Hand - Amputation, Replantation, Dupuytren's Flashcards
A 27-year-old woman comes to the emergency department 2 hours after sustaining a degloving avulsion injury to the right ring finger of the dominant hand. Physical examination shows complete degloving of the soft tissue of the ring finger, including both neurovascular bundles, from the level of the mid-proximal phalanx. Emergent revascularization is performed and fails. Which of the following is the most aesthetically pleasing management of this patient’s condition?
A) Debridement of nonviable soft tissue and coverage with a full-thickness skin graft
B) Debridement of nonviable soft tissue and coverage with a groin flap
C) Ray amputation of the ring finger
D) Resection of the necrotic digit followed by toe-to-hand transfer
E) Revision amputation at mid proximal phalanx with primary skin closure
The correct response is Option C.
Management of ring avulsion injuries remain controversial. Microvascular replantation is a challenging prospect in the setting of a ring avulsion injury and is often associated with the highest failure rates following replantation. This is likely secondary to the mechanism of injury that leads to destruction of the intimal layer of the supporting vasculature.
The most appropriate next step in management of the patient described is a ray amputation, which involves removal of the entire digit and most or the entire metacarpal. Completely removing the digit eliminates the segmental loss and greatly improves both function and aesthetic appearance. A well-planned amputation should be considered a reconstructive procedure and can return functional use of the hand to the patient.
Revision amputation near or at the metacarpophalangeal joint level leaves a large gap between digits and can lead to functional problems such as dropping small objects through the defect.
Skin grafting over exposed bone and tendon is unlikely to be successful.
A groin flap can be used for soft-tissue coverage but requires the hand to be attached to the groin for a period of time. This can result in stiffness of the other digits and requires a staged procedure.
Replacing the ring finger with a toe-to-hand transfer is impractical, as the transferred digit would be significantly shorter than the adjacent digits and would ultimately impair their function. This technique is suitable for patients who have sustained amputations of the thumb or of multiple digits.
A 32-year-old construction worker sustains an amputation of the long finger of the dominant right hand through the mid portion of the nail plate. Which of the following structures is most likely injured?
A) Dorsal roof
B) Germinal matrix
C) Hyponychium
D) Lunula
E) Sterile matrix
The correct response is Option E.
Allen classification includes Zone 1: no bone fragment; Zone 2: injury through the sterile matrix with preservation of at least one-half of the nail bed; Zone 3: shorter nail bed remnant; Zone 4: proximal to the dorsal fold; and Zone 5: through the distal interphalangeal joint. The hyponychium is the skin distal and volar to the nail. The perionychium includes the nail, nail bed, and the surrounding skin. The paronychia are the lateral nail folds. The eponychium is the dorsal nail fold, which is proximal to the nail fold. The sterile matrix is distal to the lunula. The germinal matrix contributes 90% of new nail growth and ends at the lunula. The extensor terminal tendon inserts 1.2 to 1.4 mm proximal to the germinal matrix.
A 40-year-old man sustained traumatic amputation of all fingers of the dominant hand 3 months ago. Tripod pinch reconstruction is planned with a double second toe transfer. Which of the following arteries is most likely to be the dominant blood supply to the second toe transfer in this patient?
A) First dorsal metatarsal artery
B) First plantar metatarsal artery
C) Lateral plantar artery
D) Medial plantar artery
E) Third plantar metatarsal artery
The correct response is Option A.
The first dorsal metatarsal artery (FDMA) is the dominant blood supply (to the great toe and second toe) in approximately 70% of cases. The first plantar metatarsal artery (FPMA) is the dominant blood supply in 20% of cases. The FDMA and the FPMA have a similar vessel caliber in the remaining 10% of cases.
The dominant vascular pattern can be evaluated by careful retrograde dissection that begins at the dorsal aspect of the first web space. The junction of the lateral digital artery of the great toe and the medial digital artery of the second toe can be identified just above the intermetatarsal ligament. Proximal dissection continues dorsally and plantarly to evaluate the FDMA and FPMA.
