Hand Nerve Injury - Compression - Brachial plexus Flashcards
Which of the following is the most likely site of entrapment of the posterior interosseous nerve in the forearm?
(A) Arcade of Frohse
(B) Arcade of Struthers
(C) Band of Osborne
(D) Lacertus fibrosis
(E) Ligament of Struthers
The correct response is Option A.
Nerves of the upper extremity are prone to entrapment in areas of tight passage or at sharp inflection points. The site or level of compression defines the sensory and motor findings. The median nerve can become entrapped proximally in the arm by the ligament of Struthers, which is a dense band that can form between the supracondylar humeral process and the medial epicondyle. More distally, the median nerve can become entrapped beneath the lacertus fibrosis, which is a dense fascial sheet that extends proximally to the biceps tendon from the antebrachial fascia.
The ulnar nerve exits the arm in the medial intermuscular septum. Fascial folds in this area are known as the arcade of Struthers and can pinch the nerve, especially following anterior transposition. As the ulnar nerve passes through the cubital tunnel, a constricting band can form. This band, known as the band of Osborne, must be released during neuroplasty.
The radial nerve exits the arm after passing posterior to the humerus. It divides into the superficial and deep branches; the deep branch of the radial nerve, also known as the posterior interosseous nerve, can become entrapped, typically due to a fascial band over the supinator called the arcade of Frohse. The radial nerve here can also be compromised by vascular leashes, the edge of the extensor carpi radialis brevis, the edge of the proximal supinator, and the edge of the distal supinator. Proximal compression leads to weakness of extension of the wrist, finger, and thumb, often with radial deviation of the wrist because the extensor carpi radialis longus tendon is innervated proximally.
The pronator syndrome can be differentiated from anterior interosseous nerve syndrome by:
A) The lack of motor findings in the pronator syndrome
B) The lack of pain in the anterior interosseous nerve syndrome
C) The loss of sensibility associated with the pronator syndrome but not the anterior interosseous nerve syndrome.
D) EMG
E) Phalen’s test
Correct answer is option C.
The pronator syndrome can be distinguished from the anterior interosseous nerve syndrome by the loss of sensibility in the distribution of the median nerve, which is not a part of the anterior interosseous nerve syndrome. While motor findings are more common in the anterior interosseous nerve syndrome, they can occur in advanced pronator syndrome. Both syndromes will demonstrate pain in the proximal forearm and abnormal EMG findings in the majority of cases. Approximately one-third of anterior interosseous nerve syndromes occur spontaneously. Other causes are traumatic events, anatomic variation, infections, iatrogenesis, or forearm mass compression. Anterior interosseous nerve palsy has been described with vaccinations and pregnancy also.
A 24-year-old man has a 2.5-cm gap in the distal digital nerve of the dominant right index finger after cutting the finger while using a saw. Which of the following donor nerves is most appropriate for autografting?
(A) Dorsal branch of the ulnar nerve
(B) Medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve
(C) Superficial radial nerve
(D) Sural nerve
(E) Terminal branch of the posterior interosseus nerve
The correct response is Option E.
Selection of an appropriate nerve graft depends on the length, diameter, and function required from the graft. In addition, sensory loss at the donor site should not present a functional problem.
In this patient, the terminal branch of the posterior interosseous nerve will best match the required specifications for replacement of the severed digital nerve. The posterior interosseous nerve can be found deep to the extensor tendons at the level of the wrist. It lies in the floor of the fourth extensor compartment on the radial side, ulnar and deep to the extensor pollicis longus tendon and muscle. The terminal branch is frequently harvested for digital nerve defects because one fascicular strand can be transferred to replace a single digital fascicle. Because it is an articular branch of the nerve, there is no associated sensory deficit.
All of the other sources can be used for grafting but are inferior to the terminal branch of the posterior interosseous nerve for the replacement of a digital nerve. Although the dorsal branch of the ulnar nerve can provide approximately 15 cm of nerve for grafting, harvest of this branch is associated with numbness on the dorsoulnar aspect of the hand. Harvest of the lateral and medial antebrachial cutaneous nerves can be associated with significant donor site morbidity. This is a less favored site for grafting due to the large amount of interfascicular tissue surrounding the nerves.
From AI:
You’re correct that the terminal branch of the posterior interosseous nerve (E) is an appropriate donor for this scenario. Here’s the revised explanation:
Answer: (E) Terminal branch of the posterior interosseous nerve
Rationale:
1. Anatomical Suitability:
- The terminal branch of the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) is a small-diameter sensory nerve located in the dorsum of the wrist. Its size closely matches that of the distal digital nerve, optimizing regeneration outcomes.
- It is purely sensory, aligning with the functional requirements of a digital nerve graft.
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Low Donor Site Morbidity:
- Harvesting this nerve causes only a small area of numbness on the dorsum of the wrist, which is typically well-tolerated and less functionally significant compared to other donor nerves (e.g., sural nerve numbness on the lateral foot or superficial radial nerve deficits on the hand).
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Proximity to Injury Site:
- The terminal PIN is in the same surgical field (forearm/wrist) as the injured digital nerve, simplifying the procedure and avoiding distant incisions (e.g., leg for the sural nerve).
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Clinical Context:
- While the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve (MACN, option B) is also a valid choice, the terminal PIN is increasingly favored for short digital nerve gaps (2–3 cm) due to its expendability and minimal morbidity.
