Flaps Flashcards
A Z-plasty revision procedure is to be performed for lengthening of a scar contracture. In order to achieve a theoretical 100% gain in the length, the angle of the Z-plasty should be how many degrees?
(A) 30
(B) 45
(C) 60
(D) 75
(E) 90
The correct response is Option D.
The Z-plasty is a technique in which pairs of triangular transposition flaps are created adjacent to a scar and then transposed across the scar, resulting in an increase in the length of the central limb and a change in the orientation of the scar. This technique can be used in patients undergoing burn reconstruction to lengthen linear scar contractures, disperse linear scars, and realign the scars within the lines of minimal tension. The actual amount of scar lengthening correlates directly with the angle and length of the flap limbs, as demonstrated in the table above.
A vastus lateralis muscle flap elevated on its dominant pedicle provides reliable coverage for each of the following anatomic sites EXCEPT the
(A) acetabulum
(B) groin
(C) knee
(D) perineum
(E) trochanter
The correct response is Option C.
When the vastus lateralis flap is based on its dominant pedicle, the descending branch of the lateral femoral circumflex artery, it has an area of rotation that will provide vascularized coverage of the lower abdomen, groin, perineum, ischium, trochanter, and acetabular fossa. However, the flap must be reversed in order to rotate and provide coverage of knee defects. When used in this manner, the flap is then based on a branch of the lateral genicular artery, which is a minor distal pedicle. Because the risk for partial flap loss is greater, this flap is not often advocated for coverage of knee defects.
A 58-year-old man undergoes a left hemimandibulectomy. Reconstruction with an osteocutaneous free flap harvested from the ipsilateral pelvis is planned. The vascular pedicle supplying this flap is based on which of the following arteries?
A) Ascending branch of the lateral circumflex femoral artery
B) Deep circumflex iliac artery
C) Deep inferior epigastric artery
D) Descending branch of the geniculate artery
E) Peroneal artery
The correct response is Option B.
The deep circumflex iliac artery arises from the external iliac artery and is the blood supply to the iliac crest osteocutaneous flap. This flap can be harvested either as a bone-only or an osteocutaneous free flap. It is often used in hemimandibular reconstruction because the natural curvature of the iliac crest closely resembles the shape of the hemimandible. A portion of the internal oblique muscle, based on the ascending branch of the deep circumflex iliac artery, can also be included with this flap.
The descending branch of the geniculate artery is the blood supply to the medial femoral condyle flap. The ascending branch of the lateral circumflex femoral artery is the blood supply to the tensor fascia lata flap. The peroneal artery is the blood supply to the fibula flap. The deep inferior epigastric artery is the blood supply to the rectus abdominis myocutaneous flap.
A 50-year-old man is scheduled to undergo resection of a squamous cell cancer of the right floor of the mouth with invasion into the mandibular body. Composite resection of the right hemimandible and a 2-cm resection of the floor of the mouth followed by immediate reconstruction with a fibula flap are planned, necessitating the use of an osteocutaneous flap. Which of the following best describes the course of the blood supply for the skin paddle of this flap?
A) Musculocutaneus and septocutaneous perforators from the peroneus longus and brevis muscles
B) Musculocutaneus perforators from the flexor hallucis brevis muscle
C) Septocutaneous and musculocutaneus perforators from the anterior tibialis muscle
D) Septocutaneous perforators from the posterior intermuscular septum
E) Septocutaneous perforators from the posterior tibialis muscle
The correct response is Option D.
The blood supply for the fibula flap skin paddle used for reconstruction arises from septocutaneous perforators from the peroneal artery that traverse the posterior intermuscular septum. The position of these vessels can be marked before the procedure with a pencil Doppler probe. In the majority of cases, the blood supply to the fibula flap skin paddle is reliable for microsurgical transfer. The skin flap also has blood supply arising from musculocutaneus perforators originating from the soleus and gastrocnemius muscles; however, these vessels are, in most cases, ligated because their dissection is tedious, and they often arise from the posterior tibial artery. The anterior and posterior tibialis muscles do not provide blood supply to the fibula flap skin paddle.
A 35-year-old man undergoes coverage of a soft-tissue defect on the posterior right elbow with a reverse lateral arm flap. He does not have a history of serious illness and has never smoked cigarettes. Vascular examination shows no abnormalities. Arterial blood to the flap is provided primarily by which of the following arteries?
