Body Contour - Abdominoplasty Liposuction Flashcards
In patients undergoing brachioplasty, which of the following is the most common long-term unfavorable result?
(A) Intermittent sharp pain in the arm
(B) Lymphedema of the hand and forearm
(C) Numbness of the medial arm
(D) Seroma of the upper arm
(E) Widening of the scar
The correct response is Option E.
Widened scars are the most common long-term complication following brachioplasty. These scars, which are typically located on the posteromedial upper arms, are red and visible for a minimum of one year and in fact may never completely fade. Patients should be informed of the potential for widened, visible scars prior to undergoing the procedure.
Intermittent sharp pain, lymphedema, numbness, and seromas can be complications of brachioplasty but are most likely to be temporary and to resolve within one to four weeks.
A 39-year-old woman presents for an abdominoplasty. She has a family history of thrombosis. Her only current medication is an oral contraceptive. BMI is 26 kg/m2. Which of the following factors has the largest impact on this patient’s risk for deep venous thrombosis?
A) Abdominoplasty
B) Age
C) BMI
D) Family history of thrombosis
E) Oral contraceptive use
The correct response is Option D.
It is recommended that plastic surgeons use the 2005 Caprini scale to assess the risk for deep venous thrombosis. On the basis of this scale, the patient’s family history of thrombosis contributes three points to her overall Caprini score.
The patient’s age, BMI, and use of birth control pills each contribute 1 point to her score.
Abdominoplasty would be considered a major surgery since the time for surgery is longer than 45 minutes. As a result, this would contribute two points to the patient’s Caprini score. While many surgeons consider abdominoplasty to carry one of the highest risks for deep venous thrombosis, this conclusion has not been supported by a review of the literature.
A 42-year-old man comes to the office because of numbness and pain near the elbow 1 year after undergoing bilateral L-brachioplasty following a 150-lb (68-kg) weight loss. Current weight is 200 lb (90 kg) and BMI is 32 kg/m2. Nerve electrical conduction studies are most likely to demonstrate injury to which of the following sensory nerves?
A) Lateral antebrachial cutaneous
B) Medial antebrachial cutaneous
C) Posterior antebrachial cutaneous
D) Radial dorsal cutaneous
E) Ulnar dorsal cutaneous
The correct response is Option B.
The demand for brachioplasty in the United States has increased as the number of patients undergoing bariatric surgery has increased. While brachioplasty is considered a safe and effective method of treating upper arm skin excess, the reported complication rate ranges from 25 to 40%. Most common complications of brachioplasty are considered minor and include seroma, poor scarring, edema, wound dehiscence, and underresection. The most common major complication is cutaneous nerve injury, which can occur in up to 5% of patients.
Medial placement of the brachioplasty incision in the bicipital groove is preferred because the ultimate scar will be hidden when the arm is adducted. Medial placement of the incision may damage the cutaneous nerves that run in this area. Both the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve and the medial brachial cutaneous nerve arise from the medial cord of the brachial plexus. The medial brachial cutaneous nerve runs with the basilic vein and sends two to four branches to the skin 7 cm proximal to the medial epicondyle. Another three to five branches pierce the fascia to innervate the skin at about 15 cm proximal to the medial epicondyle. The medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve runs in close proximity with the intramuscular septum and penetrates the fascia approximately 14 cm proximal to the medial epicondyle. At this point, the nerve runs superficially and is at risk for injury.
While injuries to motor branches of the median and ulnar nerve have been reported, these branches run deep to the brachial fascia and are not injured unless the intramuscular septum is inadvertently punctured.
A 43-year-old woman comes to the office for consultation regarding abdominoplasty. She says she is concerned about postoperative hypoesthesia of the abdominal wall. Which of the following areas is most likely to have the greatest decrease in sensation after a traditional abdominoplasty in this patient?
A) Epigastric
B) Infraumbilical
C) Lateral abdominal
D) Mons pubis
E) Subxiphoid
The correct response is Option B.
