Hand - Extensor and Flexor Tendon Injury Flashcards
A 16-year-old boy is brought to the office after “jamming” the right long finger of the dominant hand while playing football. Upon active extension, the patient exhibits an extension lag of 40 degrees at the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint, and hyperextension at the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Central slip disruption
B) Flexor digitorum profundus avulsion
C) PIP volar plate tear
D) Sagittal band rupture
E) Swan neck deformity
Correct answer is option A.
This is the basis of the Elson test for central slip disruption of the extensor mechanism of the finger. When the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint is maximally passively flexed, the central slip is normally pulled distally, resulting in slack in the terminal tendon. Injury to the central slip eliminates this slack through the lateral band and allows extensor tension to be generated at the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint. Thus, with central slip injury, the DIP joint can be actively extended with maximal PIP flexion. Swan neck deformity results from terminal extensor tendon disruption and total inability to extend the DIP joint independent of PIP position. Flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) avulsion results in inability to flex the DIP joint. In the Elson test, DIP flexion is always possible. PIP volar plate injury may result in jamming of the volar plate within the PIP joint and paradoxical inability to flex (extension contracture) at the PIP joint. There will also be hyperextension PIP joint pain and laxity. Sagittal band disruption results in inability to actively extend at the metacarpophalangeal joint, but the finger can often maintain extension if passively placed in this position.
A 25-year-old woman presents with a Zone II laceration of the left index finger flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) and flexor digitorum profundus (FDP). Repair of the FDP and only one slip of FDS is planned. Compared with repairing both slips of FDS, repair of only one slip of the FDS will result in a decrease of which of the following?
A) Range of motion
B) Rate of tendon healing
C) Resistance
D) Risk for infection
E) Strength of FDP repair
The correct response is Option C.
There is a close proximity of the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) and flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendons in Zone II lacerations. Due to this, adhesion formation is common after injury. Repairing only one slip of the FDS tendon allows for more room within Camper chiasm during motion, which has been found to decrease resistance and improve glide during motion. It has also not been found to limit active range of motion when compared with repairing both FDP and FDS in Zone II. Due to the improvement in glide and decreased resistance, fewer adhesions occur. This also decreases the work of flexion as well. Due to increased adhesion formation with repair of both FDP and FDS in Zone II, there is an increased rate of secondary surgeries for tenolysis. There is no change in the risk for infection or change in the rate of tendon healing with this type of repair compared with repairing both slips of FDS.
A 54-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after sustaining a laceration of the right hand from a box cutter. Physical examination shows a laceration over the palmar proximal phalanx of the long finger. Complete laceration of the A2 pulley is found at exploration. If the pulley is not repaired, which of the following best describes how flexor tendon mechanics will be affected?

The correct response is Option C.
The moment arm of the joint refers to a perpendicular line drawn from the mid axis of the joint to the tendon causing movement in the joint. The moment arm represents torque and can be thought of as power at an individual joint. The system can be broken down into simpler terms by thinking of wrenches of different lengths. The longer the wrench, the greater the amount of power can be placed in the turning of a nut onto a bolt. The same applies to the joints of the hand. As the tendon itself gets farther away from the center of rotation of the joint (increased moment arm), there is an increase in the torque on that joint, and, in turn, the power acting upon the rotation of the joint. As a flexor tendon gets farther away from the PIP joint (increase in moment arm), for the same strength of pull, there is an increase in force to that joint. However, there is also a loss of efficiency because the excursion of the tendon needs to increase more and more as the tendon itself gets farther away from the axis of rotation. A greater amount of excursion is required to flex the joint through to a given angle. Therefore, only an increase in moment arm, decrease in PIP joint motion, and increase in power is an appropriate response. This has clinical significance in situations such as those presented in the scenario described. Cutting the A2 pulley allows the tendon to migrate farther in a palmar direction, or “bowstring” away, from the axis of rotation. This yields an increase in the moment arm, a decrease in tendon excursion, and, ultimately, an increase in power, with the loss of efficiency. The range of motion is decreased as the flexor tendons can no longer flex the joint fully. This effect is strongest in the A2 and A4 pulleys, which prevent bowstringing of the tendons at the proximal and middle phalanges, respectively.