- The sural nerve (D) is better suited for longer grafts (>5 cm), and the superficial radial nerve (C) or dorsal ulnar nerve (A) may cause more significant sensory deficits.
Conclusion:
The terminal branch of the posterior interosseous nerve provides an optimal balance of size match, sensory function, and minimal donor morbidity for repairing a 2.5-cm digital nerve gap.
Key Takeaway: This question tests knowledge of donor nerve selection nuances. While MACN (B) is commonly used, the terminal PIN (E) is a well-supported alternative in specific cases, emphasizing the importance of surgical context and morbidity minimization.
Sites of ulnar compression at the elbow (cubital tunnel syndrome) include:
A) Osborne’s ligament
B) Transverse carpal ligament
C) Medial collateral ligament
D) Superior ulnar collateral artery
E) Lacertus fibrosis
Correct answer is option A.
Cubital tunnel syndrome, ulnar nerve compression at elbow, is the second most common peripheral nerve entrapment syndrome. Typically, there is a progressive worsening of symptoms related to compression of the ulnar nerve at the elbow. These symptoms begin with medial elbow pain and paresthesias in the ring and small fingers. Patients may complain of difficulty placing the affected hand into a pants pocket due to abduction for the small finger (Wartenberg’s sign). Symptoms progress to clumsiness and eventually to constant numbness with weakness and atrophy of the intrinsic muscles of the hand.
On examination findings of Tinel’s sign over cubital tunnel, reproduction of symptoms with elbow flexion/compression suggest cubital tunnel syndrome. Patients may have other ulnar nerve findings. There are many potential structures which can compress the ulnar nerve at the elbow. The ulnar nerve is most commonly compressed by the cubital tunnel retinaculum also known as Osborne’s ligament, which runs from the medial epicondyle to the olecranon. An anomalous muscle, the anconeus epitrochlaris, may also contribute to compression beneath the cubital tunnel retinaculum. The fascia of the flexor carpi ulnaris and the proximal fascia of the flexor digitorum superficialis may also compress the nerve distally. A prominent medial head of the triceps and the medial intermuscular septum may both contribute to compression just proximal to the medial epicondyle; the intermuscular septum is more commonly problematic when incompletely excised at the time of a transposition procedure. Finally, the Arcade of Struthers which is inconsistently present, is formed by a fascial connection between the medial intermuscular septum and triceps fascia the internal brachial ligament and may contribute to compression well proximal to the medial epicondyle. In short, the ulnar nerve can be compressed at the elbow at the point at which the ulnar nerve pierces the medial intermuscular septum, Arcade of Struthers, Anconeus muscle, Osborne’s fascia and the medial epicondyle, and the deep flexor pronator aponeurosis.
A 21 year-old woman who rows regularly with her university’s crew rowing club comes to the office because she has had pain on movement of the right thumb as well as pain and swelling of the distal forearm for the past month. She has not sustained trauma to the hand or arm. Physical examination shows tenderness and crepitus 4 cm proximal to the wrist and over the distal and radial aspects of the forearm. Slight discomfort is noted on ulnar deviation of the wrist with the thumb clasped in the palm. No grinding or crepitance of the thumb carpometacarpal joint is noted. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management of this patient’s condition?
(A) Injection of a corticosteroid into the first dorsal compartment
(B) Injection of a corticosteroid into the third dorsal compartment
(C) Splinting of the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb
(D) Splinting of the wrist in extension
(E) Observation
The correct response is Option D.
The patient described has findings consistent with intersection syndrome, a tenosynovitis of the second dorsal compartment (common radial wrist extensors) associated with pain and swelling of the muscle bellies of the abductor pollicis longus (APL) and extensor pollicis brevis (EPB), 4 cm proximal to the wrist joint (ie, where the muscle bellies of APL and EPB cross extensor carpi radialis longus and extensor carpi radialis brevis). As in other stenotic conditions of the hand and wrist, it is associated with repetitive motions of the wrist and is frequently seen in athletes, especially rowers and weightlifters. Initial nonoperative treatment consists of rest, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), splinting of the wrist in 15 degrees of extension, and, in some patients, injection of a corticosteroid into the second dorsal compartment. For those with persistent pain, surgical release of the second dorsal compartment beginning at the wrist and extending proximal to the area of swelling may be necessary.
De Quervain disease, a tenosynovitis of the first dorsal compartment, presents with wrist pain on the radial side aggravated by movement of the thumb, most often in women aged 40 €“60 years. Local tenderness and swelling 1 to 2 cm proximal to the radial styloid and knifelike pain on Finklestein test (clasped thumb in palm while wrist is ulnarly deviated) is diagnostic. In mild cases, rest, NSAIDs, and splinting of the wrist in gentle extension and the thumb widely abducted may be successful. Injection of a corticosteroid into the first dorsal compartment may be successful in 50% €“80% of patients following one or two injections. If nonsurgical modalities are unsuccessful, then surgical release of the first dorsal compartment is successful, if variations of this compartment are appreciated and addressed.
Tenosynovitis of the extensor pollicis longus (third dorsal compartment) is rare but requires early diagnosis and urgent operative treatment to prevent tendon rupture, a complication rarely seen with de Quervain disease, trigger finger, or trigger thumb. It presents with pain, swelling, tenderness, and often crepitus at Lister €™s tubercle. Surgical treatment consists of third dorsal compartment release and tendon transposition radial to Lister €™s tubercle. Injection of a corticosteroid is rarely indicated.