If the FDMA is the larger caliber vessel or of similar caliber to the FPMA, then the toe transfer can be based on the FDMA. Proximal dissection of the FDMA to obtain length is relatively straightforward. In the setting of a plantar dominance, dissection of the FPMA is carried out proximally, which can be more challenging. Plantar proximal dissection is typically limited to the mid metatarsal level to avoid additional morbidity. If additional length is required on the FPMA pedicle, a vein graft can be used. It is important to note that in bilateral second toe transfers, the dominant vascular pattern can be asymmetric in 20% of patients.
An 8-year-old girl is brought to the office because of severe, worsening pain as well as finger swelling and numbness three days after she underwent cast placement for a fracture of the left forearm. After removal of the cast, her pain continues and is worsened by passive wrist motion. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in assessment of this patient’s condition?
A) Angiography
B) CT scan
C) Duplex ultrasound
D) Electromyography
E) Manometry
The correct response is Option E.
The most appropriate next test is manometry. The patient is exhibiting signs of compartment syndrome after swelling due to fracture under a tight restrictive cast. Signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome include pain with passive stretch, increased pressure on palpation, paresthesia, paralysis, pallor, and pulselessness.
Early recognition and treatment are necessary to prevent permanent damage. The pressure within the muscles increases, preventing blood flow to the area and capillary exchange of nutrients. Fasciotomy is recommended if compartment pressure exceeds 30 mmHg, or if the difference between intracompartmental pressure and diastolic blood pressure is less than 30 mmHg. Without treatment, ischemic necrosis to the muscles can result, leading to Volkmann ischemic contracture and causing permanent disability. Scarring and shortening of the muscles can occur, with resultant contracted intrinsic minus appearance of the hand.
Compartment pressures can be measured by handheld manometer (Stryker pen), or needle manometer method (Whitesides) with an arterial line setup. Operative fasciotomy is indicated to release the compartment pressures and prevent tissue loss and muscle necrosis in cases of compartment syndrome. Loss of pulse typically occurs later in the spectrum of findings.
Angiography would be useful in evaluating vasculature and blood flow. Typically pain with passive stretch does not occur in cases of arterial insufficiency.
Duplex ultrasound can evaluate the presence of deep venous thrombosis, which can be a source of pain and swelling. This can occur through compression of the antecubital region, but in this case, the symptomatology would prompt measurement of compartment pressures and urgent fasciotomy.
Electromyography can be used to evaluate nerve function but would not be the next appropriate measure.
CT scan can provide detailed imaging but would not be indicated in this situation and would delay treatment.
A 70-year-old woman presents with injury to the left hand sustained while cleaning a jammed lawnmower. The tendons have been avulsed from the forearm. A photograph is shown. While waiting for transport to surgery, the patient reports worsening forearm pain in the ipsilateral extremity. X-ray studies show no fracture of the forearm. In addition to operative intervention for the hand site, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) CT scan with contrast
B) Forearm muscle fascia release
C) Perform an axillary nerve block
D) Ulnar nerve neurolysis
E) Upper extremity angiography
The correct response is Option B.
This patient has sustained a severe avulsion-type mechanism of amputation and has developed subsequent acute compartment syndrome of the forearm secondary to avulsion of multiple flexors at their musculotendinous junctions at the forearm. This led to intracompartmental hematoma within the forearm flexors and subsequent edema, leading to increased intracompartmental pressure. When the intracompartmental pressures become significantly increased, the perfusion gradient is decreased, with subsequent capillary collapse and ischemia. This is a surgical emergency in addition to the amputated hand warranting myofascial release of the forearm compartments. If left untreated, not only will the patient’s pain be uncontrolled, but her overall morbidity will be worsened.
In the setting of compartment syndrome, additional radiologic tests are not warranted, and while a nerve block could control the pain, it does not address the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms. Angiography is not appropriate to evaluate or treat compartment syndrome. Ulnar nerve release will not treat the compartment syndrome.
A 36-year-old executive comes to the office because of an 8-year history of cold intolerance and ulcers on the tips of the index and long fingers bilaterally. The patient is a nonsmoker. Physical examination shows thin fingers with shiny skin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A ) Buerger disease
B ) CREST syndrome
C ) Hyperthyroidism
D ) Hypothenar hammer syndrome
E ) Sickle cell anemia
The correct response is Option B.