A 28-year-old woman comes to the office for follow-up examination after six weeks of splinting to correct a closed injury without fracture of the right index finger. Despite instructions to wear the splint at all times, the patient says she has been taking it off when she showers and when she types at work because it gets in the way. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
(A) Splinting for an additional six weeks
(B) Transarticular fixation with Kirschner wires
(C) Central slip tenotomy
(D) Open repair with direct suturing of the terminal tendon
(E) Fusion of the distal interphalangeal joint
The correct response is Option B.
This patient has a mallet finger deformity. No fracture was involved; therefore, it is considered a Type I mallet injury. Patients are sometimes noncompliant or not well instructed regarding how the splint is to be used. Both the Fowler tenotomy and open repair should be reserved for chronic cases of mallet finger. In fact, open repair with direct suture of the terminal tendon has shown poor results. Fusion of the distal interphalangeal joint is an extreme method of treating this condition and would not be indicated at this time. An additional six-week period of splinting would be appropriate in a compliant patient. One author has shown that mallet fingers that remain untreated for up to 12 weeks can be treated conservatively with six weeks of splinting. However, a noncompliant patient would benefit from transarticular fixation with Kirschner wires, which would be more difficult to manipulate versus splinting alone.
A 27-year-old man comes to the office because of an inability to extend the distal phalanx of the long finger after slamming it in a door 3 hours ago. Physical examination shows that the distal phalanx of the long finger is held in 75 degrees of flexion. The patient has no active extension of the joint. Ecchymosis and swelling over the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint is noted. No skin laceration or abrasions exist. X-ray study shows no fracture. A congruent joint is noted. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A ) Arthrodesis of the DIP joint in 15 degrees of flexion
B ) Exploration and repair of the extensor tendon
C ) Percutaneous pin fixation of the DIP and proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints
D ) Splinting of the DIP joint at 0 degrees
E ) Observation only
The correct response is Option D.
Avulsions of the terminal extensor tendon, as well as mallet fingers, are some of the most common hand injuries. Tendon avulsion from the distal phalanx may involve the tendon itself or a portion of its bony attachment. In the absence of large joint subluxation or fractures involving large fracture fragments, conservative nonoperative management with splinting is the recommended treatment.
Conservative treatment involves splinting in extension or slight hyperextension. This can involve prefabricated stack splints, malleable aluminum splints, or casting. Outcomes of each of these treatments are similar, but the type of splinting is generally more limited by skin irritation. Pin fixation for the DIP joint is recommended for patients who cannot tolerate splinting or those with special circumstances, such as a surgeon who requires unencumbered use of the hand. Pin fixation should cross the DIP joint only.
An 18-year-old football player comes to the office because he has been unable to flex his ring finger since tackling an opponent during a game 3 hours ago. Physical examination shows the distal joint in the neutral position with an inability to actively flex. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of injury?
A ) Forced axial load compression
B ) Forced distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint extension with simultaneous maximal flexion effort
C ) Forced metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint extension with simultaneous maximal abduction effort
D ) Forced pilon style crush
E ) Forced proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint extension with simultaneous maximal extension effort
The correct response is Option B.
Jersey injury occurs when a player grabs the opposing player’s jersey. The DIP joint is in a flexed position and when the tackle is broken, there is a forced extension. Flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) avulsion occurs 75% of the time in the ring finger. In Type I, the tendon only retracts into the palm and requires urgent repair and reinsertion within 7 to 10 days. In Type II, the tendon retracts to the PIP joint level being tethered by the long vinculum. Repair can be delayed 6 to 12 weeks. In Type III, a large bony fragment blocks the tendon from entering the A4 pulley and can be repaired at any time. The FDP insertion is avulsed from the distal phalanx with or without bone fragments. Force applied in any of the other vectors would not create FDP avulsion.
Which of the following tendons comprise the compartment that forms the volar border of the anatomic snuff box?
(A) Abductor pollicis brevis and extensor pollicis longus
(B) Abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis
(C) Extensor digitorum communis and extensor indicis proprius
(D) Extensor pollicis longus and abductor pollicis longus
(E) Flexor carpi radialis and flexor pollicis longus
The correct response is Option B.
The volar border of the anatomic snuff box is comprised of the abductor pollicis longus (APL) and extensor pollicis brevis (EPB) tendons (first dorsal compartment). The dorsal border is comprised of the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon (third dorsal compartment).
