes may also be involved. The anomalies can cause seizures, contralateral hemiplegia, retinal detachment, glaucoma, and developmental delays. Seizures and neurologic deterioration typically develop in the first year of life rather than in adulthood and rarely after the third decade.
A 14-year-old boy is brought to the office for evaluation because of recurrent, severe nosebleeds that require visits to the emergency department. Dermatologic examination shows no skin discolorations. Neurologic examination shows no abnormalities. Family history includes frequent nosebleeds. A diagnosis of hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasias (HHT) is suspected. A mutation of which of the following genes is most likely in this patient?
A) ENG
B) KRIT1
C) PIK3CA
D) PTEN
E) RASA1
The correct response is Option A.
In patients with hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (HHT), also known as Osler-Weber-Rendu disease, characteristic abnormal arteriovenous shunting is noted in the mucosae of the naso- and oropharynx, and pulmonary, GI/hepatic, and CNS systems. They are at risk for bleeding and anemia, and even stroke (CNS manifestation). Several genes have been associated with HHT, including the endoglin gene, ENG. ACVRL1 and SMAD4 may also be associated.
RASA1 mutation has been associated with capillary malformations with or without AVMs. Oval, macular port-wine staining on the skin is a common finding.
PTEN mutation has been associated with Bannayan-Riley-Ruvalcava syndrome, an autosomal dominant condition that presents with macrocephaly, genital lentiginosis (speckled penis), and GI polyps. A subset of patients may develop arteriovenous anomalies (arteriovenous malformations and arteriovenous fistulae).
KRIT1 mutation is an autosomal dominant condition associated with cavernous malformation in the brain (venous malformation, no fast-flow component). Affected patients are at risk for cerebral hemorrhage. Cutaneous manifestations are hyperkeratotic vascular malformations (slow-flow malformations).
CLOVES (congenital lipomatous overgrowth, vascular malformations, epidermal nevi, spinal/skeletal anomalies/scoliosis syndrome) syndrome can occur as a result of a mutation in PIK3CA. It is an overgrowth syndrome where vascular malformations can also occur. Patients with CLOVES syndrome should have a spinal MRI to screen for CNS AVM. They may also have other slow-flow vascular malformations.
Which of the following syndromes is most likely in a patient with venous malformations?
A) Kasabach-Merritt
B) Maffucci
C) Osler-Weber-Rendu
D) Parkes-Weber
E) Sturge-Weber
The correct response is Option B.
Maffucci syndrome is associated with venous malformations and multiple enchondromas. It can be associated with malignant chondrosarcomas, and intracranial tumors occur in 20% of patients.
Kasabach-Merritt syndrome is associated with a hemangioma or with diffuse hemangiomatosis. The hallmark is profound thrombocytopenia. The child can present with petechiae, ecchymosis, and bleeding.
Sturge-Weber syndrome is associated with facial capillary malformations (port-wine stain) distributed in a trigeminal nerve pattern, most often the first and second divisions of the nerve. Vascular malformations on the ipsilateral side can be found deep to the leptomeninges, and seizure disorders are common.
Parkes-Weber syndrome is a variant of Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome (patchy port-wine stains of the lower extremity with lymphatic/venous malformations and hypertrophy). However, in Parkes-Weber syndrome, there are arteriovenous fistulae present.
Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome is also called hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia syndrome. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion. The telangiectasia is located on the face, tongue, lips, nasal and oral mucosa, conjunctiva, and hands/nails. The lesions often emerge later in life.
A 6-month-old girl is evaluated because of facial asymmetry with right cheek enlargement. Imaging confirms an infantile hemangioma of the parotid gland. There is no bleeding, and she is otherwise feeding and developing normally. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate treatment in this patient?
A) Calcium channel blockers
B) Laser therapy
C) Percutaneous sclerotherapy
D) Surgical resection
E) Observation alone
The correct response is Option E.
Infantile hemangiomas are one of the most common infant tumors. Hemangiomas of the parotid gland often surround the facial nerve and are difficult to resect completely. Luckily many parotid hemangiomas resolve on their own without the need for resection.