A ) Artery to the biceps muscle
B ) Inferior cubital
C ) Musculocutaneous perforating branches from the brachioradialis muscle
D ) Posterior radial collateral
E ) Radial recurrent
The correct response is Option E.
The most likely dominant arterial supply to the reverse lateral arm flap is the radial recurrent artery. It is a branch of the radial artery and arises in the cubital fossa. It anastomoses with the posterior radial collateral artery just above the lateral epicondyle and medial to the brachioradialis within the lateral intermuscular septum. This pedicled flap can be used to cover defects of the elbow and requires retrograde flow through the posterior radial collateral artery via the radial recurrent artery. Prior trauma or radical surgery around the elbow and severe peripheral vascular disease warrant confirmation of presence or patency of the pedicle via Doppler ultrasonography or angiography. After rotating this flap more than 180 degrees, venous insufficiency may result and require microanastomosis of a superficial vein in the flap to a receptor vein in the defect to augment outflow.
The posterior radial collateral artery is the dominant inflow for the standard lateral arm flap. The inferior cubital artery is the dominant inflow and the musculocutaneous perforating branches from the brachioradialis muscle are the minor pedicles for the antecubital flap. The artery to the biceps muscle supplies the medial arm flap.
A 35-year-old man is undergoing repair of a pressure sore on the left ischium using the musculocutaneous flap shown in the photograph. Which of the following is the Mathes and Nahai classification of this flap?
A ) Type I
B ) Type II
C ) Type III
D ) Type IV
E ) Type V

The correct response is Option C.
The gluteal musculocutaneous flap is a Type III flap, meaning it has two dominant pedicles (the superior and inferior gluteal arteries). These arteries are separated by the piriformis muscle and are sourced to the internal iliac system.
A Type I flap has a single dominant pedicle (ie, tensor fascia lata). A Type II flap has dominant and minor pedicle(s) (ie, gracilis). A Type IV flap has multiple segmental pedicles (ie, sartorius). A Type V flap has a dominant pedicle and secondary segmental pedicles (ie, latissimus).
A 45-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after sustaining a shotgun injury to the nondominant left forearm. A preoperative x-ray study is shown. Bone stabilization is performed. The ulnar nerve, multiple flexor tendons, and the ulnar artery are repaired during surgery and are left exposed. A photograph taken following the repair is shown. The wound was covered with allograft skin while viability of the hand was confirmed for 2 days. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive coverage for the wound?
A) Free anterolateral thigh flap
B) Full-thickness skin grafting from the groin
C) Pedicled groin flap
D) Reverse lateral arm flap
E) Split-thickness skin grafting from the thigh

The correct response is Option A.
Shotgun blasts at close range can create a devastating pattern of injury. X-ray study shows a heavily comminuted ulna fracture. The scenario also involves tendon, vascular, and nerve injury. In choosing the appropriate coverage for the wound described, the surgeon will need to consider the protection of exposed structures, the ability to rehabilitate the extremity, and the possible need for future surgery on the arm.
A free tissue transfer will provide viable, full-thickness tissue from a nontraumatized area to cover the wound. Many donor sites are available, including fasciocutaneous flaps such as the anterolateral thigh flap, as well as muscle flaps. Some authors advocate fasciocutaneous flaps over muscle flaps with the rationale that the fat on the deep surface of the flap will better allow glide of tendons and nerves deep to it; in addition, a fasciocutaneous flap, once healed, can be incised like normal skin for any future surgery that might be necessary in the patient’s arm. A photograph is shown.
Skin grafting, whether split-thickness or full-thickness, carries several liabilities. Both types of grafts provide skin but no subcutaneous tissue. In addition, both heal by adhering to the wound bed. Because the patient described has exposed tendon in the wound bed, skin grafting would likely cause significant tendon adhesions and thus impaired mobility. In addition, adhesion of the skin graft to a nerve, particularly a repaired nerve, carries a risk of chronic pain and nerve dysfunction.
A pedicled groin flap can provide thin, pliable, full-thickness tissue to cover defects of the forearm. However, the flap is done as a two-staged procedure, with the arm tethered to the groin for 2 to 3 weeks to allow vascular ingrowth. In the patient described, having the arm dependent for that period of time would significantly worsen edema and compromise the ability to begin rehabilitation of the extremity.