The above diagram shows the dorsal compartments of the forearm. The abductor pollicis brevis tendon is the most radial component of the thenar musculature; the extensor digitorum communis (EDC) and extensor indicis proprius (EIP) tendons are found in the fourth dorsal compartment. The flexor carpi radialis (FCR) tendon can be found radial to the other tendons within the superficial compartment of the volar forearm at the level of the wrist. The flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon lies within the deepest compartment of the volar forearm.
Five weeks after undergoing primary repair of an injury to the flexor digitorum profundus tendon of the ring finger in zone II, a 33-year-old man suddenly loses the ability to flex the distal interphalangeal joint of the ring finger. A controlled trial of early motion was initiated following surgery. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Continued occupational therapy
B) Repeat operative exploration and repair
C) Insertion of a silicone rod
D) Tenolysis
E) Arthrodesis
Correct answer is option B.
The most appropriate next step in management is repeat operative exploration and repair. This patient has most likely ruptured the flexor tendon. This typically occurs four to six weeks after initial repair and is most commonly caused by excessive grip force or significant devascularization of the tendon.
Further occupational therapy is not necessary in a patient who has good passive range of motion following rupture.
Staged reconstruction with insertion of a silicone rod and/or delayed tendon grafting is appropriate following tendon rupture if passive range of motion of the finger is significantly limited or there is an insufficient quantity of flexor tendon sheath.
Tenolysis is indicated in patients who have tendon adherence or scarring following tendon repair. This procedure is typically delayed for four to six months following the initial repair, and is most effect if the repair is intact and full passive range of motion is maintained.
Arthrodesis may be considered if the flexor tendons and flexor sheath cannot be repaired or reconstructed. This procedure provides stability but results in slightly flexed positioning of the finger.
Surgical reconstruction of the oblique retinacular ligament is primarily used to treat which of the following?
A) Boutonnière deformity
B) Flexor digitorum profundus tendon avulsion
C) Sagittal band rupture
D) Scapholunate ligament injury
E) Swan-neck deformity
The correct response is Option E.
Spiral oblique retinacular ligament (SORL) reconstruction is used to address digital swan-neck deformity. The procedure is predicated on surgically recreating the proposed function of the oblique retinacular ligament (ORL); linking proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint and distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint flexion and extension. The ORL arises from the flexor tendon sheath at the base of the proximal phalanx, extends distally and dorsally over the PIP joint, and fuses with the lateral extensor tendon. Because of the site of the ORL origin and insertion, PIP joint extension places the ORL under tension, which results in DIP joint extension. PIP joint flexion, however, decreases tension in the ORL and allows DIP joint flexion. Although anatomical studies are conflicting regarding the actual presence and function of the ORL, surgically recreating this proposed function has been used to treat swan-neck and mallet deformities. Thompson, Littler, and Upton described the dynamic SORL reconstruction in 1978 as an alternative to static techniques, such as transferring a single lateral band volarly to prevent PIP joint hyperextension. In a SORL reconstruction, a free tendon graft is fixated to the dorsal distal phalanx, passed over the radial aspect of the middle phalanx, and then “spiralled” palmarly across the PIP joint, where it is then secured to the ulnar aspect of the proximal phalanx.
A flexor digitorum profundus avulsion (i.e. Jersey finger) is typically managed by reinserting the tendon into the volar base of the distal phalanx. If delayed greater than 8 to12 weeks, interposition tendon reconstruction may be necessary. A boutonniere deformity generally occurs as a result of a central slip injury; this leads to a flexed posture of the PIP joint and an eventual hyperextended posture of the DIP joint as the lateral bands translate volarly. If closed, splinting is indicated. If the central slip was lacerated, an open repair is recommended. A sagittal band tear may cause pain and subluxation of the extensor mechanism at the MCP joint and can be treated with splinting or repair. A scapholunate ligament tear can be directly repaired if acute, or reconstructed using a variety of techniques in the absence of scapholunate advanced collapse and arthritis of the wrist. If arthritis has developed, then partial or total wrist fusion may be indicated.
A 75-year-old woman with severe carpal tunnel syndrome has impaired movement of the right thumb. Once the thumb is positioned correctly, it can oppose. Which of the following tendon transfers will best improve thumb motion in this patient?