Beta-adrenergic blockers can be effective in decreasing the size for symptomatic or large hemangiomas with minimal side effects.
The parotid hemangiomas are too deep for significant improvement with laser treatment.
After involution, a small portion of children with a history of infantile parotid gland hemangioma have excess skin that requires surgical reduction.
Percutaneous sclerotherapy has a role in the management of venous malformations, but not hemangiomas.
A 5-year-old boy is brought to the office because of a pulsatile mass in the volar forearm. His parents say the mass first appeared 10 days ago. Physical examination shows a palpable, pulsatile mass at the radial artery. CT angiography shows a true aneurysm of the radial artery. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s condition?
A ) Arterial catheterization
B ) Crush injury
C ) Infective embolism
D ) Kawasaki disease
E ) Regional block with administration of a local anesthetic agent
The correct response is Option D.
There are two types of pathologic arterial dilations: ?false,? or pseudoaneurysms, and true aneurysms.
Pseudoaneurysms typically result from some form of acute external or internal insult that causes rupture or laceration of the endothelium and bleeding. All layers of the artery can be involved, or it can be due to a dissection between layers. The false or pseudoaneurysm is caused by an acute injury to the endothelial layer of an otherwise normal artery, subsequent bleeding, clotting, and recanalization of the vessel. These arterial cul-de-sacs do have blood in them, but they do not have endothelial layers internally. Therefore, they are described as ?false? aneurysms.
Therefore, Options A, B, C, and E are not appropriate because those types of acute insults more typically cause pseudoaneurysms. A true aneurysm is an endothelial-lined widening of an artery that has all three layers of the vessel lining the aneurysm: endothelium, media, and adventitia. The true aneurysm typically has a more fusiform, dilated appearance, rather than the outpouching that typifies false aneurysms. True aneurysms can also result from trauma, but the trauma tends to be repetitive and blunt, rather than an acute, severe insult and a vessel rupture.
Kawasaki disease is a classic example of true aneurysm. In this disorder, arteriosclerosis is a common cause of true aneurysms. Hemophilia can lead to true and false aneurysms.
A newborn female presents with a lesion on the occipital scalp/posterior neck. A photograph and x-ray are shown. MRI has been performed. It is most appropriate to order which of the following studies before formulating a treatment plan?
A) Brain MRI to rule out structural anomalies
B) Doppler ultrasonography to assess flow of the lesion
C) Echocardiography to assess cardiac function
D) Incisional biopsy for genetic analysis
E) Lymphatic mapping with isosulfan blue to identify the sentinel lymph node

The correct response is Option C.
This patient has a rapidly involuting congenital hemangioma (RICH). These are often large and fast-flow and can cause high-output cardiac failure. Therefore, it is important to assess cardiac function to ascertain whether this patient needs cardiac support (eg, digoxin). While Doppler ultrasonography may have been indicated as a first-line imaging study, the MRI and magnetic resonance angiography demonstrated the extent of the lesion and flow; Doppler ultrasonography will not give additional information at this time. Incisional biopsy may be indicated if there are concerns about the diagnosis. However, performing a biopsy to obtain tissues for genetic analysis is not indicated, as the genetic information will not give information to direct treatment. Brain MRI to rule out structural anomalies is indicated when a patient is suspected of having posterior fossa brain malformations, hemangioma, arterial lesions, cardiac abnormalities, and eye abnormalities (PHACE) syndrome, a large segmental infantile hemangioma in the face. Lymphatic mapping for sentinel node is used for head and neck malignancies and has no role here.
In this case, the patient did develop mild cardiac failure. This lesion was embolized one day before she underwent resection of this lesion.