A reversed lateral arm flap provides full-thickness soft-tissue coverage for defects about the elbow. Its harvest does not require sacrifice of a major artery to the hand. The lateral arm flap would not be able to reach the distal limit of the wound described. In addition, the lateral arm flap donor site can be closed primarily for flaps up to 12 × 6 cm, which is significantly smaller than the wound in the patient described.

A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic 3 years after she sustained large, full-thickness burns to the anterior neck. She has undergone reconstruction with a fasciocutaneous free flap. She does not like the contracture and webbing along the margin of the reconstruction. Two contiguous 45-degree Z-plasties are planned over a total length of 10 cm. The expected increase in scar length is which of the following?
A) 2.5 cm
B) 5.0 cm
C) 7.5 cm
D) 10.0 cm
E) 12.5 cm
The correct response is Option B.
A 45-degree Z-plasty is expected to lengthen the total scar by 50%. If each Z-plasty covers 5 cm of scar, then each Z-plasty will increase scar length by 2.5 cm, for a total increase of 5 cm. Theoretical gains in length for Z-plasty angles are as follows:
The Z-plasty was the first flap introduced using a mathematical approach to correct a skin defect or scar. A standard Z-plasty design uses three incisions of equal length and two angles of equal degree. The primary principle is to transfer lateral skin excess to lengthen and reorient tight scars or contractures. The central incision is oriented parallel to the long axis of the scar, or the scar may be incorporated as an excision acting as the central incision. The resultant triangular skin flaps are transposed with each other, resulting in a new central incision that is perpendicular to the original orientation.

A patient with a complex defect that requires replacement of skin, muscle, and bone is scheduled to have reconstruction with a single free flap from the subscapular system. Which of the following would NOT be used as part of this reconstruction?
(A) Parascapular fasciocutaneous tissue
(B) Serratus anterior muscle
(C) Trapezius muscle
(D) Vascularized rib
(E) Vascularized scapular bone
The correct response is Option C.
Unlike the other tissues, the trapezius muscle is based on the transverse cervical artery (based on the thyrocervical trunk in 80% of cases or the subclavian artery in 20% of cases). The subscapular system allows for the creation of chimeric flaps that can include bone, muscle, fascia, fat, and skin. Flaps that have been used include the serratus anterior muscle and fascia, latissimus dorsi muscle and fascia, scapular and parascapular fascia and overlying skin, and scapular and rib bone. Such combinations allow for versatility in reconstructing complex three €‘dimensional defects that are often encountered in the face.
A 75-year-old man who had femoral-popliteal bypass surgery 2 weeks ago has an infection in the proximal groin. A muscle flap to fill the dead space is planned. Which of the following muscle flap options has a type IV Mathes-Nahai (multiple segmental vascular pedicles) vascular anatomy?
A) Gracilis
B) Rectus abdominis
C) Rectus femoris
D) Sartorius
E) Vastus medialis
The correct response is Option D.
The sartorius muscle classically has a type IV Mathes-Nahai vascular anatomy, which may limit its arc of rotation. In a recent study, even though the sartorius muscle has multiple segmental pedicles, there tend to be codominant superior and inferior pedicles that could possibly allow for the majority of the muscle to be raised on either the superior or inferior dominant pedicle.
Mathes-Nahai vascular anatomy classification for muscle flaps:
I – Single dominant vascular pedicle
II – Single dominant vascular pedicle with secondary minor vascular pedicles
III – Codominant major vascular pedicles
IV – Multiple segmental vascular pedicles
V – Dominant vascular pedicle with segmental secondary pedicles that can supply muscle if dominant is divided
Type II vascular anatomy is seen with the rectus femoris, vastus medialis, and gracilis muscles. The rectus abdominis has a type III vascular anatomy. Type V would be a latissimus dorsi muscle flap.
Which of the following vessels runs within the pedicle of the reverse sural artery flap and serves as primary venous drainage?
A) Femoral
B) Greater saphenous
C) Lesser saphenous
D) Popliteal
E) Posterior tibial
The correct response is Option C.
The reverse superficial sural artery flap (RSSAF) is a distally based fasciocutaneous or adipofascial flap that is increasingly being used for coverage of defects that involve the distal third of the leg, ankle, and foot. First described by Donski and Fogdestam and later championed by Masquelet et al, RSSAF has become a popular option for these difficult wounds. The description of the RSSAF (Masquelet flap) has revolutionized the osteoplastic armamentarium of surgeons not conversant with microvascular free flaps. The reliability of septocutaneous perforators has been well documented. Hence, raising a flap based on this reliable anastomosis of peroneal artery and median sural artery, along with the sural nerve and lesser (short) saphenous vein has been described to be successful.