(A) Abductor digiti minimi (Huber)
(B) Extensor carpi ulnaris (Phalen/Miller)
(C) Extensor indicis proprius (Burkhalter)
(D) Flexor digitorum superficialis of the ring finger (Bunnell)
(E) Palmaris longus (Camitz)
The correct response is Option E.
In this 75-year-old woman who has severe carpal tunnel syndrome, the palmaris longus tendon should be transferred to improve thumb motion. Patients with severe carpal tunnel syndrome are often unable to fully clear the thumb from the palm. The Camitz abductorplasty can be used to augment the abductor pollicis brevis tendon with the palmaris longus.
In contrast to an abductorplasty, a true opponensplasty restores thumb-finger opposition. Opponensplasties vary according to their point of insertion and associated pulleys. The Bunnell opponensplasty involves transfer of the flexor digitorum superficialis tendon of the ring finger, while the Huber opponensplasty transfers the abductor digiti minimi tendon. The Phalen-Miller opponensplasty is a transfer of the extensor carpi ulnaris tendon, and the Burkhalter opponensplasty involves transfer of the extensor indicis proprius tendon.
Under normal conditions, the intrinsic muscles of the hand move the metacarpophalangeal, proximal interphalangeal, and distal interphalangeal joints in which of the following ways?

The correct response is Option D.
The intrinsic muscles are those with an origin and insertion within the hand and include the muscles of the thenar and hypothenar compartments, interossei, and lumbricals. They account for approximately 53% of grip strength and 85% of pinch strength. In general, the intrinsic muscles produce metacarpophalangeal joint flexion and interphalangeal joint extension, which occurs because the tendons of lumbrical and interosseous muscles are volar to the metacarpophalangeal axis of rotation but dorsal to the interphalangeal axis of rotation. The exception is when the metacarpophalangeal joint is hyperextended when the dorsal interosseous tendon is capable of producing extension. Tightness of these intrinsic muscles can be evaluated by the Bunnell-Littler test, whereby the force required to passively flex the proximal interphalangeal joint increases with extension of the metacarpophalangeal joint.
A 25-year-old lawyer comes to the office because of a 1-year history of limited ability to extend the right long finger at the proximal interphalangeal joint with no limitation of flexion following a jammed finger after playing basketball. X-ray study shows a normal articular surface and no evidence of fracture or foreign body. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s condition?
A) Dorsal collateral ligament contracture
B) Dorsal edema
C) Dupuytren contracture
D) Extensor adhesions
E) Flexor adhesions
The correct response is Option E.
Previous injuries to a flexor tendon or canal can result in scar formation of the tendon to an adjacent structure. Other structures which can limit digital extension include volar plate contracture (including checkrein ligaments), collateral ligament contracture (true and accessory), scarring or insufficiency of the skin volar to the joint, and joint irregularity, arthrosis, or bony block.
Dorsal collateral ligament contractures can limit the passive and active flexion of the PIP joint. Dorsal edema occurs commonly following injury near the PIP joint but also limits flexion of the joint. Dupuytren contracture rarely involves the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint in a patient of the age described; it is a spontaneously occurring condition that is more common with advanced age. The metacarpophalangeal joint is more likely to be involved first, followed by the PIP joint. Extensor adhesions can occur following injury to the dorsal finger and are a common cause of limitation in flexion.
An 18-year-old football player comes to the office because he has been unable to flex his ring finger since tackling an opponent during a game 3 hours ago. Physical examination shows the distal joint in the neutral position with an inability to actively flex. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of injury?
A) Forced axial load compression
B) Forced distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint extension with simultaneous maximal flexion effort
C) Forced metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint extension with simultaneous maximal abduction effort
D) Forced pilon style crush
E) Forced proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint extension with simultaneous maximal extension effort
Correct answer is option B.
Jersey injury occurs when a player grabs the opposing player’s jersey. The DIP joint is in a flexed position and when the tackle is broken, there is a forced extension. Flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) avulsion occurs 75% of the time in the ring finger. In Type I, the tendon only retracts into the palm and requires urgent repair and reinsertion within 7 to 10 days. In Type II, the tendon retracts to the PIP joint level being tethered by the long vinculum. Repair can be delayed 6 to 12 weeks. In Type III, a large bony fragment blocks the tendon from entering the A4 pulley and can be repaired at any time. The FDP insertion is avulsed from the distal phalanx with or without bone fragments. Force applied in any of the other vectors would not create FDP avulsion.