A 3-month-old girl is referred to the office by her pediatrician for consultation regarding a hemangiomaon the forehead that obstructs the vision of her right eye. Physical examination shows a nonulcerated, raised, 1.5-cm mass on the upper eyelid. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
(A) Injection of a corticosteroid
(B) Intense pulsed-light therapy
(C) Interferon therapy
(D) Surgical excision
(E) Observation
The correct response is D
Hemangiomasexhibit a characteristic evolution, with early rapid growth (proliferation) followed by slow involution. The earliest sign of a hemangiomais blanching of the involved skin. This may be followed by fine telangiectasiasand then a red or crimson macule. Rarely, a shallow ulceration may be the first sign of an incipient hemangioma.
Rapid growth during the neonatal period (birth to four weeks) is the historical hallmark of hemangiomas. This rate is characteristically beyond the growth rate of the infant, thereby differentiating this neoplasm from vascular malformations that grow commensurate with the infant. As proliferation ensues, the hemangioma becomes elevated and may be dome-shaped, lobulated, plaque-like, tumoral, or any combination of these morphologies. The proliferation phase occurs during the first year, with the most growth occurring during the first six months of life. Proliferation slows between the middle and end of the first year of life. During this time, the hemangiomamay remain quiescent or may begin to involute.
The involutionalphase may be rapid or prolonged. No specific characteristics appear to influence the rate or completeness of involution. The exception is a separate type of hemangiomareferred to as a rapidly involutingcongenital hemangioma(proliferates in utero and is fully developed at birth), which tends to complete involution during the second year of life. A total of 50% of infantile hemangiomascomplete involution by age 5 years and 70% by age 7 years; the remainder may take an additional three to five years to complete the process. Of lesions that have involutedby age 6 years, 38% will have residual evidence with scar formation, telangiectasia, or redundant or anetodermicskin. Hemangiomasthat take longer to involute have a higher incidence of permanent cutaneous residua. A total of 80% of lesions that complete involution after age 6 years may exhibit significant cosmetic deformities.
The benefits to early surgical excision include saving a life or vision and decreasing the negative psychosocial effects associated with a cosmetically disfiguring lesion during early childhood. Other benefits of early excision include the use of naturally expanded skin to aid in primary closure and the ability to employ a relatively avascular tissue plane surrounding actively growing hemangiomas. New advancements in surgical instruments that cauterize while cutting lessen the risk of hemorrhage.
Expectant observation would not be wise in a child with blocked vision due to possibility of amblyopia.
Laser surgery is beneficial in treating both proliferating and residual vessels from hemangiomas. The flash lamp €“pumped pulsed dye laser has become the most widely used laser for selective ablation of vascular tissue in childhood. Intense pulsed light is not indicated in treatment of hemangiomas.
Oral and intralesionalcorticosteroids are effective at slowing the growth and decreasing the size of proliferating hemangiomas. The mechanism of action has not been elucidated completely; however, corticosteroids seem to act by potentiating vasoconstrictiveeffects of epinephrine and norepinephrine on vascular smooth muscle. Evidence indicates that corticosteroids block estradiol receptors in hemangiomasin vitro. Wide variation in response rates exists, from less than 40% to greater than 90%, depending on dose, duration of treatment, and age at which corticosteroid therapy is initiated. Corticosteroid should be administered during the proliferative phase because they have a negligible effect on involutingotherwise stable lesions; also, because they have prolonged and variable response times, they are not to be used in life- or sight-threatening scenarios.
Interferon alfa-2a can be used in lesions that are unresponsive to corticosteroids. In fact, unlike corticosteroids, interferon alfa-2a does not require administration during the proliferation phase to be effective. The onset of action is slower than that of corticosteroids, usually requiring several weeks; this makes it less attractive for use in acute life- or sight-threatening situations. Interferon alfa-2a should be used only if corticosteroid therapy fails. The most significant adverse effect limiting its use in hemangiomasis potentially irreversible spastic diplegia, now reported in several infants; although most infants displayed significant recovery of spasticity of lower extremities, it appeared permanent in other infants.
A 7-year-old boy is evaluated because of capillary malformations in the right leg and thigh, which have been present since birth. Physical examination shows venous varicosities over the anterior leg and medial thigh. Girth of the affected lower limb is increased compared with the unaffected limb. Duplex imaging discloses no sign of arteriovenous fistulae. This patient is at greatest risk for which of the following conditions?