The innervation to the anterior abdominal wall comes from the anterior cutaneous branches of the 6th to 12th intercostal nerves. The anterior cutaneous nerves perforate the anterior rectus sheath and are severed during the undermining of the abdominal flap during abdominoplasty. The hypogastric or infraumbilical region becomes the distal-most point for sensory innervation from the surrounding intact lateral cutaneous branches of the intercostal nerves that innervate the lateral anterior abdominal wall. The transverse incision from the abdominoplasty limits innervation from the pubic and thigh regions. The mons pubis should not demonstrate much change in sensation as it lies inferior to the surgical scar.
Patients undergoing abdominoplasty should be made aware of the likely decrease in sensation of this area, including superficial touch, superficial pain, pressure, vibration, and temperature.
For women undergoing abdominoplasty after massive weight loss, which of the following is the best position of the navel?
A) Along the line drawn between the iliac crests
B) At the horizontal level of the tenth ribs
C) Between the first and second tendinous inscriptions
D) In the midline 10 cm above the vulvar commissure
E) One-third of the distance from the xiphoid to the pubis
The correct response is Option A.
As a result of the rapid increase in the number of bariatric surgical procedures performed each year, the frequency of body contouring procedures has risen concomitantly over the past decade. Among the most popular of these is abdominoplasty for resection of redundant skin on the torso. When designing the outline of skin to be resected, among the preeminent concerns is maximizing the aesthetic result of the procedure. Removal of the redundant panniculus may involve a low transverse incision only or a more extensive resection such as the fleur-de-lis or corset pattern incisions. The length of the navel stalk may limit any transposition of this structure. Accordingly, one must plan for sitting the navel in an aesthetically pleasing location to complement the finished result. The umbilicus is typically inset along a horizontal line that spans the iliac crests. This will result in the most natural appearance for most individuals. A location 10 cm above the anterior vulvar commissure would result in a placement that is unnaturally low. The other options would yield a position of the umbilicus that is too high.
An otherwise healthy 29-year-old woman presents for improvement of the appearance of her buttocks with added volume and projection throughout. Liposuction of the abdomen, flanks, and back is performed. Gluteal augmentation with autologous fat grafting is planned. The fat has been prepared and aliquoted into 60 mL syringes with a 5-mm-caliber blunt injection cannula attached. In order to both maximize the aesthetic results and decrease the risk for fat macroembolism, the injection cannula should be directed within which of the following tissue planes?
A) Intramuscular only
B) Subcutaneous inferiorly and superficial muscular superiorly
C) Subcutaneous medially and superficial muscular laterally
D) Subcutaneous only
The correct response is Option D.
Based on the Aesthetic Surgery Education and Research Foundation (ASERF) task force recommendations and knowledge of gluteal anatomy, the risk of fat macroembolism and subsequent mortality with gluteal fat grafting is greatest when fat is injected intramuscularly, cannulas smaller than 4 mm in diameter are utilized, and/or the cannula is directed in a downward (deeper) trajectory. Conceptually, placement of fat grafts into the subcutaneous plane only will likely avoid cannulation of or injury to the gluteal vein(s) and the risk of fatal pulmonary fat macroembolus.
When performing suction lipectomy using the superwet technique, the amount of blood loss in the suction aspirate is closest to which of the following?
(A) 0%
(B) 10%
(C) 20%
(D) 30%
(E) 40%
The correct response is Option A.
With the superwet technique, blood loss is approximately 1% of the suction aspirate. This technique uses a 1:1 ratio of subcutaneous infiltrate to aspirate. The infiltrate consists of saline or Ringer’s lactate solution, epinephrine, and in some cases lidocaine.
The first method of suction lipectomy, the dry technique, was associated with blood loss of 20% to 45% in the suction aspirate as well as substantial swelling and discoloration. It was performed under general anesthesia without infiltration of subcutaneous solutions before insertion of the suction lipectomy cannula. Except in limited applications, this approach has been abandoned.
The wet technique is associated with blood loss of 4% to 30% of the aspirate. In this technique, 200 to 300 mL of infiltrate or wetting solution, with or without additives, is injected into the operative field before insertion of the suction lipectomy cannula. Small doses of the vasoconstrictor epinephrine are added to the infiltrate.
