Blepharoplasty 01-22 Flashcards
A 45-year-old woman comes to the office for consultation regarding lower eyelid blepharoplasty. Physical examination shows prominent eyes; exophthalmos is suspected. Measurement of the distance between the anterior border of the globe and the most anterior point of which of the following aspects of the orbital rim is most appropriate to confirm this diagnosis?
A ) Inferior
B ) Lateral
C ) Medial
D ) Radix
E ) Superior
The correct response is Option B.
Orbital morphology is increasingly recognized as an important predictor of postoperative complications in eyelid surgery. Several studies have shown increased lower eyelid morbidity in patients with exophthalmos. A recent study of 269 consecutive patients suggests that patients with enophthalmic orbits, combined with horizontal lower eyelid laxity, are also at increased risk. The Hertel exophthalmometer measures the distance between the anterior border of the globe and the most anterior point of the lateral aspect of the orbital rim. Enophthalmos is defined as less than 14 mm; midrange 15 to 18 mm, and exophthalmos greater than 18 mm.
A 25-year-old man has ectropion of the left lower eyelid and excessive tearing of the eye one month after undergoing reduction of an orbital floor fracture through a subciliary approach. The conjunctiva does not appear to be markedly irritated. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
(A) Observation with massage and taping of the eyelid
(B) Injection of a corticosteroid
(C) Lateral canthopexy
(D) Scar release and grafting of the conjunctiva using a mucosa graft
(E) Skin-muscle blepharoplasty of the lower eyelid
The correct response is Option A.
In this patient who has ectropion of the left lower eyelid and excessive tearing of the left eye one month after undergoing fracture repair, the most appropriate management is observation with massage and taping of the eyelid. Scleral show and ectropion of the lower eyelid occur frequently in patients who have undergone surgery involving the lower eyelid. These complications typically improve over time. At four weeks, collagen is not compact; it will remodel significantly over the following two to six weeks. Operative procedures, such as lateral canthopexy or lamellar release and grafting, are indicated only if there is permanent scarring.
Corticosteroid injections are associated with unnecessary risks, such as orbital puncture and tissue thinning, and are not indicated when improvement is to be expected. Blepharoplasty procedures would only worsen the ectropion.
A 50-year-old woman is scheduled to undergo transcutaneous blepharoplasty. Fat transposition and canthopexy are planned. The inferior oblique muscle of the eye is most vulnerable to injury when dissecting between which of the following structures?
A) Central fat compartment and lateral fat compartment
B) Lateral fat compartment and orbicularis retaining ligament
C) Medial canthal tendon and medial fat compartment
D) Medial fat compartment and central fat compartment
E) Orbicularis retaining ligament and arcus marginalis
The correct response is Option D.
The inferior oblique muscle of the eye can be found between the medial fat compartment and the central fat compartment. When performing either excision or manipulation of the medial and central fat compartments, the inferior oblique muscle is vulnerable to injury. These injuries include resection, cauterization, scarring, hemorrhage, edema, and suture injury while repairing the septum orbitali. Depending upon the extent of injury, the symptoms can be transient or permanent. One study suggested that transection of less than 50% of the muscle will not cause permanent diplopia.
The orbicularis retaining ligament is a structure that originates along the orbital rim and inserts into the overlying orbicularis oculi muscle. Laterally, it contributes to the lateral canthal ligament. Recent studies have demonstrated that the orbicularis retaining ligament is a circumferential structure. The arcus marginalis is the periosteal extension of the septum orbitale as it attaches into the orbital rim. The inferior oblique muscle lies deep to both of these structures.
A 25-year-old man has ectropion of the left lower eyelid and excessive tearing of the eye one month after undergoing reduction of an orbital floor fracture through a subciliary approach. The conjunctiva does not appear to be markedly irritated. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
(A) Observation with massage and taping of the eyelid
(B) Injection of a corticosteroid
(C) Lateral canthopexy
(D) Scar release and grafting of the conjunctiva using a mucosa graft
(E) Skin-muscle blepharoplasty of the lower eyelid
The correct response is Option A.