A) Chondrosarcoma
B) Disseminated intravascular coagulation
C) High-output cardiac failure
D) Limb-length discrepancy
E) Pathologic fracture
The correct response is Option D.
The presence of capillary malformations, varicosities, and limb hypertrophy paired with the absence of arteriovenous (AV) fistulae is classic for Klippel-Trénaunay syndrome. Up to 67% of patients with Klippel-Trénaunay syndrome will exhibit limb-length discrepancy, most commonly with the affected limb being hypertrophic.
Pathologic fractures may occur through enchondromas found in Maffucci syndrome. Since the lesions have been present since birth and the child is young, presentation is less consistent with Maffucci syndrome, which presents in adolescence in roughly 80% of patients. These enchondromas also hold a 15 to 30% risk for malignant transformation to chondrosarcoma.
High-output cardiac failure is a feature of vascular malformations that include AV fistulae; the classic example is Parkes-Weber syndrome.
Disseminated intravascular coagulation can result in life-threatening thrombocytopenia. Referred to as Kasabach-Merritt syndrome, this finding is more common in abnormalities such as kaposiform hemangioendothelioma.
A 28-year-old man has a markedly diminished dorsalis pedis pulse on the right after being stabbed with an ice pick in the right lower leg. In this patient, the most likely finding on physical examination is numbness at which of the following sites?
A) Dorsal foot
B) First web space
C) Lateral foot
D) Medial foot
E) Plantar foot
Correct answer is option B.
This 28-year-old man has a markedly diminished dorsalis pedis pulse after sustaining a laceration of the anterior tibial artery when he was stabbed in the leg. Therefore, he is most likely to have numbness of the first web space of the foot on physical examination. The first web space is innervated by the deep peroneal nerve; this nerve courses within the anterior compartment of the leg with the anterior tibial artery, which becomes the dorsalis pedis artery in the foot.
The dorsal aspect of the foot (with the exception of the first web space) is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve. The lateral foot is innervated by the sural nerve, and the medial foot is innervated by the saphenous nerve. None of these nerves travels with an artery.
The plantar surface of the foot is innervated by the tibial nerve, which courses within the deep posterior compartment of the leg with the posterior tibial artery.
In a patient who has retinal hemangiomasand cerebellar hemangioblastomas, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
(A) Klippel-Trénaunaysyndrome
(B) Parkes-Weber syndrome
(C) Rendu-Osler-Weber syndrome
(D) Sturge-Weber syndrome
(E) von Hippel-Lindaudisease
The correct response is E
Patients with von Hippel-Lindaudisease have hemangiomasaffecting the retina and hemangioblastomasof the cerebellum and visceral organs. Seizures and mental retardation may also be associated.
Klippel-Trénaunaysyndrome is characterized by a port-wine stain (typically involving one extremity) overlying venous and lymphatic malformations.
Parkes-Weber syndrome is similar to Klippel-Trénaunaysyndrome but is differentiated by the presence of arteriovenousfistulas.
Rendu-Osler-Weber syndrome, or hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia, is an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by multiple ectaticvessels involving the skin, mucous membranes, and visceral organs. Epistaxis, hematuria, hematemesis, and melena are frequently associated.
Sturge-Weber syndrome is associated with a large vascular malformation, usually a port-wine stain, in the distribution of the first and second branches of the trigeminal nerve (V1 and V2). Other findings include focal motor seizures, hemiparesis, and visual field defects, especially glaucoma. Mental retardation may result from leptomeningealvenous malformations.
An otherwise healthy 3-month-old female infant is admitted to the pediatric intensive care unit because of progressive difficulty breathing for the past 3 weeks. Examination shows mild stridor. Cultures are negative for acute viral or pulmonary illness. A photograph is shown. Administration of which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
A) Imiquimod
B) Interferon alfa-2a
C) Propranolol
D) Vincristine

The correct response is Option C.