The set of symptoms in the patient described are consistent with scleroderma or systemic sclerosis. Findings in these patients include calcinosis, Raynaud phenomenon, esophageal dysphasia, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia, or CREST syndrome. Those with overlap syndrome have associated findings characteristic of lupus, dermatomyositis, or rheumatoid arthritis. Therefore, CREST syndrome is the most likely diagnosis. A history of heavy smoking is more consistent with finger ulcers associated with thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease); however, these patients do not have shiny skin, and their symptoms are generally limited to the hands and feet. A blow or repetitive vibration to the hand might suggest ulnar artery thrombosis and hypothenar hammer syndrome, which can also lead to fingertip ulceration, but these conditions are often limited to one hand and in most cases involve only the ring and little fingers. This syndrome is often seen in patients employed as manual laborers. Hyperthyroidism has nothing in common with the symptoms of the patient described. Finally, sickle cell anemia is characterized by severe pain in the long bones, abdomen, and face. Although hand pain with dactylitis and leg ulcers can be present, ulceration of the fingertips is not common.
A 43-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after sustaining an injury to the right thumb and index finger from an ink press. Physical examination shows amputation of the right thumb at the carpometacarpal joint, and amputation of the index finger at the head of the middle phalanx. The amputated thumb was wrapped in a moist gauze towel immediately after the injury and appears to be severely mangled. Which of the following is the definitive management of the thumb?
A ) Debridement and closure of wounds
B ) Great toe-to-thumb transfer
C ) Osteoplastic thumb reconstruction
D ) Replantation of the thumb
E ) Residual index finger pollicization
The correct response is Option E.
The thumb contributes roughly 40% to hand function, and the fingers contribute 60% to hand function. Therefore, amputation of the thumb decreases hand function up to 40%, making reconstruction a high priority.
Pollicization refers to the neurovascular pedicle movement of a finger, often with its metacarpal, for thumb reconstruction. Pollicization can be used for amputations of the thumb between the middle of the first metacarpal and at the carpometacarpal joint, but it works best for amputation at the level of the carpometacarpal joint. If the index finger is injured and has little mobility, the injured index finger should be used for thumb reconstruction and serve as a stable post. If thenar muscles are intact, opposition can be expected. Benefits of index finger transfer include aesthetic results, potential motion of transferred and retained joints, and provision of reliable sensation.
Debridement and closure of wounds is not ideal, as this would impair function of the dominant hand.
Great toe-to-thumb microsurgical reconstruction is best for amputations between the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint and interphalangeal joints but can be used for amputations proximal to the MCP. In the patient described, the traumatized index finger serves as an excellent alternative for reconstruction of the amputated thumb with preservation of a normal foot.
Osteoplastic thumb reconstruction is rarely performed today, as it results in a stiff, broad, floppy thumb with limited sensation. It involves the combination of a bone graft and flap to lengthen the thumb. At least three stages are required: bone graft from iliac crest covered in a tubed distant flap; flap pedicle division; and transfer of the neurovascular sensory flap from the long finger to the thumb €™s pinch contact surface.
If the amputated part had been mangled, lost, or inappropriately preserved, then replantation would not have been an option.
A 10-year-old girl is brought to the office by her mother because of difficulty using her hand. Medical history includes supracondylar fracture 6 months ago treated with a closed reduction and casting. The fingers of the affected hand are held in the intrinsic minus position. Volkmann ischemic contracture following the fracture is suspected. Which of the following muscles is LEAST likely to be affected by Volkmann contracture?
A) Brachioradialis
B) Flexor digitorum profundus
C) Flexor digitorum superficialis
D) Flexor pollicis longus
E) Pronator teres
The correct response is Option A.
Volkmann ischemic contracture results from forearm muscle shortening and fibrosis as a result of ischemia of forearm muscles during increased compartment pressures. Common reasons for increased compartment pressures include gunshot wounds and fractures, particularly supracondylar pediatric fractures. The radial artery is superficially located, whereas the ulnar artery is deeply positioned, traversing deep to the pronator teres muscles. The ulnar artery becomes the common interosseous artery, which divides immediately into anterior and posterior interosseous branches. The muscles dependent on this deep circulatory pattern are more likely to be affected by ischemia during increased compartment pressures. Flexor muscles commonly involved in this process are the flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor digitorum profundus, flexor pollicis longus, and pronator teres. The brachioradialis is not typically affected due to its more superficial radial artery circulation. Patients with significant functional loss may require surgical procedures such as a free gracilis functioning muscle transfer.