A significant advantage of this flap is that it does not require sacrifice of a major artery to the lower limb. Touted for its ease of dissection, the RSSAF is often reputed to have a favorable complication profile as evidenced by a recent meta-analysis that found 82% of flaps heal without any flap-related complications. The main complications include venous congestion of the flap requiring delay or leech therapy in some higher-risk patients.
The greater saphenous vein runs proximal and medial to the lesser saphenous vein, and it drains the medial and anteromedial portion of the lower leg.
The popliteal vein drains the lesser (short) saphenous vein, and it is therefore not the primary drainage of the reverse sural flap. The anterior and posterior tibial veins are the deep venous drainage of the lower leg and do not drain the RSSAF.
The femoral vein is the deep venous drainage system in the upper leg.
A 5-year-old boy presents to the emergency department 4 hours after he sustained an amputation of his left index finger when it was slammed in a door. The parents brought the amputated digit in a plastic bag on ice. The amputation is at the level of the mid proximal phalanx. Which of the following is the most important reason to attempt replantation?
A) The amputation is proximal to the flexor digitorum superficialis insertion
B) The cold ischemia time is less than 6 hours
C) It is the index finger
D) It is a single-digit amputation
E) The patient is a child
The correct response is Option E.
Digital replantation should almost always be attempted in a child, except when the amputated part is severely crushed or there are other life-threatening injuries that preclude surgery. Replantation in children is technically more challenging due to the smaller size of the vessels. However, functional outcomes are more superior than in adults. The replanted parts have better sensory return and can have normal growth. Amputations through joints also exhibit remarkable joint remodeling.
A single digit amputation, especially proximal to the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) insertion is considered a contraindication to replantation. Digit replantations proximal to the FDS insertion have a poor range of motion as compared to amputations distal to the FDS insertion. This is, thus, an important landmark when making decisions about amputation versus replantation. Multiple digit amputations are an indication for replantation as the functioning deficit with loss of multiple digits is great. The thumb is responsible for 40% of the function of the hand and should always be replanted, if possible. Even if it is stiff and insensate, a replanted thumb will act as a post for opposition.
Index finger amputations at or proximal to the proximal interphalangeal joint are considered by many to be an indication for amputation. A stiff and painful index finger is likely to be excluded by the patient; amputation will result in better global hand function.
Digits tolerate longer ischemia times than more proximal level amputations, due to absence of muscle. Amputated digits tolerate warm ischemia times of 6 to 12 hours and cold ischemia times of 12 to 24 hours. Digital replantation has been reported with warm ischemia time of 33 hours and cold ischemia time of 94 hours. Cold ischemia time is thus not a major consideration in the decision-making process for amputation versus replantation.
Which of the following arteries is the major blood supply to the flap most often used in the reconstruction of open-knee defects?
(A) Anterior tibial
(B) Medial circumflex femoral
(C) Peroneal
(D) Posterior tibial
(E) Sural
The correct response is Option E.
The medial and lateral sural arteries supply circulation to the gastrocnemius muscle, which, when released and rotated proximally, provides the best coverage for complex knee wounds. The gastrocnemius muscle may be harvested with overlying skin or may be skin-grafted.
The medial circumflex femoral artery and profunda femoris vessels supply the gracilis muscle, which provides coverage for medial thigh and groin defects. It cannot be rotated distally.
The posterior tibial artery provides some blood supply to the soleus muscle, which is the preferred muscle coverage to wounds to the middle one third of the lower extremity. The posterior tibial, peroneal, and anterior tibial arteries provide perforators for fasciocutaneous flaps in the lower extremity, which are limited in their applicability and are too distal for coverage of the wound.
A 46-year-old man undergoes resection of a sarcoma involving the posterior neck. Photographs are shown. Which of the following arteries supplies the musculocutaneous flap used to reconstruct this defect?
A ) Circumflex scapular
B ) Deep temporal
C ) Internal carotid
D) Superficial temporal
E ) Transverse cervical

The correct response is Option E.