Degenerative arthritis of the thumb most frequently affects the carpometacarpal joint. Diagnosis can be made by a positive grind test (ie, crepitations elicited with axial loading combined with the rotation of the thumb metacarpal), and confirmed with radiographs that show destruction of the articular surface and joint space. Early-stage disease may be treated with rest, splinting, NSAIDs, and thenar strengthening. If this fails to relieve pain, then ligament reconstruction may be performed, based on the extent of joint surface destruction. As the patient progresses to end-stage degeneration of the carpometacarpal joint, carpometacarpal arthrodesis, trapezium hemiprosthesis, ligament reconstruction-tendon interposition arthroplasty, or hemi- or complete trapeziectomy may be appropriate management.
Targeted muscle reinnervation allows for increased type of which of the following prosthetic controls for an above-elbow amputee?
A) Cable
B) Electromyographic
C) Passive
D) Switch
The correct response is Option B.
Upper limb amputation is a devastating loss, more so than lower limb amputation. The level of amputation portends increased functional loss, i.e., forearm-level amputees maintain more functional capacity than above-elbow amputees. Many patients with upper extremity amputations rely on their prosthetic for daily functional demands. Patients with an above-elbow amputation have less muscles to exert control of a prosthetic, which makes multiple simple movements difficult and compound movements especially challenging.
There are multiple types of prostheses for the upper extremity. There are passive prosthetics, which are frequently cosmetic but may allow for a stable post for the other extremity. Functional prosthetics are body-powered (via cable controls) or externally powered (myoelectric, switch control). Body-powered prostheses use the remnant body motions through a harness (i.e., scapular and humeral motion for a transhumeral amputee) via cable to control motion and the force of a terminal device. These are simple devices that do not require as much maintenance and have more longevity, but they are limited in terms of functionality.
Myoelectric prostheses use the remnant muscle contractions via electromyographic (EMG) capture for prosthetic control. The more independent discrete electromyographic signals there are, the more potential functional options of the prosthetic there are. If there are minimal/limited EMG sensor options, then switch control can be used. Switch control is when small switches are turned on/off to increase control for separate components of a prosthetic. Switch control can be combined with myoelectric control to increase functionality for higher level amputees. For example, a transhumeral-level amputee can use switch control to position the elbow, while EMG signals from the biceps and triceps control wrist/hand motion.
Targeted muscle reinnervation (TMR) uses nerve transfers to “hyperreinnervate” muscles to allow for increased distinct electromyographic signals as well as increased amplification of signals, increasing control sites for prosthetic functionality. A good example is using residual peripheral nerves of transhumeral amputees, such as the median, radial, and ulnar nerves, to increase independent control of each biceps and triceps head as well as brachialis. TMR therefore allows for increased EMG control of a myoelectric prosthetic.
Histologic evaluation of nerves after TMR compared to neuroma demonstrate which of the following?
A) Increased myelinated fiber cross-sectional area
B) Increased myelinated fiber counts
C) Increased fibrous tissue
D) Increased S100 staining
E) Biphasic cellularity
Correct answer is option A.
A histologic study of neuroma and nerves after TMR in a rabbit model demonstrated that compared to neuroma, nerves after TMR demonstrated a more grossly normal appearing architecture and increased myelinated fiber cross-sectional area. Myelinated fiber counts were significantly decreased after TMR when compared to neuroma and were more similar to control nerves. Increased fibrous tissue and S100 staining are common histologic findings of traumatic neuromas. Biphashic cellularity is a histologic finding seen in schwannomas.
A 42-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of a severely painful mass on the upper right arm and numbness in the right forearm six months after undergoing decompression neuroplasty with submuscular transposition. This procedure was performed for progressively worsening compression of the dominant ulnar nerve at the elbow. She developed severe complex regional pain syndrome two weeks after the procedure. Physical examination shows a 0.5-cm mass proximal and central to the medial epicondyle that is adherent to the skin and extremely sensitive. Examination shows decreased sensation to light touch over the ulnar volar forearm. Following excision of the neuroma, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
(A) Medial epicondylectomy
(B) Nerve stump implantation
(C) Stress occupational therapy program
(D) Topical lidocaine patch
(E) Ulnar nerve vein wrap
The correct response is Option B.
The ulnar nerve neuroplasty is complicated by complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) with an associated nerve injury. The medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve (MABC) of the forearm originates from the medial cord of the brachial plexus (shown in the diagram below). The MABC derives from the C8 and T1 roots. In the mid arm, the MABC and the basilic vein pierce the deep fascia and provide sensation to the overlying ulnar volar forearm skin. The MABC can be injured during ulnar nerve at the elbow neuroplasty. If CRPS develops from an identifiable nerve injury, resolution is best achieved by identifying and correcting the nerve injury. In the scenario described, excision and tensionless implantation into adjacent muscle or bone is the most appropriate option.
Medial epicondylectomy would not address the primary MABC neuroma, nor would wrapping the ulnar nerve with a vein graft. A stress occupational therapy program can be useful in CRPS without an identifiable nerve injury. With the injury described, however, the pain more likely would worsen. Topical transdermal anesthetic patches can alleviate but not resolve the nerve pain.
A 23-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after sustaining a single gunshot wound to the right upper arm. Physical examination shows a high radial nerve palsy. Which of the following is the most appropriate first step in management of potential nerve injury?