An 18-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after sustaining a degloving injury to the dorsal aspect of the nondominant left hand in an all-terrain vehicle rollover. Physical examination shows loss of the soft tissues and the extensor tendons of the index, long, ring, and little fingers and an abnormal Allen test. Fractures of the second, third, and fourth metacarpal shafts are also present. Following serial debridements, the patient has a dorsal hand defect measuring 6 × 8 cm with obvious open fractures. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of the soft-tissue defect?
A) Anterolateral thigh free flap
B) Full-thickness skin grafting
C) Rectus abdominis muscle free flap
D) Reverse radial forearm flap
E) Split-thickness skin grafting
The correct response is Option A.
Degloving injuries of the dorsal hand are managed initially with serial debridements. Negative pressure dressings can also be used as a bridge to definitive soft-tissue reconstruction. Single-stage reconstruction involves bone fixation, tendon reconstruction, and soft-tissue coverage. Dorsal hand defects with exposed bone cannot be safely reconstructed with a split-thickness skin graft and require durable coverage. Although more durable than split-thickness skin grafts, full-thickness grafts cannot be expected to take over a large area such as this defect with exposed bone. Appropriate choices include the anterolateral thigh free flap or other perforator flaps (thoracodorsal artery perforator flap) or muscle flaps. A defect of the size described is best reconstructed with a perforator flap that minimizes donor site defects. Local flaps such as the reverse radial forearm flap can be used in the upper extremity, although advances in microsurgery have led to a decrease in use, so as to minimize the added morbidity of the already injured extremity.
A right-hand–dominant, 72-year-old man presents with clicking, locking, and pain deep to the distal palmar crease of the right ring finger. Four weeks prior he had a 40 mg triamcinolone injection with incomplete resolution of his symptoms. How long should he wait after the corticosteroid injection before performing an A1 pulley release in order to mitigate the increased risk of surgical site occurrence?
A) 1 week from injection
B) 4 weeks from injection
C) 8 weeks from injection
D) 12 weeks from injection
E) There is no increased risk of surgical site occurrence
The correct response is Option D.
The risk of surgical site occurrence is mitigated at approximately 80 days (~12 weeks) from corticosteroid injection. In a retrospective review of 999 patients who underwent corticosteroid injection for trigger digit and subsequently underwent surgery, they carefully scrutinized rates of surgical site occurrence. Charts were queried for infection/occurrence by identifying “infection,” “suture abscess,” “worrisome for infection,”, or “return to the operating room for infection.” Those who did not develop an infection had a significantly longer time between corticosteroid injection and surgery (mean 260 days vs mean 79 days, p less than 0.05). There were no differences in infection rates between those who underwent one or multiple corticosteroid injections prior to surgery (Ng et al.).1
In male patients with a single involved digit, the average success rate for corticosteroid injection alone is low (35%). One may suggest that surgery is indicated in this patient population prior to attempting corticosteroid injection. When evaluating the treatment of trigger digit from a cost perspective, males with single digit involvement or multiple digit involvement and women with multiple digit involvement should forgo corticosteroid injection because of low success rates (35%, 37%, and 56%, respectively) (Brozovich et al. and Wojahn et al).2,3
The decision to treat trigger digit with corticosteroid injection versus surgery may also be a personal decision by the patient after informed discussion with the surgeon. It is important to remember that corticosteroid injection preceding surgery may increase the risk for surgical site occurrences.
A 21-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after sustaining injuries to the right volar wrist when he punched a glass window. Surgical exploration shows a complete laceration through the palmaris longus tendon. Based on the proximity of the patient?s injury, which of the following additional structures is most likely injured?
A ) Flexor digitorum superficialis to index
B ) Flexor pollicis longus
C ) Median nerve
D ) Pronator quadratus
E ) Radial artery
The correct response is Option C.
The palmaris longus tendon is located in the middle of the volar wrist, and the median nerve is directly dorsal to this structure. In patients with palmaris longus lacerations at the level of the wrist, it is common to also find the median nerve to be injured.