In this patient who has ectropion of the left lower eyelid and excessive tearing of the left eye one month after undergoing fracture repair, the most appropriate management is observation with massage and taping of the eyelid. Scleral show and ectropion of the lower eyelid occur frequently in patients who have undergone surgery involving the lower eyelid. These complications typically improve over time. At four weeks, collagen is not compact; it will remodel significantly over the following two to six weeks. Operative procedures, such as lateral canthopexy or lamellar release and grafting, are indicated only if there is permanent scarring.
Corticosteroid injections are associated with unnecessary risks, such as orbital puncture and tissue thinning, and are not indicated when improvement is to be expected. Blepharoplasty procedures would only worsen the ectropion.
A 25-year-old man has excessive tear secretion and a chronic mucocele of the lacrimal sac. Jones I dye testing shows no dye, while Jones II dye testing shows dye within the tear sac. Dilatation of the puncta with probing and irrigation does not restore the patency of the lacrimal system. In order to restore nasolacrimal drainage in this patient, which of the following is the most appropriate operative procedure?
(A) Insertion of a Jones tube
(B) Canaliculodacryocystorhinostomy
(C) Conjunctivodacryocystostomy
(D) Conjunctivorhinostomy
(E) Dacryocystorhinostomy
The correct response is Option E.
Jones dye testing is performed initially in this patient who has excessive tear secretion. The Jones I dye test involves the instillation of 2% fluorescein dye into the conjunctival fornices. Recovery of the dye (a positive test) indicates that flow through the lacrimal system is uninhibited. Negative findings on the Jones I test are indicative of functional obstruction; if this occurs, the Jones II dye test should be performed immediately. With this test, the nasolacrimal system is irrigated with 1 mL of saline via an irrigation cannula. If dye-stained fluid is found at the inferior turbinate, there is partial obstruction of the lower canalicular system, most likely at the nasolacrimal duct. If there is dye within the tear sac, obstruction of the nasolacrimal duct can be diagnosed; the canaliculus and lacrimal pump are unaffected. If no dye-stained fluid is found in the nose (a negative test), the obstruction is most likely at the canalicular level.
In patients with positive Jones II dye tests, dilation of the puncta should then be performed; any fluid that passes into the nose indicates that the obstruction of the nasolacrimal duct has been cleared, and further probing is unnecessary. However, probing and irrigation do not restore patency in this situation. Therefore, this patient has negative findings on the Jones I dye test but positive findings on the Jones II dye test, indicating a partial obstruction of the nasolacrimal duct. In this patient who has duct obstruction resulting from a chronic mucocele of the lacrimal sac, dacryocystorhinostomy is indicated.
Insertion of a Jones tube is indicated in patients who have complete obstruction of the lacrimal puncta.
Canaliculodacryocystorhinostomy, with intubation, is recommended for management of strictures found at the junction of the common canaliculus and the lacrimal sac, as well as for obstructions at the level of the canaliculus.
Although conjunctivodacryocystostomy is appropriate for patients who have obstruction at the canalicular level, this technique is associated with disruption of the lacrimal sac, resulting in unreliable long-term patency.
Conjunctivorhinostomy is indicated in patients who have absence or obliteration of the tear sac.
A 4-year-old boy is referred for evaluation because of a 6-month history of bilateral epiphora. Examination shows that the eyelashes are rubbing against the inferior corneas bilaterally. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s condition?
A ) Abnormal attachment of the orbital septum
B ) High-riding tarsal plane
C ) Laxity of the lateral canthal tendons
D ) Laxity of the tarsal plate
E ) Redundancy of skin and orbicular muscle of the eye
The correct response is Option E.
The most common cause of epiblepharon is excess pretarsal skin and orbicular muscle at the lower eyelid margin. In this congenital anomaly, a fold of skin and underlying orbicular muscle of the eye override the eyelid margin, often pushing the cilia against the globe. The eyelid margin and tarsus are stable and maintain the proper orientation. Epiblepharon usually affects the lower eyelids, is more common in people of Asian descent, and is accentuated on downward gaze.
Laxity of the tarsal plate and the lateral canthal tendons are seen in the aging lower eyelid. Abnormal attachment of the orbital septum can be seen after trauma.