A ) Immediate surgical exploration and primary nerve repair if nerve is lacerated
B ) Immediate surgical exploration and repair with a nerve graft if nerve is lacerated
C ) Immediate surgical exploration, resection of devitalized nerve, and suture tagging of nerve ends for delayed repair
D ) Observation with electromyography six weeks after injury followed by exploration and repair if no return of function
E ) Observation with electromyography six months after injury followed by exploration and repair if no return of function
The correct response is Option D.
In general, nerve injuries associated with open wounds should be explored and repaired early. If the nerve injury resulted from a relatively clean laceration or wound, it should be explored and repaired immediately. Crush or significant soft-tissue injury prohibits early nerve repair until the extent of devitalized tissue can be determined and the soft-tissue repair is stable.
Although gunshot wounds are technically open injuries, they should be treated as closed or blunt nerve trauma because the etiology of the trauma is predominately heat and shock. The majority of nerve dysfunction spontaneously recovers after gunshot wounds. Thus, the most logical first step in treatment is observation for at least six weeks at which time electrodiagnostic studies can be undertaken.
If there is not complete clinical return of function within six weeks, electrodiagnostic studies should be performed for baseline function and repeated at 12 weeks if clinical return of function is still not complete. If electromyography does demonstrate motor unit potentials, expectant management should be continued as full function should return. Electrodiagnostic studies should not be delayed for six months because long-term function is significantly decreased if nerve repair is delayed longer than three months.
Lack of clinical or electrical evidence of reinnervation at three months requires surgical exploration. A nerve that has been completely divided or fails to conduct intraoperatively should be managed with resection of scar tissue and repair of the nerve gap with an interpositional nerve graft. An in-continuity lesion should undergo neurolysis of nonfunctioning nerve units and nerve grafting. The functioning units can remain intact.
A 20-year-old man is undergoing nerve grafting for reconstruction of a 2-cm digital nerve gap. During operative exploration, the distal aspect of the posterior interosseous nerve is identified initially beneath the extensor tendons of the fourth compartment of the forearm. As the nerve is dissected proximally, it courses beneath which of the following muscles?
(A) Brachioradialis
(B) Extensor digitorum communis
(C) Extensor digitorum quinti
(D) Extensor indicis proprius
(E) Extensor pollicis longus
The correct response is Option E.
The terminal branch of the posterior interosseous nerve is a good source of nerve for grafting of small distal gaps of the digital nerves because it leaves no cutaneous sensory loss at the donor site. This nerve branch can be found at the floor of the fourth compartment, beneath the extensor digitorum communis and extensor indicis proprius muscles, but travels more proximally beneath the extensor pollicis longus muscle. The posterior interosseous nerve does not traverse deep to the extensor digital quinti. The superficial radial nerve travels beneath the brachioradialis muscle and emerges at the wrist.
A 34-year-old man has radial nerve palsy six months after undergoing open reduction and plate fixation of a fracture of the humeral diaphysis. The integrity of the radial nerve was confirmed at the time of the initial injury. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
(A) Dynamic extension splinting
(B) Injection of a corticosteroid
(C) Tendon transfers
(D) Interpositional nerve grafting
(E) Neurolysis
The correct response is Option C.
In patients with high radial nerve palsy, the primary goal is restoration of extension of the wrist, fingers, and thumb. If the nerve was intact at the time of the initial surgery and there is subsequently no return of function six months later, further improvement is unlikely, and tendon transfers are indicated at this time.
Transfer of the pronator teres to the extensor carpi radialis brevis is frequently performed to recover wrist extension. To regain finger extension, the flexor carpi radialis, flexor carpi ulnaris, or flexor digitorum superficialis of the long or ring fingers is transferred into the distal extensor digitorum communis tendons. Transfers to regain thumb extension include the palmaris longus or flexor carpi radialis to the extensor pollicis longus. Additionally, some surgeons advocate end-to-side tendon transfers.
The extensor carpi radialis brevis cannot be transferred to the extensor digitorum communis because it is also affected by the radial nerve palsy. Transfer of the flexor digitorum profundus tendon of the long finger is associated with significant loss of function at the donor site.
Splinting is not indicated in a patient who has persistent radial nerve palsy six months after the initial procedure.
Injection of a corticosteroid is inappropriate treatment of radial nerve palsy.
Because the nerve is shown to be intact, the presence of a neuroma in continuity may be inhibiting the reinnervation process. EMG should be performed to determine the potential for nerve grafting or neurolysis in this patient. However, most nerve grafting procedures in adults provide only limited improvement in motor and sensory functions six months after denervation.
A 50-year-old woman previously diagnosed with left forearm compression neuropathy of the superficial radial nerve comes to the office for examination. The patient has not responded to 7 months of conservative management which consisted of NSAID therapy, steroid injection, a trial of splinting, and activity modification. Operative treatment is planned. Fascial release between which of the following two tendons is most appropriate in this patient?
A) Abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis
B) Brachioradialis and extensor carpi radialis longus
C) Extensor carpi radialis longus and extensor carpi radialis brevis
D) Flexor carpi radialis and abductor pollicis longus
E) Flexor carpi radialis and brachioradialis
The correct response is Option B.
Superficial radial nerve compression of the forearm occurs most frequently at the posterior border of the brachioradialis where the nerve transitions from a deeper, subfascial position to a more superficial, subcutaneous location. Also known as Wartenberg syndrome, patients may present with pain, numbness, or tingling over the dorsal radial hand radiating to the dorsal thumb and index finger.