A 35-year-old man comes to the emergency department immediately after sustaining degloving avulsion of his dominant right ring finger. The avulsed finger tissue has been wrapped in a towel and packed in ice since the injury occurred. Physical examination shows complete degloving of the soft tissue of the ring finger, including both neurovascular bundles, from the level of the metacarpophalangeal joint distally. The flexor and extensor tendons and the joints are intact. Which of the following interventions is the most appropriate management?
(A) Amputation of the finger with primary closure
(B) Burial of the skeletal structures in an abdominal skin pocket
(C) Reconstruction of the finger with an abdominal flap
(D) Reconstruction of the finger with a free wraparound flap from the great toe
(E) Reconstruction of the finger with a neurosensory island flap
The correct response is Option A.
Ring avulsion injuries have been classified as follows:
Class I: Circulation adequate; standard bone and soft-tissue treatment is indicated
Class II: Circulation inadequate; vessel repair is required for viability
Class III: Complete degloving or amputation is required
This patient has sustained a complete degloving avulsion, which qualifies as a Class III injury. Although management of ring avulsion injuries remains controversial, the recommended approach for these severe injuries is completion of the amputation.
Burial of the finger’s skeletal structures into an abdominal pocket does nothing toward constructing a functional finger.
Class I injuries, which have adequate circulation, and Class II injuries, which have inadequate circulation, can be reconstructed successfully in most cases. Reconstruction of these less severe injuries can be effected by various microsurgical procedures and skin flap reconstructions.
This patient underwent shortening and closure of the amputation stump. He was able to return to his vocation as a mechanic approximately two weeks after the original injury.
A 22-year-old man who is a college student sustains a volar oblique fingertip amputation while chopping vegetables. Examination shows involvement of the hyponychium, but the nail is undamaged. The wound measures 1 × 1.5 cm, and no exposed bone is noted. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment to encourage healing by secondary intention?
A) Apply negative pressure wound therapy
B) Apply povidone iodine to the wound daily and cover with dry gauze
C) Cover wound with semiocclusive dressing and change weekly
D) Leave wound open to air
E) Soak wound in hydrogen peroxide daily and cover with moist gauze
The correct response is Option C.
Fingertip or thumb tip amputations that result in small wounds (less than 1.5 cm2) and minimal exposed bone are best managed with healing by secondary intention. The only exception to this might be a laborer anxious to get back to work with a healed wound sooner than 3 to 4 weeks. Mennen reported a series of 200 such injuries treated with a semi-occlusive dressing, and average healing time was 20 days.
A semiocclusive dressing is semi-permeable and transparent, allowing air to pass through the dressing, but providing a barrier to moisture. Commonly available semipermeable dressings are marketed under brand names like Tegaderm (3M) and OPSITE (Smith & Nephew). These dressings maintain a moist wound environment, which speeds healing. If dressings are changed every 5 to 7 days, manipulation of the wound is minimized and, therefore, healing is less disrupted.
Leaving a wound open to air would allow tissues to dry out, which would delay healing. Likewise, the use of povidone-iodine and/or hydrogen peroxide would slow down healing due to drying of the wound. Although these topical agents are effective at eliminating bacteria from dirty or infected wounds, prolonged use will interfere with normal wound healing. Finally, a wound of this small size would not warrant negative pressure wound therapy. Even the small, intrinsically-powered negative pressure wound therapy devices would not offer any advantages over a semiocclusive dressing and would increase cost substantially.
A 45-year-old computer programmer sustains a transverse guillotine amputation of the dominant thumb midway through the nail bed. The distal phalanx is exposed. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
(A) Dressing changes
(B) Full-thickness skin grafting
(C) Coverage with a Moberg advancement flap
(D) Coverage with a neurovascular island flap
(E) Coverage with a thenar flap
The correct response is Option C.