The photograph shown above is of a 36 -year-old man who underwent open reduction and internal fixation of a malar complex fracture on the left and cranial bone grafting of the left orbital floor three months ago after sustaining bony injuries in a motor vehicle collision. He had multiple skin lacerations at the time of injury.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the lower eyelid deformity?
(A) Entrapment of Lockwood’s ligament
(B) Inferior displacement of the orbital floor
(C) Loss of skin elasticity
(D) Periorbital fat atrophy
(E) Shortening of the posterior lamella
The correct response is Option E.
This patient’s lower eyelid deformity is a cicatricial entropion, and it was most likely caused by shortening of the posterior lamella. The lower eyelid is formed by the anterior, middle, and posterior lamellae. The anterior lamella consists of skin and orbicularis oculi muscle. The orbital septum comprises the middle lamella. The posterior lamella, or capsulopalpebral fascia, is comprised of the tarsus muscle, lower lid retractors, and conjunctiva. Injury or scarring of any of these structures can result in malpositioning of the lower eyelid, as seen in this patient. Shortening and scarring of the posterior lamella and septum are most common.
Entrapment of Lockwood’s ligament would lead to a loss of globe support, and inferior displacement of the cranial bone grafts and orbital floor would result in dystopia. Scleral show and ectropion resulting from excess skin excision are more typical of cosmetic blepharoplasty than internal fixation. Periorbital fat atrophy can result in scleral show and a change in globe position but rarely causes ectropion in patients with traumatic orbital injuries.
A 62-year-old woman has visual obstruction of the right eye. On examination, she has ptosis of 3 to 4 mm of the right upper eyelid and an elevated supratarsal crease. These findings are most consistent with which of the following conditions?
(A) Dehiscence of the levator aponeurosis
(B) Facial nerve injury
(C) Horner’s syndrome
(D) Myasthenia gravis
(E) Periorbital fat atrophy
The correct response is Option A.
The findings in this patient are most consistent with dehiscence of the levator aponeurosis, which is the most common cause of ptosis in elderly persons. Attenuation of the levator aponeurosis typically results. Levator advancement is performed for correction.
Facial nerve injury is a sequela of trauma and may be characterized by eyebrow ptosis.
Horner’s syndrome occurs as a result of sympathetic denervation of the superior cervical ganglion. It is characterized by ptosis, myosis, and anhidrosis. The eyelid creases and levator muscle are typically unaffected.
Unilateral or bilateral ptosis secondary to myasthenia gravis is exacerbated with fatigue and can present in young women and elderly men. Neostigmine testing is used to establish the diagnosis.
Periorbital fat atrophy results in pseudoptosis and enophthalmos of the globe.
A 43-year-old woman has miosis, anhidrosis, and blepharoptosis measuring 2 mm. On examination, the eyelid crease is normal and function of the levator muscle is good. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
(A) Blepharophimosis syndrome
(B) Congenital ptosis
(C) Horner’s syndrome
(D) Involutional ptosis
(E) Myasthenia gravis
The correct response is Option C.
This 43-year-old woman has Horner’s syndrome, which is caused by sympathetic denervation of the superior cervical ganglion. Typical findings include ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis. The eyelid creases and levator muscle are typically unaffected.
Blepharophimosis syndrome is a congenital condition consisting of ptosis, telecanthus, and phimosis of the upper eyelid fissure.
Congenital ptosis is a developmental dystrophy that affects the levator muscle. In patients with congenital ptosis, eyelid creases are poorly defined and levator function is poor. These patients are at increased risk for the development of strabismus and amblyopia.
Involutional ptosis is the most common type of acquired ptosis. This condition results from progressive thinning of the levator aponeurosis and subsequent downward shifting of the tarsal plate. The function of the levator muscle is good despite its progressive thinning. The eyelid creases are typically raised.
Patients with ptosis due to myasthenia gravis frequently have unilateral or bilateral ptosis that is exacerbated with fatigue. This disorder is most frequent in young women and elderly men. Neostigmine testing is used to establish the diagnosis.
Which of the following best differentiates the Asian upper eyelid from the Occidental upper eyelid?