Like the superwet technique, tumescent suction lipectomy is associated with blood loss of approximately 1% in the suction aspirate. However, it uses more infiltrate, up to 3 or 4 mL of infiltrate for each planned milliliter of aspirate.
A 44-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department because of the sudden onset of heart palpitations and anxiety 12 hours after undergoing abdominoplasty and liposuction. History includes breast cancer. She uses a transdermal patch for contraception. Height is 5 ft 5 in (165 cm) and weight is 152 lb (69 kg). During the abdominoplasty procedure, 4 L of Ringer’s lactate containing lidocaine 25 mg/L and epinephrine 1 mg/L were infused prior to the first incision, and 4.1 L of aspirate were obtained. Recovery had been uneventful until the current episode. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A ) Administration of 0.5 mg alprazolam (Xanax)
B ) CT scan of the chest
C ) Determination of serum lidocaine concentration in the blood
D ) Doppler ultrasonography of the lower extremities
E ) Reassurance and observation
The correct response is Option B.
The patient described most likely has an acute pulmonary embolism (PE) and should receive urgent medical attention at the nearest emergency department. Her age, recent diagnosis of breast cancer, and estrogen-based contraceptive use places her at moderate-to-high risk for deep venous thrombosis (DVT) and/or PE following surgery. In addition, the combination of large-volume liposuction and full abdominoplasty as a single procedure further increases her risk for these complications. Heart palpitations and anxiety are common complaints in patients experiencing a PE, as are shortness of breath and hyperventilation, but the diagnosis should not be overlooked in a situation like this, even if it is not a presenting symptom. A CT scan of her chest as dictated in a PE protocol is the appropriate diagnostic study to evaluate for PE and will provide the necessary justification to initiate anticoagulation therapy.
Advising her to go to the nearest emergency department to be monitored for lidocaine toxicity is not appropriate because lidocaine toxicity is not likely to be the correct diagnosis. Although serum lidocaine concentrations peak approximately 12 hours postoperatively, the lidocaine dose that she received was well within the established limits of safe lidocaine administration based on her body weight (7 mg/kg with the use of epinephrine).
Attributing her complaints to a preexisting anxiety disorder could have disastrous consequences in the scenario described. The patient is at a significant risk for a PE based on her medical history and her procedure; therefore, she should receive urgent medical care. Alprazolam (Xanax) is a respiratory depressant that could exacerbate her apparent hypoxia.
Doppler ultrasonography would be useful to evaluate for a lower extremity DVT, but it is not the most appropriate study to diagnose a PE.
Reassurance over the phone and arranging to see the patient in your office early the next morning is inappropriate, as any delay in diagnosis of such a serious complication could be potentially lethal.
Suction lipectomy is a viable means of breast reduction because the percentage of the female breast that is comprised of fat is closest to
(A) 10%
(B) 25%
(C) 50%
(D) 75%
(E) 90%
The correct response is Option C.
Suction lipectomy can be performed to remove fatty tissue in the breast without disturbing parenchymal tissue. It is an attractive option for breast reduction in women who would like to avoid the scarring associated with traditional surgical techniques. According to the results of one recent study that involved a significant population of overweight women, the mean percentage of fat in the breast was 61%. Another study of women predominantly of normal body weight showed a mean percentage of fat of 48%. In addition, these studies showed that younger patients have significant amounts of fat in the breast, even though the percentage of fat was shown to increase with age. Body mass index had more influence on the percentage of breast fat than age, and the amount of fat in the breast could not be accurately assessed on physical examination.
One clinical study reported that breast reduction via suction lipectomy alone produced the best results in women who had well-located or slightly ptotic nipples. Benefits of this technique include the avoidance of scarring and compromise to the blood supply and nerves to the nipple. However, many surgeons remained concerned about the effectiveness of suction lipectomy alone in patients with very large breasts, as well as the lack of skin excision, the potential for induction of microcalcifications, and the viability of pathologic examination of removed fat.
A 42-year-old woman is undergoing brachioplasty after a massive weight loss. The surgeon is most likely to avoid injury to the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve during the procedure if he or she is able to identify it in the elbow at which of the following locations?