Symptoms of superficial radial nerve compression may be confused with symptoms of de Quervain’s tenosynovitis. In addition, both conditions may coexist simultaneously.
Patients diagnosed with superficial radial nerve compression are initially treated conservatively since this approach is successful in relieving symptoms in the majority of cases. Conservative management consists of rest, splinting, removal of external compression source (such as a tight wristwatch band, bracelet, or handcuffs), and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications.
Surgery is indicated when conservative measures fail. Surgical decompression involves release of the fascia between the brachioradialis and extensor carpi radialis longus tendons. It is at this interval that the nerve transitions from deep to superficial and prone to compression. The other responses do not reflect the correct surgical anatomy of this condition.
A 48-year-old woman has numbness and paresthesia of the right hand 2 years after mastectomy and radiation therapy. She reports no pain or night waking. Symptoms have not improved with cock-up wrist splints or injection of a corticosteroid into the carpal tunnel. Physical examination shows swelling and weakness of the right arm, most prominently in the C5-C6 distribution; no varicosities, stasis ulcers, dermatitis, or symptoms of Horner syndrome are noted. Allen test is normal. Electromyography shows myokymia. CT scan shows diffuse swelling but no mass. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A ) Acute ischemic injury
B ) Carpal tunnel syndrome
C ) Chronic venous insufficiency
D ) Radiation-induced brachial plexopathy
E ) Tumor recurrence
The correct response is Option D.
The most likely diagnosis is radiation-induced brachial plexopathy, which can occur when radiation therapy is directed at the chest, axillary region, thoracic outlet, or neck. The incidence is 1.8 to 4.9% of those patients receiving radiation therapy to the above areas and is most common in patients with underlying breast or lung carcinoma. Patients often have sensory symptoms, with swelling and a generalized weakness of the arm. Eighteen percent of patients have pain in the shoulder, wrist, or hand. The neurologic findings are most prominent in the C5-C6 distribution. The lymphatic-vascular system may show prominent lymphedema of the involved extremity without cyanotic or dusky features. There should be no disturbance of arterial or venous circulation in the involved extremity and no changes in the limb to suggest venous insufficiency (ie, varicosities, stasis ulcers, or dermatitis). The Allen test should be normal. Horner syndrome is not present in patients with radiation-induced brachial plexopathy.
Eighty percent of patients with tumor infiltration into the brachial plexus come to the office because of pain in the shoulder, upper arm, elbow, and ring and little fingers. Symptoms progress to atrophy and weakness of the C7-T1 distribution with persistent pain and occasional Horner syndrome. CT scan shows a discrete mass with circumscribed tissue infiltration. Electromyography shows segmental slowing.
Patients with acute ischemic injury have symptoms of paresthesia in the C5-C6 nerve distribution and acute, nonprogressive weakness and sensory loss. CT angiography would
demonstrate subclavian artery segmental obstruction. Electromyography shows segmental slowing.
Patients with carpal tunnel syndrome often have night waking and experience a period of symptomatic relief after injection of a corticosteroid into the carpal tunnel.
Chronic venous insufficiency does not typically have neurologic sequela.
A 29-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of a deep laceration of the medial right arm at the elbow. Examination shows complete loss of ulnar nerve function to the right hand. During exploration in the operating room, complete transection of the ulnar nerve at the elbow with a 3-cm nerve gap after debridement is noted. Which of the following procedures is most likely to result in the earliest recovery of intrinsic muscle function in this patient’s hand?
A) Anterior interosseous nerve transfer
B) Cable grafting with nerve allografting
C) Cable grafting with sural nerve grafting
D) Primary repair with the elbow in flexion
E) Ulnar nerve transposition and primary repair
The correct response is Option A.

The most appropriate answer is transfer of the anterior interosseous nerve to the motor branch of the ulnar nerve in the distal forearm. Ulnar nerve injuries are especially debilitating with loss of grip and claw hand deformity. High ulnar nerve injuries are considered to be anything proximal to the innervation of the flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor digitorum profundus muscles at or near the elbow. This includes the elbow, upper arm, and brachial plexus.
The prognosis for recovery of intrinsic hand function is poor in high ulnar nerve injuries 30 to 35 cm proximal to the hypothenar eminence. This is due to the length of time required for nerve regeneration, and the motor endplate degeneration that occurs during this time. High ulnar nerve injuries will exceed the approximately 18-month window for regeneration in order to achieve meaningful muscle recovery.
The theory behind nerve transfer surgery is to take an expendable donor nerve and use the fascicles to restore function to a more critically injured nerve. The anastamosis for an AIN-to-ulnar nerve transfer is 8 to 10 cm proximal to the wrist crease and greatly decreases the amount of distance and therefore time required for reinnervation of intrinsic hand muscles. Although the anterior interosseous nerve contains 75% of the axons of the deep motor branch of the ulnar nerve, meaningful recovery of intrinsic muscle function can be expected. The anastamosis for the transfer can be done in an end:end or end:side technique. End-to-side nerve transfer is indicated in partial nerve injuries or lower nerve injuries where primary repair of the injured nerve is possible and one can expect some contribution of nerve fibers from the native nerve.
Primary repair of any nerve injury under tension or that requires extreme joint flexion is not indicated. This results in tension at the repair site, internal scarring, possible flexion contracture, and a poor result. Anterior transposition of the ulnar nerve may be performed in some instances but is reported to gain only 1 cm of length from the proximal nerve. This is not enough to bridge the gap in this scenario.