(A) Absence of epicanthal folds
(B) Decreased amount of suborbicularis oculi fat
(C) More superior fusion of the orbital septum and levator aponeurosis
(D) Relative lack of insertions from the levator aponeurosis into the dermis
(E) Well-defined supratarsal lid fold with a larger pretarsal segment
The correct response is Option D.
The Asian eyelid has specific anatomic variations compared with the Occidental eyelid. First, in as much as 50% of the Asian population, there is a general lack of insertion of the levator aponeurosis into the dermis, causing a lack of a supratarsal fold. The fusion of the orbital septum to the levator aponeurosis is typically more caudad and decreases the width of the pretarsal segment of the supratarsal lid fold when it is present. There are generally increased amounts of retro-orbicularis oculi fat and suborbicularis oculi fat. The Asian eyelid is likely to have more epicanthal folds than is the Occidental eyelid.
Hyphema results from traumatic hemorrhage of which of the following ocular structures?
(A) Anterior chamber
(B) Conjunctiva
(C) Lens
(D) Posterior chamber
(E) Vitreous chamber
The correct response is Option A.
Hyphema is traumatic hemorrhage of the anterior chamber of the eye, typically resulting from blunt trauma to ocular structures. The anterior chamber of the eye is bordered by the cornea anteriorly and the iris and central portion of the lens posteriorly. This structure is filled with aqueous humor originating from the ciliary processes in the posterior chamber and flowing through the pupil into the anterior chamber. In patients with hyphema, vessels are torn in the iris or in the ciliary body, leading to onset of hemorrhage. The blood collects in the most inferior section of the anterior chamber, obscuring the lower portion of the iris.
Significant hyphema may result in increased ocular pressure and/or permanent staining of the cornea. Because of the potential for these complications, screening is recommended in patients with facial trauma, and ophthalmologic referral is indicated in any patient with positive findings. Treatment involves administration of acetazolamide and corticosteroid eye drops to decrease ocular tension.
Bleeding that occurs in the bulbar or palpebral conjunctiva is referred to as subconjunctival hemorrhage. This condition is seen in patients with facial trauma and results from extravasation of conjunctival capillaries. It also occurs in association with zygomatic fractures that extend through the lateral orbital wall in which there is bleeding along the side of the orbit and into the subconjunctival interstitium. Treatment of the fracture is likely to resolve the hemorrhage.
The lens is an avascular structure that does not retain blood. Instead, it may subluxate or dislocate and cause a premature cataract.
The posterior chamber is located behind the iris and anterior to the suspensory ligament; it appears as a halo around the lens. Although this chamber adjoins the ciliary processes, which may hemorrhage, the blood is not retained within it, but instead flows into the anterior chamber.
The vitreous chamber is bordered by the lens and suspensory ligaments anteriorly and the retina posteriorly. It contains a dense, jelly-like fluid that maintains slight pressure and provides even contact of the retina against the choroid. In patients with retinal hemorrhages, the blood typically remains within the retinal tissue. Debris or blood that is released into the vitreous body is consumed by phagocytic cells or remains as vitreal floaters within the chamber.
The patient shown in the photograph above will be at increased risk for development of which of the following complications following four-eyelid blepharoplasty? ** no picture**
(A) Diplopia
(B) Dry eye syndrome
(C) Entropion
(D) Hematoma
(E) Ptosis
The correct response is Option B.
The patient shown in the photograph has minimal exophthalmos and moderate scleral show. Such clinical findings, as well as proptosis, hypotonia of the lower eyelids, and maxillary hypoplasia, are significant predictors of dry eye syndrome, while low tear film is less predictive of dry eye syndrome. Therefore, appropriately cautious management is critical in patients who have these anatomic findings and are considering blepharoplasty. Surgery can still be performed with the necessary modifications and adequate ocular protection. One study reported that 65% of patients who developed dry eye syndrome following blepharoplasty had normal findings on preoperative Schirmer’s testing.