A) Deep to the deep fascia traveling with the basilic vein
B) Deep to the deep fascia traveling with the cephalic vein
C) Superficial to the deep fascia traveling with the basilic vein
D) Superficial to the deep fascia traveling with the cephalic vein
The correct response is Option C.
The position of the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve (MABC) makes it vulnerable to injury during a brachioplasty. Understanding its course and relationship to other structures allows the surgeon to identify and protect it. The MABC is a sensory nerve. It is a terminal branch of the medial cord of the brachial plexus. It travels with the basilic vein medial to the biceps brachii muscle, and it pierces the fascia at the basilic hiatus proximal to the elbow. Injury to the MABC can cause areas of numbness of the median forearm, as well as painful neuromas. The MABC is best identified in the distal aspect of the brachioplasty incision with the basilic vein and protected during the dissection.
A 38-year-old woman comes to the office because of excess fullness of the proximal posterior arm. Pinch test shows a thickness of greater than 2 cm, and skin laxity is not excessive. Liposuction is planned. Which of the following is the most likely complication of liposuction of the upper extremity?
A) Contour irregularities
B) Hyperpigmentation
C) Injury to the ulnar nerve
D) Lymphedema
E) Seroma
The correct response is Option A.
The most common complication associated with liposuction of the arm is areas of overresection resulting in contour irregularities. Because such irregularities can be due to postoperative swelling, they should be treated conservatively for at least 6 months after surgery. Treatment may consist of fat grafting if contour abnormalities persist after 6 months. Early treatment may include lymphatic massage.
Although hyperpigmentation is possible, it is more commonly seen in the medial thigh in association with ultrasound-assisted liposuction. Seromas are rare in the upper extremity. Injury to the ulnar nerve at the elbow is possible, but it has not been reported. Care should be taken to avoid the nerve in placement of the cannula. While lymphedema is possible, if liposuction of the arm is limited to the posterior aspect, where major lymphatic channels are avoided, it can be prevented. Transient postoperative swelling is expected.
A 50-year-old woman is scheduled to undergo a cosmetic procedure in an ambulatory surgery center (ASC). The patient is concerned about her risk of dying during this procedure. This patient?s postoperative risk of death from a pulmonary embolism is highest if she undergoes which of the following procedures in an ASC?
A) Abdominoplasty
B) Augmentation mammaplasty
C) Rhinoplasty
D) Rhytidectomy
E) Suction lipectomy
The correct response is Option A.
Abdominoplasty is the procedure associated most frequently with postoperative mortality from a pulmonary embolism in an ASC.
The American Association for Accreditation of Ambulatory Surgery Facilities, Inc. (AAAASF) has collected statistics on morbidity and mortality for its accredited facilities. Mortality from office-based surgery is extremely rare. From 2001 to 2006, there were over 1 million outpatient procedures performed with 23 deaths. Pulmonary embolism was the cause in 13 of the 23 deaths. Twelve of the 13 pulmonary embolism deaths were associated with abdominoplasty alone or in conjunction with another procedure.
A post-bariatric surgery patient with excess medial arm skin is scheduled to undergo posteromedial scar-approach brachioplasty. Which of the following is the most likely advantage of this method of brachioplasty compared with other techniques?
A) Hidden location of the surgical scar
B) High mechanical stress on the surgical incision and scar
C) High risk for surgical scar widening and hypertrophy
D) Long surgical scar length
The correct response is Option A.
The brachioplasty or arm reduction approach for this type of patient would entail making a longitudinal excision of skin and subcutaneous fat running the full length of the arm, from axilla to elbow.
Brachioplasty is a body-contouring procedure often done in bariatric surgery patients who demonstrate laxity and tissue excess of the arms following weight loss.
The brachioplasty approach utilizing the posteromedial incision has been shown to minimize tension on the surgical incision, which leads to better scarring and less visibility of the arm scars.
A 32-year-old woman is interested in post-pregnancy body contouring. BMI is 34 kg/m2. When combined with abdominoplasty, liposuction of which of the following areas has an increased risk for wound healing complications?