The palmaris longus tendon is absent in 20% of patients. The superficial volar wrist tendons are the flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, and the flexor carpi ulnaris. The flexor superficialis tendons lie dorsal to the superficial flexors. However, the median nerve rests immediately dorsal to the palmaris longus at the level of the wrist. The flexor superficialis tendons are in a stacked position such that the long and ring finger flexor superficialis tendons rest volar to the index and little finger flexor digitorum superficialis tendons. The flexor digitorum profundus tendons are deep or dorsal to the flexor superficialis tendons and lie in a flat array corresponding to each finger the tendon is coursing to distally. The ulnar nerve and artery are found dorsal to the flexor carpi ulnaris. Accordingly, injuries involving the flexor carpi ulnaris tendon are frequently associated with ulnar nerve and artery injuries.
A 23-year-old man presents with a deep volar distal forearm laceration after striking a window. He is taken emergently to the operating room for repair of multiple flexor tendon, nerve, and arterial transections. Which of the following best describes the anatomical relationship of the flexor digitorum superficialis tendons so that the proximal and distal stumps can be correctly matched and repaired?
A) Index and middle superficialis tendons are volar to the ring and small superficialis tendons
B) Index and small superficialis tendons are volar to the middle and ring superficialis tendons
C) Index, middle, ring, and small superficialis tendons are arranged side-by-side
D) Middle and ring superficialis tendons are volar to the index and small superficialis tendons
E) Ring and small superficialis tendons are volar to the index and middle superficialis tendons
The correct response is Option D.
The superficial location of numerous, tightly packed vital structures at the volar aspect of the wrist/distal forearm makes them susceptible to injury with penetrating trauma. The patient presents with a “spaghetti wrist,” a term used to describe these devastating injuries that may result in transection of multiple flexor tendons and neurovascular structures.
A thorough knowledge of the anatomy in this region is required in order to appropriately align and repair all transected critical structures. In particular, the flexor digitorum superficialis tendons are arranged such that the middle and ring superficialis tendons are superficial to the index and small finger superficialis tendons. Of note, the flexor digitorum profundus tendons are arranged in a side-by-side fashion deep to the superficialis tendons. The median nerve is located between the superficialis and profundus musculotendinous units at this level.
The other options do not describe the correct arrangement of the superficialis tendons at the distal forearm/wrist level.
A 28-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after sustaining an injury to the arm during a motor vehicle collision. A photograph is shown. Physical examination shows inability to extend the index or long fingers, and a rent in the dorsal wrist capsule. Which of the following extensor zones is most likely involved?
A) II
B) III
C) IV
D) V
E) VI

The correct response is Option E.
The patient described sustained a dorsal wrist injury involving extensors of the wrist and fingers, with the injury at the base of the hand and over the carpus. Typically this is considered zones VI and VII. The other zones represent the following areas with some common conditions listed for each zone. Knowing and reporting zones of injury are helpful not just for descriptive purposes, but also for communicating with other doctors and therapists. Common therapy protocols are based on which zone or zones are involved in the injury.

A 15-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department because he felt a “pop” followed by acute pain in his left ring finger while grabbing an opposing player’s jersey during a rugby match. Physical examination shows pain, tenderness, and swelling over the volar aspect of the finger, from the area of the distal interphalangeal joint flexor crease to the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint crease. The distal phalanx rests at neutral and no active flexion is possible. The patient can flex at the PIP with minimal discomfort. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A) End-to-end flexor tendon repair
B) Flexor tendon reinsertion
C) Open reduction and pin fixation of the middle phalanx
D) Splinting, followed in 2 weeks by range-of-motion exercises
E) Tendon transfer
The correct response is Option B.
The scenario described provides a classic example of a distal flexor tendon avulsion. Because of several potential factors, the ring finger is the most common finger to present with this type of injury. The flexor digitorum profundus of the ring finger has a less robust insertion at the distal phalanx than the long finger, which is a tip-off in the vignette for this classic injury. Yet the ring finger is similarly involved in the type of hyperextension force, or resisted flexion force, which generates this injury. The little finger does not present as much with this injury either.
Flexor tendon reinsertion is correct, because the indicated management is early operation and reinsertion, if possible, of the avulsed tendon. This can be accomplished in a variety of ways, but that discussion is not central to the question.
Splinting, followed in 2 weeks by range-of-motion exercises is wrong, because that answer describes how one might treat a sprain, which this is not. If one treated the tendon avulsion conservatively, and incorrectly, by splinting, the surgeon would lose the window for early repair, and the outcome for the patient would be poor. Secondary or delayed reconstruction in these cases is often not possible, and when possible, they often have results inferior to immediate repair.