This patient would not be at risk for diplopia, which is more closely related to edema, hematoma, and wound infection. Entropion occurs as a result of damage to the ciliary margins of the eyelid resulting from an excessively close incision (leading to angulation of the upper border of the tarsal plate) or spasm of the upper portion of the orbicularis oculi muscle. However, this patient’s findings are not indicative of postoperative entropion. Development of hematoma is rarely predictable. The findings are not consistent with ptosis, which can be worsened postoperatively if it is not identified before the procedure.
A patient reports diplopia 6 weeks after transconjunctival lower blepharoplasty. The best way to isolate the function of the muscle that is most likely injured is to have the patient move the eye in which of the following directions?
A) Inferior only
B) Lateral and inferior
C) Lateral and superior
D) Medial and inferior
E) Medial and superior
The correct response is Option E.
The inferior oblique muscle is the most commonly injured muscle during lower blepharoplasty.
The extraocular muscles include the lateral rectus, medial rectus, superior rectus, inferior rectus, superior oblique, and inferior oblique. Vertical movements require coordination between the superior and inferior rectus muscles as well as the oblique muscles. The contribution of each muscle group depends on the horizontal position of the eye.
When the eye is adducted, the oblique muscles are the primary vertical movers. The inferior oblique muscle causes elevation, and the superior oblique muscle causes depression.
When the eye is abducted, the rectus muscles are the primary vertical movers. Elevation is due to the superior rectus, and depression is due to the inferior rectus.
When the eye is looking straight, both of these groups contribute to the vertical movements.
A 45-year-old woman presents to the plastic surgeon’s office with complaints of dryness of the eyes and a burning sensation 1 week after a bilateral upper blepharoplasty with skin and muscle excision only by another surgeon. Her pre-operative history included use of contact lenses for over 20 years and laser-assisted in situ keratomileusis (LASIK) 3 months prior to surgery. Her pre-operative examination showed dermatochalasis of both upper eyelids, positive orbital vector, and normal upper eyelid position, and corneal protectors are used intraoperatively. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her postoperative symptoms?
A) Blepharoplasty technique used
B) History of contact lens use
C) History of laser-assisted in situ keratomileusis (LASIK)
D) Positive vector orbit
E) Use of intraoperative corneal protectors
The correct response is Option C.
Blepharoplasty should not be performed before 6 months following LASIK surgery. This delay is necessary to allow sensation to return to the cornea. The dryness is from the lack of sensation and decreased blinking leading to increased evaporation.
Transient dry eyes occur in up to 26% of patients after blepharoplasty. Initial treatment of dry eye consists of ocular lubrication. Patients with proptosis, exophthalmos, horizontal lid laxity, or a negative vector orbit are more prone to dry-eye syndrome.
Patients who wear contact lenses without difficulty have adequate tear production. If patients have been advised to not wear contact lenses, they should be evaluated for inadequate tear production.
Patients with prominent eyes have a negative vector orbit and are at increased risk of dry eyes. Positive vector indicates a posterior relationship of the anterior cornea to the malar eminence and does not increase the risk of dry eyes.
Blepharoplasty, upper or lower, will increase the risk of developing dry eye postoperatively. The risk is unrelated to technique and upper blepharoplasty may have less risk compared to lower blepharoplasty. When patients have risk factors for dry eyes postoperatively and want upper and lower blepharoplasty, consider staging the upper and lower blepharoplasties.
Intraoperative use of corneal protectors and lubricant is protective because it decreases ocular exposure.
A 40-year-old woman has steady, lancinating pain in the globe and orbit and episodes of vomiting six hours after undergoing blepharoplasty of the lower eyelids. She says that she sees sparkles and flashes and has the sensation similar to a “window shade” closing over the lower half of her range of vision.
These findings are most consistent with which of the following?
(A) Acute glaucoma
(B) Adverse effects of anesthesia
(C) Migraine
(D) Retrobulbar hematoma
(E) Transient ischemic attack
The correct response is Option D.
This patient has findings consistent with retrobulbar hematoma, a complication of blepharoplasty that, if untreated, can result in loss of vision. Retrobulbar hematoma is most frequently characterized by steady, severe, lancinating pain in the globe and orbit (mimicking symptoms of acute glaucoma), which can occur alone or with scintillating scotomas (ie, sparkles and flashes, mimicking the symptoms of severe migraine) and hemianopsia or amaurosis fugax (ie, findings similar to a “window shade” pulled over the lower half of the visual field, mimicking a transient ischemic attack). Other symptoms associated with the development of hematoma following blepharoplasty include early discharge from the eye, perioperative and postoperative vomiting, and coughing. The use of aspirin-containing products has also been associated. A positive finding on Valsalva’s maneuver may be diagnostic.