A) Flank
B) Lateral hip
C) Lateral thigh
D) Mons pubis
E) Supraumbilical abdomen
The correct response is Option E.
Traditionally, the supraumbilical abdomen has been considered the area where liposuction might further disrupt blood supply already interrupted by the abdominoplasty undermining. Techniques to minimize undermining and preserve blood supply to allow more aggressive liposuction in this area have been reported and are in use. The mons pubis, lateral hip, flank, and lateral thigh blood supplies are less affected by abdominoplasty, and therefore, these areas have traditionally been less prone to complications when liposuction is performed in them at the time of abdominoplasty.
An otherwise healthy 35-year-old man comes to the office because of a 15-year history of bilateral Grade III gynecomastia. Height is 5 ft 10 in (178 cm) and weight is 187 lb (85 kg). BMI is 27 kg/m2. Physical examination shows breast enlargement with skin redundancy and palpable glandular and fatty tissue. Ultrasound-assisted lipectomy is planned because the patient wishes to avoid visible scars. Which of the following is most likely to minimize the need for skin resection?
A)Disruption of the inframammary fold
B)High energy setting
C)Peripheral feathering with standard liposuction
D)Treatment of the intermediate fat layer
E)Tumescent infiltration with a 3:1 ratio
The correct response is Option A.
Although surgery remains the mainstay of treatment for gynecomastia in this country, results have been inconsistent, with reported dissatisfaction rates as high as 50%. Common aesthetic problems reported after surgery include unacceptable scarring and nipple and areolar deformities such as tethering and malposition. As a result, less invasive techniques have evolved and are now the mainstay of treatment for all but the most severe forms of gynecomastia.
The use of ultrasound-assisted lipectomy has improved the outcomes in the treatment of all grades of gynecomastia. In the more severe grades, certain maneuvers will improve skin retraction and redraping and may thus eliminate the need for a subsequent procedure for skin excision. While fatty and fibrous tissue is best approached from a deeper subcutaneous plane, transition to a subdermal plane can allow for greater skin retraction. Moreover, disruption of the inframammary fold is essential in that it allows the skin to drape more naturally onto the abdomen, which is typical of a male breast.
The use of wetting solutions is imperative with ultrasound-assisted lipectomy to avoid burns. Both superwet (1:1) and tumescent (3:1) techniques are acceptable. The power of the unit should generally not exceed 90% to avoid burns and dermal injuries. Peripheral feathering improves contour, providing a smoother transition to the outer border of the breast, but does not specifically address skin excess.
A 45-year-old woman who has had a 100-lb weight loss since undergoing gastric banding two years ago comes to the office for consultation regarding loose skin on her upper arms. Physical examination shows significant ptosis of the posteromedial aspect of the upper arms and relaxation of the soft tissue. Fascia in which of the following regions is also relaxed in this patient and is appropriate for use as an anchor during brachioplasty to reduce widening and hypertrophy of the scars?
(A) Axillary
(B) Bicipital
(C) Deltoid
(D) Pectoral
(E) Tricipital
The correct response is Option A.
An important etiologic mechanism of the aesthetic arm deformity is relaxation of a longitudinal fascial system sling that extends from the clavicle to the soft tissues of the posteromedial aspect of the arm via the clavipectoral and axillary fascia. Reanchoring the soft tissues of the posteromedial aspect of the arm to the axillary fascia with nonabsorbable sutures addresses the relaxation of the axillary fascia sling and forms the basis for the anchor brachioplasty. Similarly to anchoring the soft tissues of the medial aspect of the thigh to the Colles fascia (perineum) in medial thigh lifts, fascial anchoring in brachioplasties provides more predictable results while reducing complications.
A 48-year-old woman undergoes liposuction of the abdomen, flanks, and thighs. Liposuction is performed using 4 L of infiltration fluid. Each liter is mixed with 50 mL of 2% plain lidocaine and 1 mL of 1:1000 epinephrine. At which of the following times after infiltration are concentrations of lidocaine in the blood expected to be the highest in this patient?