Any attempt at primary repair of a nerve injury with a 3-cm gap would require nerve grafting. In a mixed nerve, multiple cables of nerve graft are recommended in an attempt to topographically reconnect the sensory and motor fascicular bundles. The current gold standard for nerve repair in adults is autograft. The most common donor nerves are the sural nerve and medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve.
Processed nerve allograft has become a viable alternative to autograft nerve. The allograft nerve is processed and decellularized but maintains the microstructure of the nerve tissue including the fascicular anatomy and microvasculature. The allograft is rapidly revascularized without the donor site morbidity associated with autograft. The RANGER study has demonstrated S3 and M4 or above recovery in 86% of repairs using allograft nerve in gaps up to 5 cm. This question specifically asks about the most rapid recovery of motor function, which should occur with a nerve transfer.
A 24-year-old man comes to the office because of a brachial plexus injury sustained in a motorcycle accident. Nerve transfer to the biceps for restoration of elbow flexion is planned. Which of the following fascicles or nerves is the most appropriate donor for the transfer?
A) Distal spinal accessory nerve
B) Flexor carpi ulnaris fascicle of the ulnar nerve
C) Medial pectoral nerve
D) Palmaris longus fascicle of the median nerve
E) Thoracodorsal nerve
The correct response is Option B.

Adult upper trunk brachial plexus injuries result in significant disability. Several surgical treatment strategies exist, including nerve grafting, nerve transfers, and a combination of both approaches.
The flexor carpi ulnaris (FCU) fascicle of the ulnar nerve to biceps transfer was first described by Oberlin et al in 1994. Generally, the donor nerve with the largest caliber and the greatest number of motor axons should be used for elbow flexion. The other suggested nerve transfer options are also possibilities, but are not as preferable as the FCU fascicle transfer. MacKinnon has advocated transfer of the FCU fascicle of the ulnar nerve to the biceps and FCR fascicle of the median nerve to the brachialis to maximize recovery of elbow flexion.
A 25-year-old man comes to clinic because he has increasing severe pain in the hand three days after undergoing open reduction of a fracture of the distal radius. Physical examination shows extreme swelling of the hand. Which of the following clinical findings is most likely to confirm the suspected diagnosis of compartment syndrome in the hand of this patient?
(A) Diminished sensation on the dorsum of the hand
(B) Pain on active flexion and extension of the fingers
(C) Pain on passive adduction and abduction of the fingers
(D) Pain on passive extension and flexion of the wrist
(E) Pain on passive flexion and extension of the fingers
The correct response is Option C.
The diagnosis of compartment syndrome is primarily a clinical one based on muscle and nerve ischemia. It is possible to measure intracompartment pressure, but the decision to perform a fasciotomy should be based on a high degree of suspicion, close observation of the patient, and clear understanding of the etiology.
Compartment syndrome ischemia may be severe and still not affect the color and temperature of the fingers. The distal pulses are rarely obliterated by compartment swelling, even though muscle and nerve circulation is minimal. The hallmark of muscle and nerve ischemia is pain. The pain is persistent, progressive, and unrelieved by immobilization. Accentuation of the pain by passive muscle stretching is the most reliable clinical test for making the diagnosis of compartment syndrome.
In performing the passive stretch test, one simply stretches the muscle or muscles in the compartment in question, and this should cause severe pain. There are ten compartments of the hand. The intrinsic compartments of the hand are tested by passively abducting and adducting the fingers while keeping the metacarpophalangeal joints in full extension and the proximal interphalangeal joints in flexion. If this maneuver causes a marked increase in pain, the test is diagnostically significant. The adductor compartment to the thumb can be tested by simply pulling the thumb into palmar abduction and thereby stretching the adductor muscle. The thenar muscles are tested by radial abduction of the thumb and the hypothenar muscles by adducting the little finger. Passive or active finger motion can elicit pain seen with other conditions such as flexor tendon infections or injuries, and this is a later and less specific finding.
Diminished sensation is the second most important finding and indicates nerve ischemia as it passes through the affected compartment. The third most important finding is weakness and/or diminished muscle function. Also, palpation of the closed compartments in the hand for tenseness and tenderness should confirm the diagnosis.
A 35-year-old man sustains a laceration of the volar aspect of the left index finger at the level of the mid phalanx while using a knife. There is smooth flexion and extension of the proximal interphalangeal and distal interphalangeal joints. Examination of the fingertip shows good color and capillary refill. Two-point discrimination is 5 mm on the ulnar aspect of the fingertip but is absent on stimulation of the radial aspect. On exploration, a laceration involving 45% of the cross-sectional area of the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon is noted. The radial digital nerve and artery are transected. The ulnar neurovascular bundle is intact. In addition to repair of the radial digital nerve, which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A) Immediate protected mobilization
B) Repair of the FDP tendon with core and epitendinous sutures and splint immobilization for two weeks followed by protected mobilization
C) Repair of the FDP tendon with core sutures and splint immobilization for two weeks followed by protected mobilization
D) Repair of the FDP tendon with epitendinous sutures and splint immobilization for four weeks followed by protected mobilization
E) Splint immobilization for four weeks followed by protected mobilization
Correct answer is A.