Appropriate management includes surgical exploration and lateral canthotomy, with ophthalmologic consultation. Mannitol and carbonic anhydrase inhibitors can also be administered to decrease intraocular pressure and reestablish blood flow.
Although eye pain following surgery may result from abrasion of the cornea during anesthesia, scotomas and loss of vision would not be associated.
A 74-year-old woman comes to the office to discuss blepharoplasty. She has bilateral dermatochalasis and right lid ptosis secondary to levator dehiscence. She does not have dry eyes and states that her vision is much improved after recent corneal refractive surgery. Which of the following is the minimum amount of time after her corneal refractive surgery that this patient should wait before undergoing blepharoplasty?
A) 3 Months
B) 6 Months
C) 9 Months
D) 12 Months
E) None; this patient is not a candidate for blepharoplasty
The correct response is Option B.
The current accepted time frame between corneal refractive surgery and blepharoplasty is a minimum of 6 months. Early post-corneal refractive surgery puts the patient at risk for worsening dry eyes and/or keratopathy.
A 48-year-old woman comes to the office because of pain and tearing of the right eye 1 week after undergoing upper eyelid blepharoplasty. Fluorescein stain test result is positive for corneal erosion. On physical examination, absence of which of the following is most likely to put this patient at risk for corneal ulceration?
A) Accommodation reflex
B) Bell phenomenon
C) Ocular convergence
D) Oculocardiac bradycardia
E) Pupillary light response
The correct response is Option B.
Transient lagophthalmos during sleep is not uncommon following blepharoplasty. During the first few weeks of recovery, it is important to protect the eyes with lubricating drops and ointment. Bell phenomenon, an upward and outer movement of the eye when the eye is closed, is a protective mechanism which keeps the cornea protected behind the upper eyelid. Bell phenomenon is absent in 10 to 15% of the population. Accommodation reflex, oculocardiac reflex, ocular convergence, and pupillary light response do not place the cornea at risk after blepharoplasty.
A 65-year-old woman comes to the office for follow-up 6 days after undergoing bilateral upper eyelid blepharoplasty and repair of the right levator aponeurosis. Preoperatively, the patient had bilateral levator excursion of 13 mm and 4 mm of ptosis of the right eyelid. No ptosis of the left eyelid was noted. Physical examination today shows 2 mm of ptosis of the left upper eyelid. The right upper eyelid is well positioned. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these findings?
A) Hering law
B) Horner syndrome
C) Müller maneuver
D) Todd paresis
E) von Graefe sign
The correct response is Option A.
Hering law describes equal innervation to the eyelids in that the signal to the levator is the same despite the potential need for each eyelid to work independently. In the scenario described, the patient had obvious ptosis of the right eyelid, and the signal to raise the eyelids was strong. When the right ptosis was corrected, the signal to raise the eyelids decreased, and the more mild ptosis of the left eyelid was uncovered. To help avoid this problem, a Hering test or a patch test can be performed. The Hering test is performed by elevating the ptotic eyelid and observing whether the other eyelid becomes ptotic. A patch test is when the ptotic eyelid is covered for a period of time (usually 15 minutes) and then observed for whether the non-ptotic eye becomes ptotic. The key to both tests is to decrease the excessive signal to raise the eyelids.
Horner syndrome includes ptosis of the eyelid, constriction of the pupil, and decreased sweating due to disease in the sympathetic system. This can be due to a tumor, congenital or iatrogenic.
von Graefe sign is lagophthalmos in downgaze. This is related to Graves disease. Müller maneuver is the reverse of the Valsalva maneuver. After a forced expiration, an attempt at inspiration is made with closed mouth and nose, thereby creating negative pressure in the chest and lungs. This maneuver is used to find weakened areas of the airway.