A) Immediately after injection
B) 1 hour after surgery
C) 2 to 4 hours after surgery
D) 8 to 18 hours after surgery
E) 24 to 48 hours after surgery
The correct response is Option D.
The safe dosage of lidocaine in liposuction is 35 to 55 mg/kg. Peak lidocaine levels are reported to be 8 to 18 hours after infiltration. Oftentimes, patients are discharged to home when peak levels occur. Surgeons should keep this in mind when calculating lidocaine dosage.
A 30-year-old woman has numbness of the forearm following a brachioplasty procedure to correct significant skin laxity. Which of the following nerves was most likely injured during the procedure?
A ) Axillary
B ) Intercostal brachial
C ) Medial antebrachial cutaneous
D ) Posterior interosseous
E ) Ulnar
The correct response is Option C.
The medial antebrachial cutaneous (MABC) nerve may be located within the resection area of the arm during brachioplasty, leading to regional paresthesia in the upper arm and the anterior proximal forearm. The MABC nerve exits 14 cm proximal to the medial epicondyle and tends to run in close proximity to the intramuscular septum. Patients may be treated with hand therapy and local massage, as well as medications such as gabapentin (Neurontin), if needed. Sensation often improves with the passage of time.
A 45-year-old woman is undergoing an abdominoplasty. The plastic surgeon plans to perform a regional block to target the anterior divisions of the spinal segmental nerves. Which of the following is the most appropriate abdominal plane for injection of the numbing medication?
A) Between the external oblique muscle and the internal oblique muscle
B) Between the internal oblique muscle and the transversus abdominis muscle
C) Between the skin and the external oblique muscle
D) Between the transversus abdominis muscle and the peritoneum
The correct response is Option B.
A transversus abdominis plane (TAP) block is best performed between the internal oblique muscle and the transversus abdominis muscle, and it is often used during abdominoplasty surgery and abdominal wall reconstruction surgery.
The three major muscles of the anterolateral abdominal wall are the external oblique muscle, the internal oblique muscle, and the transversus abdominis muscle. The innervation of the anterolateral abdominal wall is provided by the thoracoabdominal nerves and the ilioinguinal and iliohypogastric nerves. The TAP block targets these nerves in the plane between the internal oblique muscle and the transversus abdominis muscle.
A 35-year-old woman presents for liposuction of the anterior and posterior trunk under general anesthesia. Using a super-wet infiltration technique, 4 L of fat/liquid will be aspirated. The plastic surgeon plans to administer tranexamic acid 10 mg/kg intravenously as an off-label treatment to further reduce intraoperative blood loss. Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of tranexamic acid?
A) Active menorrhagia
B) Color blindness
C) Elevated liver enzymes
D) Known allergy to milk products
E) von Willebrand disease
The correct response is Option B.
Tranexamic acid (TXA) is a powerful antifibrinolytic agent that can be administered intravenously, orally, topically, or by injection, mixed with local anesthetic. While approved by the Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of heavy menstrual bleeding, it has many off-label uses in surgery, including cardiac surgery, spinal surgery, total-knee arthroplasty, and elective cesarean delivery. In plastic surgery, preliminary studies have shown TXA to be effective in reducing blood loss in craniofacial surgery, orthognathic surgery, and reduction mammaplasty. In aesthetic surgery, it has been found to be useful in face lift, rhinoplasty, and liposuction to reduce bleeding and hematoma. In one randomized study of super wet liposuction, blood loss in the liposuction aspirate was reduced by 37% in the TXA-treated group.
Transient changes in color vision have been reported following administration of TXA, and ophthalmalogic monitoring, including color vision assessment, should be a part of care for patients who receive TXA for longer than a few days as a part of toxicity monitoring. Because patients with color blindness cannot be monitored for changes, the manufacturer lists color blindness as a contraindication to TXA use.
Other contraindications to TXA use include known allergy to TXA, intracranial bleeding, known history of venous or arterial thromboembolism or active thromboembolic disease. Renal insufficiency may require dosage adjustment.
TXA can be used in the treatment of certain bleeding disorders, including von Willebrand disease. Milk allergy and elevated serum liver enzyme levels are not contraindications.