Tendon lacerations of less than 60% of the cross-sectional area of the tendon do not require repair. Attempts to repair the tendon may weaken it. Triggering may occur if the distal or proximal cut edge of the tendon catches on adjacent pulleys. If triggering occurs, trimming the cut edges of tendon, partial or complete pulley release, and repair of the flexor sheath can be performed. In cases of persistent triggering that persists despite these measures, the tendon can be repaired. In the absence of triggering, the tendon does not require treatment. Protected mobilization is performed to promote tendon gliding and strengthening. Despite early recommendations for several weeks of immobilization following digital nerve repair, the outcomes of digital nerve function following immediate protected mobilization are not statistically different than those managed with immobilization.
A 52-year-old man presents for evaluation of a claw deformity of the right ring and small fingers. Medical history includes an unrepaired low ulnar nerve injury sustained 30 years ago. Which of the following is the most likely pathophysiology of this patient’s deformity?
A) Unbalanced abductor digit minimi muscle
B) Unbalanced median and ulnar innervated intrinsic muscles
C) Weak thenar muscles
D) Weak ulnar innervated extrinsic flexor muscles
E) Weak ulnar innervated intrinsic muscles
The correct response is Option E.
Clawing after ulnar nerve injury includes hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints and flexion of the interphalangeal (IP) joints. The pathophysiology includes paralysis of the interossei and third and fourth lumbricals. Unopposed long extensors cause the metacarpophalangeal joints to fall into extension while the long flexors pull the proximal interphalangeal joints into flexion. This posture is the classical ‘claw hand.’
A 13-year-old boy is brought to the office because he has difficulty opening his hand and extending his fingers. History includes release of the forearm compartments to treat a pulseless hand following a supracondylar humerus fracture 2 years ago. On physical examination, passive extension of the fingers is restricted when the wrist is fully extended; it improves with full wrist flexion. Which of the following muscles is the most likely cause of the limitation described?
A) Flexor carpi radialis
B) Flexor carpi ulnaris
C) Flexor digitorum profundus
D) Flexor digitorum superficialis
E) Lumbricals
The correct response is Option C.
The most likely cause of the restricted finger extension described is fibrosis of the flexor digitorum profundus muscle. The patient exhibits Volkmann ischemic contracture as a complication of late treatment (over 24 hours from the time of initial ischemia) of arterial compromise associated with the fracture. The muscle groups at the greatest risk during these ischemic episodes are within the deep flexor compartment of the forearm. This risk occurs because the arterial supply is relatively distant from the usual site of occlusion and because this compartment is relatively less distensible. In the scenario described, the flexor digitorum profundus and flexor pollicis longus are at the greatest risk.
Superficial muscle groups such as the flexor carpi radialis, flexor carpi ulnaris, and the flexor digitorum superficialis typically recover some function and do not lead to contractures in the forearm. Likewise, the small muscles of the hand, such as the lumbricals, tend to be less severely injured than the deep compartment of the forearm.
A 54-year-old woman comes to the office because of a 6-year history of weakness and numbness of the left hand. Physical examination shows decreased sensation in the thumb, index, long, and ring fingers. No other sensory abnormalities are noted. Examination of which of the following muscles is most likely to confirm a diagnosis?
A ) Abductor pollicis brevis
B ) Adductor pollicis
C ) First dorsal interosseous
D ) Flexor digiti minimi
E ) Flexor pollicis brevis
The correct response is Option A.
The examination of the patient described suggests an injury or compression neuropathy of the median nerve. The only intrinsic muscle innervated by the median nerve (recurrent branch) that can be reliably tested separately from the ulnar intrinsic muscles is the abductor pollicis brevis. The adductor pollicis, first dorsal interosseous, and flexor digiti minimi are all completely innervated by the ulnar nerve. The flexor pollicis brevis muscle has dual innervation from both the ulnar (deep head) and median (superficial head) nerves.
A 23-year-old man sustained a complete laceration of the ulnar nerve at the level of the elbow four weeks ago when he was stabbed in the nondominant forearm with a knife. After surgical nerve preparation, a 2-cm gap is present. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
(A) Use of a vein conduit
(B) Tendon transfers
(C) Mobilization of the nerve 15 cm proximally and distally
(D) Sural nerve grafting
(E) Ulnar nerve transposition
The correct response is Option E.
In this 23-year-old man who has a 2-cm nerve gap after sustaining a clean laceration of the ulnar nerve at the elbow four weeks ago, the most appropriate next step in management is transposition of the ulnar nerve. Because transposition of this nerve at the elbow provides as much as 4 cm of length, it is recommended in this patient in whom primary coaptation cannot be performed because of nerve retraction.
Ulnar nerve transposition may yield as much as 3 cm of length when performed in the arm, 2 cm of length at the forearm, and 1 to 2 cm of length at the distal forearm and wrist. Transposition is also appropriate for repair of median and high radial nerve injuries.
Vein conduits should only be considered if direct repair and transposition are not options.
Tendon transfers alone do not restore sensory function, and are recommended for late reconstruction only when nerve repair is no longer an option.
Extensive mobilization of the ulnar nerve into the mid forearm may cause devascularization and injury to distal nerve branches and ultimately worsen functional outcome.
Sural nerve grafting may be considered if transposition of the ulnar nerve results in tension following nerve coaptation.