The transverse cervical artery is the blood supply to the trapezius flap which is used to reconstruct the defect described. The circumflex scapular artery is the blood supply to the scapular/parascapular flap. This artery has a length of approximately 6 to 7 cm and does not have the arc of rotation to reach a posterior neck defect. The deep temporal artery is the blood supply of the temporalis muscle. The arc of rotation of this muscle does not enable repair of posterior neck defects. The internal carotid artery does not give rise to branches that supply the muscles of the neck/back that may be useful for reconstruction of this defect. The superficial temporal artery is the blood supply of the superficial temporal fascia. This flap is quite thin with a limited reach and would not be appropriate for reconstruction of an extensive resection that includes skin, subcutaneous tissues, and muscle as shown.
In a patient who has undergone resection of a squamous cell carcinoma of the floor of the mouth, which of the following free flaps will provide vascularized bone and a sensate skin paddle?
(A) Iliac crest flap
(B) Lateral arm flap
(C) Parascapular flap
(D) Serratus anterior flap
The correct response is Option B.
Because the lateral arm flap provides both vascularized bone and a sensate skin paddle, it is best used for reconstruction of this patient’s defect involving the floor of the mouth. Vascularity and skin sensibility are provided by the radial collateral artery and posterior brachial cutaneous nerve (C5-6), respectively. As much as 7 cm * 12 cm of skin can be elevated with the flap; in addition, because of its periosteal attachments, as much as one-third of the posterior lateral humerus (or 10 cm to 15 cm in length and 1 cm to 1.5 cm in diameter) can be harvested.
The iliac crest osteocutaneous flap, which is based on the deep circumflex iliac artery, can provide a skin paddle as large as 12 cm * 6 cm and a bone segment as large as 8 cm ( 18 cm. Although this flap can be used for reconstruction of large mandibular segments and extensive soft-tissue defects, the skin component is bulky and insensate. Meticulous closure of the donor site defect is required to prevent hernia formation.
The parascapular flap is based on the circumflex scapular artery. Advantages of this flap include multiple skin paddles, a large segment of bone, and a high degree of independent motion between the skin and bone segments. The serratus anterior and/or latissimus dorsi muscles can be included with the flap to reconstruct complex defects. However, the skin paddles of this flap are also bulky and lack a cutaneous sensory nerve.
The serratus anterior flap is extremely versatile. Skin, muscle, and an iliac bone graft can be included with this flap; its pedicle is long and has a large diameter. It can be harvested as a functional muscle flap with inclusion of the branches of the long thoracic nerve; however, the upper four to five muscle slips must be preserved in order to prevent winging of the scapula. This primary disadvantage of this flap is that any bone incorporated with it will be less substantial and have poor vascularization when compared with other osteocutaneous flaps. The skin component of this flap is also insensate.
A 55-year-old woman is scheduled to undergo surgery for soft-tissue coverage of an open joint elbow wound. The vascular pedicle of the flap in the photograph shown passes between which of the following tendons?
A) Brachioradialis and abductor pollicis longus
B) Brachioradialis and flexor carpi radialis
C) Brachioradialis and flexor pollicis longus
D) Brachioradialis and pronator teres
E) Flexor carpi radialis and pronator teres

The correct response is Option B.
The clinical image shown depicts a radial forearm flap. The vascular pedicle of the radial forearm flap is the radial artery that is a branch of the brachial artery. Proximally, the radial artery runs deep to the brachioradialis muscle and it passes distally between the bellies of the brachioradialis and flexor carpi radialis. The radial forearm flap cutaneous paddle is perfused by septocutaneous perforators from the radial artery.
The other options are incorrect because the vascular pedicle does not pass between those muscles.
References
A 14-year-old girl who has flexion deformities of the right wrist and fingers, numbness of the radial-volar hand, and forearm atrophy 6 months after sustaining an electrical burn to the right upper extremity is brought for evaluation. A functional free gracilis muscle transfer is planned to improve finger flexion. Which of the following nerves innervates this flap?
A) Femoral
B) Genitofemoral
C) Ilioinguinal
D) Obturator
E) Pudendal
The correct response is Option D.
The gracilis muscle is the workhorse for functional muscle transfer, and it has been successfully used to restore hand function in patients with severe Volkmann ischemic contracture. Innervation of the muscle is via a branch of the obturator nerve, which is composed of 2 to 3 fascicular bundles. The nerve length from its emergence from the obturator foramen to its insertion into the muscle averages 7.7 cm, and separation of the fascicular bundles can allow the muscle to be segmented. The other nerves listed do not innervate the gracilis muscle.