A 41-year-old woman comes to the office for consultation regarding irregular skin tone and uneven skin surface on the outer thighs one year after she underwent liposuction of the hips and thighs. On physical examination, the irregularities are radially oriented around a single small scar approximately 1 cm wide. No other scars are visible. The most likely explanation for these findings is use of which of the following during the liposuction procedure?
(A) Deep large cannula suction with cross-tunneling
(B) Fine cannula suction with cross-tunneling
(C) Fine cannula suction without cross-tunneling
(D) Superficial large cannula suction through a single port site
(E) Superficial large cannula suction with cross-tunneling
The correct response is Option D.
One of the most common deformities of liposuction is surface irregularity, which can result from several etiologies. A large cannula will create a large furrow that may be visualized if the liposuction is not done evenly. Use of a single port may also lead to irregularities because the suctioning is done from only one angle. Superficial suctioning is also more prone to visible irregularities. The best way to avoid this problem is to use small cannulas in the deep fat, with cross-tunneling from two sites such that the tunnels are at right angles to each other.
A 36-year-old woman with a BMI of 35 kg/m2 undergoes liposuction of the anterior trunk, posterior trunk, and circumferential thighs. Which of the following is the minimum volume of lipoaspirate that can be classified as “large volume” liposuction?
A) 1000 mL
B) 2500 mL
C) 5000 mL
D) 7500 mL
The correct response is Option C.
Lipoaspirate volumes over 5000 mL are what are widely considered to define “large volume” liposuction. This distinction has relevance as it relates to postoperative care. Patients undergoing “large volume” liposuction are often considered for overnight observation as an inpatient admission. The other volumes (1000 mL, 2500 mL, and 7500 mL) are not the cutoffs for consideration as “large volume” liposuction.
A patient who had massive weight loss comes to the office to discuss reconstruction. The surgeon determines that the patient would benefit from a lower body lift. Advancement of the flaps in this procedure will be best achieved by undermining which of the following zones of adherence?
A) Distal posterior thigh
B) Gluteal crease
C) Inferolateral iliotibial tract
D) Lateral gluteal depression
E) Mid medial thigh
The correct response is Option D.
Continuous or discontinuous release of the lateral gluteal depression would be the most effective in allowing the advancement of the flaps in a lower body lift. Though the gluteal crease is in proximity of the flaps, release here would undesirably blunt this crease. The other choices are not in proximity and their release would have little effect on advancing the flaps.
A 50-year-old man who weighs 155.5 lb (70 kg) is scheduled to undergo liposuction of the abdomen, flanks, and chest with administration of epinephrine and lidocaine for tumescent anesthesia. Which of the following amounts of lidocaine is the maximum for this patient?
(A) 7 mg
(B) 35 mg
(C) 150 mg
(D) 490 mg
(E) 2450 mg
The correct response is Option E.
For subcutaneous infiltration with 1% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine, 7 mg/kg of lidocaine is generally recommended. It has been shown, however, that the use of “tumescent fluid” with 1:1,000,000 epinephrine can be safely given with lidocaine doses as high as 35 mg/kg. Lidocaine toxicity can have an excitatory effect on the nervous system, such as tingling, numbness, mental status changes, and, eventually, seizures. Subsequent manifestations include CNS depression with cessation of convulsions, unconsciousness, and respiratory depression or arrest. In the heart, this mechanism depresses Vmax (i.e., the rate of depolarization during phase 0 of the cardiac action potential) and might lead to reentrant arrhythmias. Additionally, conduction through the sinus and atrioventricular (AV) nodes is suppressed. Acceleration of the ventricular rate has been reported in patients with atrial arrhythmias. Lidocaine also might elevate fibrillation thresholds. A negative inotropic effect on the myocardium and direct peripheral vasodilation might occur, which can produce hypotension. Lidocaine commonly is associated with sinus tachycardia, whereas bupivacaine has been known to cause ventricular tachycardia and fibrillation. Widening of the PR interval, increased QRS duration, sinus tachycardia, sinus arrest, and partial or complete AV dissociation can be seen.