A 33-year-old woman comes to the office because of volar numbness of the right thumb, index, long finger, and palm for the past 4 months. Medical history includes no abnormalities. Physical examination shows weakness of the palmar abduction of the thumb and interphalangeal joint flexion of the thumb. Percussion tenderness over the volar aspect of the wrist does not reproduce symptoms. Passive flexion of the wrist does not reproduce symptoms. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Anterior interosseous syndrome
B) Carpal tunnel syndrome
C) Cubital tunnel syndrome
D) Posterior interosseous syndrome
E) Pronator syndrome
The correct response is Option E.
Pronator syndrome is a compression neuropathy of the median nerve in the proximal forearm. Paresthesias in the palm and the median nerve–innervated fingers of the thumb along with weakness of the flexor pollicis longus muscle are classic findings in pronator syndrome. Pronator syndrome can be differentiated from carpal tunnel syndrome by sensory symptoms and numbness occurring in the palm, which is innervated by the palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve. This branch comes off the proper median nerve proximal to the carpal tunnel. Findings of weakness of the flexor pollicis longus muscle and often the flexor digitorum profundus muscle to the index finger are often seen in pronator syndrome. Anterior interosseous syndrome is a motor-only compression of the median nerve in the proximal forearm; sensory findings are not present. Cubital tunnel syndrome or ulnar nerve compression at the elbow presents with sensory findings in the small and ring fingers and may also affect the interosseous muscles. Posterior interosseous syndrome affects the extensor muscles in the forearm and is not the pathologic lesion described in the scenario.
A 51-year-old truck driver comes to the hand clinic because he has had constant burning pain in the left arm since he injured the left wrist while loading a truck two weeks ago. Since the injury, avoiding use of the wrist and wearing an immobilization splint on the wrist have not relieved the pain. On physical examination, the left hand, wrist, and forearm are swollen and mildly mottled. The wrist is extremely sensitive to touch. Range of motion of the left wrist and forearm is significantly decreased. Which of the following findings is most likely on additional evaluation of this patient?
(A) Decreased resting sweat output
(B) Decreased temperature readings on thermography
(C) Increased leukocyte count
(D) Increased uptake on a three-phase bone scan
(E) Osteoporosis on plain radiographs
The correct response is option D.
This patient’s clinical picture is consistent with early complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) type I, formerly referred to as reflex sympathetic dystrophy (RSD). A reliable adjunctive tool in confirming the clinical diagnosis is the third phase of a three-phase bone scan. For the scan to be considered indicative of CRPS, the third phase typically shows diffuse increased periarticular activity in the involved joints. Increased uptake is variable in children. In time, results of the three-phase bone scan return to normal.
Radiographic evidence of osteoporosis secondary to CRPS, historically referred to as Sudeck atrophy, does not appear until the third to fifth week of the syndrome. Sudeck atrophy typically demonstrates diffuse osteopenia, juxtacortical demineralization, and subchondral erosions or cysts. This Alag@ in radiographic changes is explained by the fact that calcium content must be altered by 30% to 50% before becoming evident on conventional plain radiographs. The radiographic features of rapid bone loss include visible demineralization with patchy, subchondral, or subperiosteal osteoporosis, metaphyseal banding, and profound bone loss. Despite the osteoporosis, fractures are uncommon.
Other available diagnostic tools include thermography and resting sweat output. Thermography is an indirect method of measuring blood flow to an extremity. Patients with CRPS typically show elevated temperature readings on thermography indicative of increased local blood flow. Resting sweat output quantifies abnormal autonomic system activity by measuring the amount of resting sweat that occurs on the extremity. Patients with CRPS have elevated autonomic system activity and, therefore, demonstrate increased resting sweat output.
Leukocyte count is not helpful in confirming the diagnosis of CRPS.
A 17-year-old girl comes to the office because she has persistent wrist drop and weakness of digit extension three weeks after she fractured the intraarticular distal portion of the radius while snowboarding. Open reduction and internal fixation was performed under general anesthesia. A wide-cuff, pneumatic tourniquet was placed over cast padding; inflation pressure was 100 mmHg over the patient’s systolic blood pressure. Reduction was difficult, and tourniquet time was 180 minutes. Use of which of the following interventions is most likely to have decreased the risk of this complication?
A) Elastic stocking rather than cast padding beneath the tourniquet
B) Esmarch bandage as the tourniquet
C) Narrow width tourniquet cuff
D) Standard inflation pressure of 250 mmHg
E) Tourniquet deflation/reperfusion period
Correct answer is option E.
The intervention most likely to decrease the incidence of nerve palsy in the patient described is providing a period of tourniquet deflation (“breather period”) during which tissue acidosis may reequilibrate.
Despite advances in equipment and technique, complications from tourniquet use in upper extremity surgery still occur. The most common problems involve either neurologic or skin complications. Experimental studies suggest that most neurologic sequelae appear to be related to prolonged ischemia, high local tourniquet pressure, or some combination of the two.
Both elastic stockings and cast padding have been shown to decrease skin complications from tourniquet use; neither has been shown to have any effect on neurologic complications.
Esmarch bandages, although effective as tourniquets, provide unpredictable levels of pressure on the arm and have consequently been replaced by automated cuffs and pumps.
Wide tourniquets, with ratios of cuff width to arm circumference greater than 0.5:1, have been shown to achieve hemostasis at lower pressures than narrow cuffs.
Although many surgeons reflexively set upper extremity tourniquets at 250 mmHg, the optimal inflation pressure to minimize risk and maximize hemostasis appears to vary widely depending on body habitus, type of anesthesia, and comorbidities such as hypertension.
