Tendon transfer is wrong because tendon transfers are not used for immediate repair of flexor avulsions. Tendon transfers are useful for secondary reconstruction in nerve palsies, for example. But they are not relevant to this distal and acute injury, confined to a single digit.
Open reduction and pin fixation of the middle phalanx is wrong because the injury is not a fracture of the middle phalanx. It is true that one form of the flexor avulsion can involve an avulsion fracture off of the volar aspect of the distal phalanx, and that reinsertion of the fragment is part of the repair. But flexor tendon avulsion does not involve fracture of the middle phalanx. Furthermore, this is not an avulsion of the flexor digitorum sublimis because the patient flexes at the PIP with minimal discomfort, as per the vignette.
End-to-end flexor tendon repair is wrong because this injury is a tendon avulsion from a distal bony insertion. There is no distal tendon to which to perform an end-to-end repair. Successful repair of a flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) avulsion really requires some form of anchoring of the distal FDP to distal phalanx bone.
A 35-year-old man has a 10-degree extensor lag at the proximal interphalangeal joint of the right index finger three months after undergoing flexor tendon repair in zone II. On examination, active motion of the finger is as follows:
Metacarpophalangeal joint - 80 degrees
Proximal interphalangeal joint - 60 degrees
Distal interphalangeal joint - 20 degrees
What is the total active range of motion of the index finger in this patient?
(A) 130 Degrees
(B) 140 Degrees
(C) 150 Degrees
(D) 160 Degrees
(E) 170 Degrees
The correct response is Option C.
The total active range of motion of the index finger in this patient is 150 degrees. Total active motion (TAM), which is used to measure range of motion of the fingers, is the sum total of active motion of the metacarpophalangeal (MP), proximal interphalangeal (PIP), and distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints, subtracting any extension deficit of the joints. The range of motion of the MP joint (80 degrees), PIP joint (60 degrees), and DIP joint (20 degrees) is 160 degrees; the 10-degree extensor lag is then subtracted for a TAM of 150 degrees.
A person with normal TAM would have 90 degrees of motion in the MP joint, 110 degrees in the PIP joint, and 70 degrees in the DIP joint for a total of 270 degrees.
A 60-year-old woman presents with weakness and inability to fully extend the right dominant thumb at the interphalangeal joint. History includes a Colles fracture of the right wrist 6 months ago. Management of the fracture included cast immobilization. On physical examination, the patient’s thumb is at 30 degrees of flexion. Finger metacarpophalangeal joint active extension is normal. The patient cannot extend or lift the thumb with her hand flattened on a table. With the thumb adducted, she can extend it to neutral. All thumb joints are supple and have full range of passive motion. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s inability to extend the thumb?
A) Intersection syndrome
B) Radial nerve palsy
C) Rupture of the extensor pollicis longus
D) Saddle deformity of the basal joint
E) Trigger thumb with locking
The correct response is Option C.
Extensor pollicis longus (EPL) rupture is most commonly caused by late effects of distal radius fractures. Devascularization is the most likely cause leading to attritional rupture. Rupture can present 2 weeks to 11 months after fracture; the average is 7 weeks. This patient can extend her thumb when it is adducted because of connections of the intrinsics with the dorsal apparatus. Tendon transfer of the extensor indicis proprius to distal EPL stump is the first-line treatment.
Other causes of EPL rupture include synovitis from rheumatoid arthritis and lupus causing friction at Lister’s tubercle, steroid injections, excessive abnormal wrist motion, bony spurs following distal radius and scaphoid fractures, scaphoid nonunion, misplaced external fixator pin, and subluxation of the distal ulna.
A trigger thumb would more likely have pain and tenderness on physical examination along the volar flexor sheath. A locked thumb would not have passive extensibility or active extension with adduction.
Saddle deformity is seen on physical examination in advanced osteoarthritis of the basal joint. Interphalangeal joint flexion of the thumb is caused by zigzag longitudinal collapse with hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joint.
Intersection syndrome is characterized by pain and tenderness along the radial side of the forearm where the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis muscles intersect.
Radial nerve palsy would not only affect the thumb interphalangeal joint.