In the absence of other pulmonary disease, the stridor is most likely being caused by the hemangioma which is present in the beard distribution. Hemangiomas can be present in the airway as well as the surrounding soft tissue.
In some centers, propranolol has supplanted corticosteroids as the first-line medical therapy for complicated hemangiomas. Currently, there is no universally accepted protocol for propranolol administration. Propranolol is initially given intravenously and then converted to oral dosing. Blood pressure and heart rate monitoring must be done on an outpatient basis, generally by a pediatric cardiologist. Treatment is typically 2 to 6 months.
Systemic corticosteroids are still considered effective therapy. Corticosteroids generally require prolonged therapy to prevent rebound effect. It can take upwards of 2 years for treated patients to catch up in growth after prolonged corticosteroid therapy in infancy. Treatment is typically upwards of 9 to 12 months.
Vincristine is a first-line treatment for kaposiform hemangioendothelioma. It has supplanted interferon alfa-2a, which is avoided due to the risk of spastic diplegia.
Topical imiquimod is still considered an experimental therapy.
A 7-month-old female infant is brought to the office because of a large, rapidly growing vascular tumor of the mandible. Physical examination shows a reddish purple lesion with a centrifugally advancing rim of ecchymosis. Initial platelet count is below 10,000/mm3. Administration of which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?
A) Imiquimod
B) Interferon alfa-2a
C) Prednisone
D) Propranolol
E) Vincristine
The correct response is Option E.
Kaposiform endothelioma is a malignant vascular tumor which is often associated with Kasabach-Merritt phenomenon. It is generally seen in infancy. It can be seen in the trunk and extremities. The skin overlying the tumor is deep red-purple, tense, and shiny, which is pathognomonic for kaposiform endothelioma. These patients typically have profound thrombocytopenia. As this is a malignant tumor, the primary mode of therapy is chemotherapy, sometimes combined with surgical resection. Vincristine is considered first-line therapy and has supplanted interferon alfa-2a due to its efficacy and decreased risk of major side effects. Interferon alfa-2a has a high risk of spastic diplegia, which is irreversible.
Corticosteroids are not considered a first-line therapy for kaposiform endothelioma.
Propranolol and imiquimod are not yet widely studied in kaposiform endothelioma.
A male newborn has a large macrocystic lymphatic malformation of the neck. Which of the following is the most appropriate first step in management?
A) Embolization of the lesion
B) Prednisolone therapy
C) Propranolol therapy
D) Resection of the lesion
E) Sclerotherapy
The correct response is Option E.
The most appropriate first step in management is sclerotherapy. Lymphatic malformation is a type of vascular anomaly that results from aberrant formation of lymphatic vessels. Lymphatic malformation most commonly affects the neck and axilla. There are two major types of lymphatic malformations: macrocystic and microcystic. Macrocystic lesions have cysts large enough to be cannulated by a needle and treated with sclerotherapy. Microcystic lesions have cysts that are too small for treatment with sclerotherapy. First-line management of macrocystic lymphatic malformations is sclerotherapy, which is the injection of an inflammatory substance into the lesion that causes scarring of the cyst walls together and shrinkage of the malformation. The most commonly used sclerosants are doxycycline, sodium tetradecyl sulfate, and ethanol.
Prednisolone and propranolol are drugs used to treat problematic proliferating infantile hemangioma, and have no efficacy for vascular malformations. Embolization is used to treat arteriovenous malformations and involves delivering a substance through an artery to occlude blood flow.
Resection is second-line therapy for a problematic macrocystic lymphatic malformation. Extirpation can cause marked morbidity (i.e., bleeding, nerve injury, infection, wound breakdown). In addition, excision leaves a cutaneous scar and recurrence is likely because a lymphatic malformation can rarely be completely removed. Resection is considered if a lesion remains symptomatic following sclerotherapy, or for microcystic lymphatic malformations that cannot be sclerosed.