This patient’s wound is best covered with a Moberg advancement flap. This flap can be used to effectively preserve length in many patients who have palmar oblique amputations of the thumb. Harvest of the Moberg flap is possible because the thumb has a dual arterial supply. It is raised on its neurovascular pedicles and thus provides durable, sensate coverage of the pulp of the thumb. However, advancement greater than 1.5 cm is difficult; contractures of the interphalangeal joints can occur with the use of a Moberg flap. In addition, this flap should not be used in other digits because the digital arteries must be included with the flap. Vascular compromise is likely, resulting in dorsal skin necrosis. The V-Y flap is a useful variation of the Moberg flap.
Dressing changes are most appropriate for small wounds (less than 10 ( 10 mm) without exposure of bone or tendon. Full-thickness skin grafts are appropriate for large avulsion injuries; these grafts will regain at least protective sensibility when employed. The neurovascular island flap is a sensate flap harvested from the ulnar side of the middle or ring finger and transferred to the thumb. Venous congestion and absence of cortical reorientation may be noted following flap transfer. Thenar flaps are used for amputations of the index and middle fingertips with exposed bone to preserve finger length; they cannot be used in the thumb. Postoperative stiffness of the proximal interphalangeal joint and painful donor site scarring may be associated.
A 44-year-old man comes to the emergency department immediately after he sustained an injury to the tip of the left thumb while working with a table saw. Physical examination shows a 1.5 × 1.5-cm wound involving the volar tip of the thumb with bone visible within the base of the wound. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
(A) Cross-finger flap
(B) Island Moberg flap
(C) Secondary healing
(D) Skin grafting
(E) Thenar flap
The correct response is Option B.
The Moberg flap is the most effective intervention for thumb tip defects of 1.5 cm or smaller. Some of the tactics that have been described to facilitate distal advancement of the flap include flexion of the thumb interphalangeal crease, extension of the lateral incisions proximal to the metaphalangeal crease, and islandization of the flap by releasing the skin at the base of the flap and skin grafting the donor wound.
The cross-finger flap can be used for the thumb but is best suited for fingers of younger patients because of the risk of flexion contractures when used in older patients. Secondary healing is inappropriate in the case described because of the large size of the wound. Skin grafting is not appropriate for the patient described because bone is exposed. The thenar flap is harvested from the thumb and, therefore, is not used to reconstruct the thumb.
A 27-year-old man who is right-hand–dominant and works as a manual laborer comes to the emergency department for evaluation 6 hours after inadvertently incurring a high-pressure latex paint injection to the volar aspect of his left index finger. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A) Admission to the hospital and intravenous administration of antibiotics
B) Operative exploration
C) Radial gutter splint with follow-up in 3 days
D) Topical application of acetone
E) Warm compresses, elevation, and observation
The correct response is Option B.
Emergent incision and drainage is mandatory for high-pressure paint gun injuries. Although clinically these may appear benign and/or superficial, there is often significant underlying injury. Even small amounts of material can lead to compartment syndrome, poor perfusion, and closed space infections resulting in tissue necrosis and ultimately, amputation. History is critical, but plain films may be used to confirm the diagnosis, as both latex and the less common oil-based paints are easily seen. Grease may be radiolucent or radiopaque, depending on lead content. The most commonly injected materials are paint and grease but can also include paint solvents and fuel oil.
Nearly all reported cases involved male occupational injuries and injury to the non-dominant second or third digit, as in this case. These machines can generate pressures of 2,000 to 12,000 pounds per square inch (psi), which far exceeds the 100 psi needed to break the skin. These extreme pressures can propel injected material through the skin and subcutaneous tissues down to the bone or along fascial planes, tendon sheaths, and neurovascular bundles.
The overall rate of amputation was 30% and particularly related to the location of injury and type of material injected. Optimal time for wide surgical debridement was within 6 hours of injury. Other studies have documented an amputation rate of approximately 40% when surgery is performed within 6 hours, and an amputation rate of 57% when surgery is delayed beyond 6 hours. The amputation risk is as high as 87% without treatment or if treatment is further delayed.
None of the other interventions listed are appropriate for this type of emergent injury.
An otherwise healthy 26-year-old woman undergoes zone 2 wide-awake flexor tendon repair of the right index finger. A solution of 1% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine is injected into the hand and digit. After surgical repair of the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon, the patient’s finger is still pale without capillary refill. Administration of which of the following classes of drug is most likely to reverse the effects of epinephrine in this patient?