Todd paresis is focal weakness following a seizure. This can affect eye position.
A 45-year-old woman comes to the office to discuss aesthetic improvement of the lower eyelids. Physical examination shows lower eyelid pseudoherniation of fat and fine skin wrinkles. A postseptal transconjunctival approach with skin pinch excision is considered. The most significant advantage of this approach compared with a transcutaneous skin-muscle flap is a lower risk of which of the following complications?
A) Capsulopalpebral fascia injury
B) Corneal injury
C) Hematoma
D) Infection
E) Lid malposition
The correct response is Option E.
Transconjunctival blepharoplasty preserves the middle lamella, which includes the orbicularis oculi muscle. Preserving this layer significantly decreases the incidence of ectropion and lower eyelid malposition. Disadvantages of this technique include more difficulty with visualization and access. Many authors believe that a cutaneous skin muscle approach is more effective in blending the lid-cheek junction and transposing fat.
Some studies have shown minor reductions in hematoma and infection rates with the transconjunctival approach; however, the differences are small and not the most significant advantage.
The potential for corneal injury is greater with the transconjunctival approach. Most surgeons use corneal shields to prevent this complication.
The capsule palpebral fascia is routinely cut to access the fat compartments during a transconjunctival blepharoplasty.
A 6-year-old boy has eyelid ptosis. Examination shows 4 mm of ptosis and 2 mm of levator excursion. Facial nerve function is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
(A) Blepharoplasty
(B) Frontalis suspension
(C) Placement of gold weights in the eyelids
(D) Levator plication
(E) Levator resection
The correct response is Option B.
Frontalis suspension is the most appropriate procedure for correction of the poor levator function and severe ptosis seen in this 6-year-old boy. Appropriate preoperative evaluation should be performed in any patient with ptosis to classify the type and severity of the ptosis and the amount of levator function. Ptosis is classified as congenital or acquired. Patients with congenital ptosis often have poor function of the levator muscle, characterized by absence of eyelid excursion and a static eyebrow. In acquired ptosis, levator function is typically moderate to good. The amount of levator function is critical to determine the appropriate surgical correction.
Blepharoplasty is appropriate in patients with excess skin and fat around the eyelids, but not in patients with true ptosis. Placement of gold weights in the eyelids is indicated for patients with facial paralysis to assist with eyelid closure. Plication and/or resection of the levator muscle is appropriate for patients who have moderate ptosis and levator function that is rated as fair to good.
Which of the following anatomical events occurs during eyelid closure?
A ) The lacrimal canaliculi occlude
B ) The lacrimal diaphragm returns to a relaxed position
C ) The lacrimal puncta close
D ) The lacrimal sac collapses
E ) The nasolacrimal duct shortens
The correct response is Option C.
During eyelid closure, the lacrimal puncta close because of simple forced position. In contrast, during eyelid opening, the lacrimal puncta are open and in contact with the lacrimal lake at the medial aspect of the lower eyelid. The lacrimal sac is collapsed and empty at this stage, and the canaliculi are patent. Reopening the eyelid allows the lacrimal diaphragm to return to its resting position through cessation of the sphincter action of the orbicular muscle of the eye.
Upon eyelid closure, tears are milked lateral to medial. The deep heads of the preseptal muscles contract, shortening the canaliculi and closing their ampullae. Simultaneously, the deep heads of the preseptal muscles that are attached to the fascia of the sac (lacrimal diaphragm) pull the sac laterally. This creates negative pressure and results in the opening of the sac.
As the eyelids reopen, the lacrimal diaphragm returns to its relaxed position, creating sufficient pressure to propel the tears into the nasolacrimal duct. The canaliculi reopen at this phase to allow collection of more tears.
A 48-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after sustaining facial injuries in a motor vehicle collision. Physical examination shows a 4-cm laceration of the left upper eyelid. The levator palpebrae superioris is transected just superior to the tarsus, exposing underlying structures. Which of the following intact structures is now exposed?
A ) Lacrimal sac
B ) Müller muscle
C ) Orbital septum
D ) Preaponeurotic fat
E ) Retro-orbicularis oculi fat
The correct response is Option B.