An 18-year-old college student sustains an injury to the nondominant small finger when he falls while playing flag football. On physical examination, the finger is swollen slightly and held in a flexed position. Active flexion and extension of the finger are limited by pain. A radiograph is shown above. Closed reduction of the finger in the emergency department is unsuccessful.
The most likely cause is interposition of which of the following structures within the joint?
(A) Extensor tendon
(B) Flexor tendon
(C) Joint capsule
(D) Neurovascular bundle
(E) Volar plate

The correct response is Option A.
This 18-year-old college student has sustained a volar dislocation of the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint, an injury so named because the middle phalanx is dislocated volar to the proximal phalanx. In volar dislocations, which are far less common than dorsal dislocations, the extensor tendon is torn by the distal condyle of the proximal phalanx, as shown in the intraoperative photograph above. If the condyle has pushed through the extensor tendon, the tendon may tighten and act as a sling to prevent reduction of the dislocation.
Although some physicians may be able to perform closed reduction, operative exploration and repair are recommended because of the possible injury to the extensor tendon. Unsuccessful closed reduction is an absolute indication for operative exploration, as repeat attempts at manipulation will only worsen edema and may contribute to injury. In addition, volar dislocations can be associated with complete avulsion of the central slip, requiring repair.
Although the flexor tendons and volar plate can become interposed within the joint and interfere with closed reduction, this is a rare finding in patients with volar dislocations and is more likely to be associated with irreducible dorsal dislocations. The joint capsule and neurovascular bundle are not involved in volar dislocations of the PIP joint.

A 42-year-old right-hand–dominant construction worker is evaluated for an 8-week history of pain with wrist motion. Physical examination shows swelling 4 cm proximal to the Lister tubercle. There is tenderness to palpation and crepitation over the muscle bellies of the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Basal joint synovitis
B) de Quervain synovitis
C) Extensor pollicis longus tendinitis
D) Intersection syndrome
E) Wartenberg syndrome
The correct response is Option D.
Intersection syndrome is synovitis of the second dorsal compartment. It is located where the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis cross the extensor carpi radialis longus and extensor carpi radialis brevis. The syndrome often occurs in athletes with repetitive forceful extension. The swelling is located 4 to 6 cm proximal to Lister tubercle.
Basal joint arthritis and synovitis would have tenderness located at the wrist crease at the carpometacarpal joint and may have x-ray findings. de Quervain is synovitis of the first dorsal compartment, which would be located over the radial styloid and have a positive Finkelstein sign. Wartenberg syndrome is radial sensory nerve compression where the nerve exits the supinator muscle. Symptoms would be paresthesia over the radial nerve distribution and a Tinel sign. Extensor pollicis longus tendinitis is synovitis of the third dorsal compartment with vague dorsal wrist pain and tenderness, usually over the Lister tubercle with exacerbation with thumb extension.
A 30-year-old man comes to the emergency department after sustaining a laceration of the palm of the left hand from a knife. He reports difficulty flexing the ring finger of the left hand. A photograph is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate method to clinically assess the integrity of the flexor digitorum superficialis tendon?
A) Hold the distal interphalangeal joint of the ring finger in extension and ask the patient to flex
B) Hold the index, long, and little fingers in extension and ask the patient to flex
C) Hold the long, ring, and little fingers flexed at the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint and ask the patient to flex
D) Hold the MCP joints of the index, long, and little fingers in flexion and ask the patient to extend
E) Hold the ring finger extended at the MCP joint and ask the patient to flex
Correct answer is option B.
The flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) tendon flexes the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint. The flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon can also flex the PIP joint, in addition to flexing the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint. To confirm that the FDS tendon is flexing the PIP joint, FDP motion must be excluded. The FDP tendons to the long, ring, and little fingers share a common muscle belly. Thus, holding the long and little fingers in extension will prevent the FDP to the long, ring, and little fingers from firing. Any flexion of the PIP joint of the ring finger must then be caused by the FDS tendon. Holding the DIP joint of the ring finger in extension will prevent DIP flexion. It will not, however, prevent the pull of the FDP tendon from being transmitted to the PIP joint. Holding the long, ring, and little fingers flexed at the MCP joint will not exclude FDP motion. Holding the MCP joint of the ring finger extended will not exclude FDP motion. Asking the patient to extend will not assess the integrity of a flexor tendon such as the FDS.


