A 52-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after sustaining injuries in a motor vehicle collision. Physical examination shows a traumatic degloving injury to the dorsum of the right hand with exposed, intact extensor tendons. Reconstruction with a fascial free flap and full-thickness skin grafting are planned. Which of the following arteries supplies blood to the most appropriate choice of flap?
A) Posterior auricular
B) Superficial temporal
C) Superior thyroid
D) Supratrochlear
E) Transverse facial
The correct response is Option B.
The temporoparietal fascial flap is supplied by the superficial temporal artery. This thin fascial free flap is useful in reconstruction of traumatic injuries that are not amenable to reconstruction with a skin graft alone. This flap is particularly useful in reconstruction of gliding surfaces with denuded tendons or exposed joints.
The posterior auricular artery is a branch of the external carotid artery and supplies the posterior ear. The superior thyroid artery arises from the external carotid artery and supplies the thyroid gland. The supratrochlear artery supplies the forehead and scalp. The transverse facial artery is a branch of the superficial temporal artery and supplies the parotid gland. None of these vessels is involved in the vascular supply of the temporoparietal fascial flap.
An 18-year-old man is scheduled to undergo free fibula flap for mandible reconstruction. The patient reports that he is a track and field athlete. Regarding the function of his great toe, which of the following is the most likely outcome?
A) Abduction deformity
B) Decreased flexion strength
C) Neuropathic pain
D) Normal extension
The correct response is Option B.
The fibula free flap is commonly used for mandibular reconstruction because of the availability of up to 25 cm of bone. However, donor site morbidity is a significant consideration and is common with this flap. Common motor morbidity includes impaired flexor hallucis longus (FHL) function, with a significant reduction in strength between the affected and unaffected legs. As a result of loss of the FHL and decreased opposition to the long toe flexors, claw toe deformity and weakened dorsiflexion are also common. Gait may be affected by these deformities.
Sensory deficits typically include the peroneal nerve distribution and may cause pain at the operative site or sensory deficits over the dorsum of the foot.
A 35-year-old man sustains a traumatic injury to the lower leg and undergoes closure of the wound using an anterolateral thigh free flap (shown). A cuff of muscle is harvested with the flap to fill a bone defect. Which of the following muscles can be safely harvested while using the same vascular pedicle as the flap?
A ) Adductor longus
B ) Rectus abdominis
C ) Vastus intermedius
D ) Vastus lateralis
E ) Vastus medialis

The correct response is Option D.
The anterolateral thigh flap is located over the lateral third of the thigh, between the borders of the rectus femoris and vastus lateralis muscle. Its blood supply comes from perforating branches of the lateral circumflex femoral artery and its venae comitantes. These vessels arise from the profunda femoris artery and vein. By utilizing the transverse branch of the lateral femoral circumflex artery and venae comitantes and their musculocutaneous perforators, the vastus lateralis muscle can be harvested with the anterolateral thigh flap. This muscle can be used for added bulk in the flap. The anterolateral thigh flap may also be harvested with the tensor fascia lata muscle. This flap may also be used as a functional muscle transfer.
The deep inferior epigastric artery arises from which of the following arteries?
(A) External iliac
(B) Femoral
(C) Internal iliac
(D) Internal mammary
(E) Superficial inferior epigastric
The correct response is Option A.
The deep inferior epigastric artery and vein arise from the external iliac artery at a point just proximal to where the artery passes beneath the inguinal ligament.
The internal mammary vessels provide the regional source for the superior epigastric artery. The femoral, internal iliac, and superficial inferior epigastric arteries are not source vessels for the deep inferior epigastric artery and vein. The femoral artery originates as the external iliac vessels exit from the inguinal ligament. The internal iliac artery supplies blood to structures within the pelvis.
A 65-year-old woman has a draining sinus tract at the lower chest 2 weeks after undergoing a cardiac bypass procedure. After extensive debridement, there is a large central defect requiring an omental flap for obliteration of the dead space. Which of the following arteries supplies the omental flap?
A) Gastroduodenal
B) Gastroepiploic
C) Left gastric
D) Superior epigastric
E) Superior mesenteric
The correct response is Option B.
The blood supply to the omental flap is through the right and left gastroepiploic arteries.