Knowledge of periorbital anatomy is critical for plastic surgeons who perform eyelid procedures, both cosmetic and reconstructive. The levator complex originates at the orbital apex at the lesser wing of the sphenoid and travels horizontally until it reaches the Whitnall ligaments, where it changes to a more vertical direction before its aponeurosis inserts on the tarsus, orbital septum, and skin. Above the level of the tarsus, the orbital septum lies anterior to the levator, and preaponeurotic fat lies posterior to the orbital septum.
Retro-orbicularis oculi fat lies anterior to the septum and posterior to the orbicularis oculi.
Müller muscle inserts directly on the tarsus and lies just posterior to the levator directly superior to the tarsus.
The common canaliculus enters the lacrimal sac at a point posterior to which of the following structures?
(A) Deep head of the preseptal muscle
(B) Deep head of the pretarsal muscle
(C) Lacrimal crest
(D) Medial canthal tendon
(E) Medial horn of the levator muscle
The correct response is Option D.
The common canaliculus enters the lacrimal sac at a point posterior to the medial canthal tendon. The medial canthal tendon is formed from the superficial heads of the pretarsal muscles and originates anterior to and above the lacrimal crest. The anterior and posterior lacrimal crests border the lacrimal fossa, which contains the lacrimal sac. The crests lie posterior to the canalicular entrance to the sac.
The deep head of the preseptal muscle originates from the posterior lacrimal crest, just above the deep heads of the pretarsal muscles. The deep heads of the pretarsal muscles extend posterior to the lacrimal sac and join with the diaphragm of the scar to originate immediately behind the posterior lacrimal crest. The medial horn of the levator muscle lies superior to the medial canthal tendon.
A 60-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe pain and pressure in her right eye. She is 12 hours postoperative from a transcutaneous lower blepharoplasty performed elsewhere. Her pain and pressure began very early postoperatively. Although she called the clinic to report her symptoms, she was told to “take more pain medication.” On physical examination, there is bruising around the right eye with proptosis, diminished range of motion of the eye with diplopia, and decreased visual acuity compared with the left eye. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Acute glaucoma
B) Extraocular muscle entrapment
C) Orbital cellulitis
D) Retrobulbar hematoma
E) Superior orbital fissure syndrome
The correct response is Option D.
This patient is presenting with signs and symptoms compatible with retrobulbar hemorrhage following her blepharoplasty procedure. This is an emergency requiring prompt treatment. Symptoms and signs include: severe pain and pressure, decreased visual acuity, and decreased range of motion of her extraocular muscles, which may cause diplopia and nausea. She has marked bruising and proptosis.
Retrobulbar hematoma is the most common cause of visual loss after blepharoplasty. Other eye emergencies, such as extraocular muscle entrapment and superior orbital fissure syndrome, typically occur in the setting of trauma, with orbital bony fractures. While acute glaucoma can present with a painful red eye with diminished visual acuity, especially in elderly patients, it is not typically seen in the early postoperative period following blepharoplasty. Orbital cellulitis is an urgent soft-tissue infection that usually presents with fever, as well as a painful, swollen eye. It has been rarely reported after blepharoplasty but presents about 4 to 6 days following the procedure.
Nahai and associates estimate the risk of visual loss following blepharoplasty at 1:20,000, based on a survey of members of American and British aesthetic surgeons. They found that 82% of patients developed symptoms within the first 24 hours, with more than half of these occurring in the first 6 hours postoperatively. Hypertension and use of aspirin were the two most common comorbidities. When a retrobulbar hemorrhage is suspected, suture removal and even lateral canthotomy should be performed at the bedside while the patient awaits an operating room.
Parallel to surgical measures, medical treatment can be commenced to lower intraocular pressure. Acetazolamide (500 mg intravenously), 20% mannitol (1.5 to 2 g/kg; 12.5 g over 3 min), methylprednisolone (100 mg), betaxolol hydrochloride ophthalmic suspension (one drop then twice daily), and 95% oxygen/5% carbon dioxide can be administered for this purpose. At the same time, an ophthalmology consult should be initiated. Prompt decompression of the orbit is required to avoid permanent visual loss.