Understanding the anatomy and blood supply to the omentum is crucial for success in omental flap transfer. The greater omentum is harvested from the transverse colon, as the short gastric vessels are ligated and the gastroepiploic vessels preserved. The omentum can be transposed to the chest through either an opening in the diaphragm or a fascial defect in the abdominal wall.
The left gastric vessels arise from the celiac vessels and supply the lesser curvature of the stomach. The gastroduodenal artery arises from the celiac trunk and provides blood supply to the pylorus and proximal duodenum. One of the terminal branches of the gastroduodenal artery is the right gastroepiploic artery. The superior epigastric artery supplies the rectus abdominis muscle and is not intraperitoneal. The superior mesenteric artery arises from the aorta below the celiac trunk and supplies the lower duodenum through the transverse colon; it does not carry the blood supply necessary for design of an omental flap.
A 25-year-old woman who sustained the forearm avulsion shown in the photograph above subsequently underwent reconstruction using a free groin flap based on the superficial circumflex iliac artery. Which of the following best describes the vascular anatomy of this flap?
(A) The superficial circumflex iliac artery arises directly from the external iliac artery in approximately 85% of patients
(B) The superficial circumflex iliac artery arises from a common trunk, terminally splitting with the superficial inferior epigastric artery in approximately 70% of patients
(C) The superficial circumflex iliac and superficial inferior epigastric arteries have separate origins in approximately 40% of patients
(D) The superficial circumflex iliac artery is generally found approximately 1 cm below the inguinal ligament in approximately 70% of patients
The correct response is Option C.
The free groin flap is typically an axially patterned flap that receives its vascularity by the superficial circumflex iliac artery, which arises from the common or superficial femoral artery and then traverses laterally, parallel to the inguinal ligament, typically 2 to 3 cm inferior to the ligament. Although it provides excellent thin soft-tissue coverage of cutaneous defects and is associated with minimal donor site morbidity, especially in women, its use is limited by potential variations in vascular anatomy, as shown in the illustration below.
In 45% to 50% of persons the superficial circumflex iliac artery and superficial inferior epigastric artery arise from a common trunk, as shown in the figure on the left. In contrast, 40% to 45% of persons have a superficial circumflex iliac artery and superficial inferior epigastric artery that arise from separate origins, as shown in the figure on the right. The middle figure demonstrates a large superficial circumflex iliac artery without a superficial inferior epigastric artery, which is present in 10% to 15% of persons. In patients being considered for reconstructive procedures using the free groin flap, vascular anatomy can be determined preoperatively using Doppler ultrasonography.
In addition to its usefulness in coverage of cutaneous defects, as shown in the postoperative photograph below, the free groin flap can also be deepithelialized and transferred as soft-tissue fill in patients with Romberg’s disease or hemifacial microsomia.
A 28-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 30 minutes after he sustained avulsion injuries to the nondominant left hand when it became caught in a motor vehicle fanbelt. Physical examination shows amputation of the index finger at the level of the proximal interphalangeal joint as well as a 2 x 1-cm area of soft-tissue loss. Replantation of the amputated digit is performed, and the resulting 2 x 1-cm soft-tissue avulsion volar defect is covered with an arterialized venous flow-through flap with overlying skin interposed as a vein graft in the arterial repair. Which of the following is the most likely early complication of this flap procedure?
(A) Arterial thrombosis
(B) Congestion of the flap
(C) Failure of the replantation
(D) Hematoma from vessel leak
(E) Loss of flap due to infection
The correct response is Option B.
Venous flow €‘through flaps (VFTFs) are unusual but are gaining acceptance for certain kinds of hand and finger wounds. The ideal site for coverage with a VFTF is a long and narrow defect needing thin soft tissue. VFTFs typically become congested in the first week and then decongest over the following two weeks as they revascularize from the wound bed. VFTFs cannot reliably transfer composite tissue such as bone and tendon or cover a wide defect such as an entire palm. Because VFTFs do not bring in vascularization to the wound bed as well as classic flaps, they are not indicated in radiated or potentially infected wound beds. A small defect such as the 2-cm defect needing coverage during the replantation of the finger in the scenario described is the ideal candidate for this flap.
When compared with simple vein grafts, VFTFs are not associated with increased rates of arterial thrombosis, failure of replantation, or hematoma. Although VFTFs are more susceptible to infection than typical flaps, congestion of the flap with superior epidermolysis is a much more likely complication.






