A) Alpha-adrenergic receptor activator
B) Alpha-adrenergic receptor blocker
C) Beta-adrenergic receptor blocker
D) Potassium channel activator
E) Sodium channel blocker
The correct response is Option B.
The medication that is used to reverse the effects of epinephrine is phentolamine, which is an alpha-adrenergic receptor blocker. The wide-awake Hand Surgery is well described by Donald Lalonde and utilizes the effects of local anesthesia to perform a wide variety of hand-surgical procedures without general anesthesia.
An alpha-adrenergic receptor activator, such as epinephrine, could increase vasoconstriction and worsen the scenario, as could a beta-adrenergic receptor blocker. Sodium channel blockers and potassium channel activators are not indicated for reversal of epinephrine effect.
A 64-year-old, left-hand–dominant man presents with Dupuytren contracture of the hand. Physical examination shows joint contractures of the small finger metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint (35 degrees), proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint (30 degrees); and ring finger MCP joint (30 degrees) and PIP joint (15 degrees). Needle aponeurotomy is planned to correct the deformity. Which of the following disease-related factors is most predictive of re-intervention following this procedure?
A) Dominant hand involvement
B) MCP contracture severity
C) Older age
D) PIP contracture severity
E) Presence of a natatory cord
The correct response is Option D.
The disease-related factor most strongly predictive of recurrence is the degree of PIP contracture. In a retrospective review of 848 interventions for Dupuytren contracture, authors noted that degree if PIP contracture and a younger age at time of initial intervention were most predictive of re-intervention. They looked at a cohort of 350 patients over an 11-year period in which multiple surgeons performed interventions for varying degrees of contracture of both the MCP and PIP joints. Comparisons between needle aponeurotomy, collagenase, and partial fasciectomy were performed. They reported 2-year re-intervention rates of 24%, 41%, and 4% respectively. Based on cumulative number of re-intervention, total direct surgical costs were $1,540, $5,952, and $5,507 respectively (Leafblad et al.). [1]
MCP contracture severity was not an independent predictor of re-intervention. Natatory cords are responsible for webspace contractures and do not independently result in MCP or PIP contractures. Younger age at time of initial intervention was predictive of re-intervention and older age was preventative. They found no differences in contracture re-intervention when comparing dominant to non-dominant hand.
In a prospective, randomized trial, investigators compared needle aponeurotomy to collagenase in patients with isolated PIP joint contracture. Patients were followed for 2 years following intervention. Primary outcome was reduction in contracture by at least 50%. At 2-year follow-up, 7% of collagenase patients had maintained improvement as compared to 29% of patients who underwent needle aponeurotomy, suggesting that collagenase treatment of Dupuytren disease leading to PIP contracture is not superior to needle aponeurotomy (Skov et al.). [2
A 40-year-old woman presents with small, non-healing ulcers of the right index and middle fingertips. Medical history includes limited scleroderma diagnosed 5 years ago, chronic pain, and color changes of the fingers in cold temperatures. The patient’s symptoms have not improved with administration of nifedipine. Angiography shows diffuse vascular narrowing without any focal lesions. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention for pain relief and ulcer healing in this patient?
A) Cervical sympathectomy
B) Continuous brachial plexus blockade
C) Digital bypass
D) Onabotulinum toxin A
E) Stellate ganglion block
The correct response is Option D.
This patient has Raynaud’s phenomenon associated with scleroderma. The pathophysiology of Raynaud’s is thought to be related to sympathetic hyperactivity, elevated plasma endothelin, increased peripheral alpha-2 receptors, and possibly abnormal platelet and red cell function. Botulinum toxin type A has been shown to improve digital perfusion on laser Doppler, decrease pain, and result in ulcer healing. In a series of 33 patients injected with 50 to 100 U of onabotulinum toxin A, all patients had ulcer healing by 60 days postinjection. Pain relief typically occurred within 5 to 10 minutes of injection and complication rates were low and limited to injection site reactions. A prospective, randomized, placebo-controlled trial showed patients with limited scleroderma and shorter duration of disease had the best response to onabotulinum toxin A.
Stellate ganglion blocks have been shown to have only variable success for Raynaud’s with only short-term symptom relief and no effect on ulcer healing. Stellate blocks may not disrupt all sympathetic input to the extremity. Brachial plexus blocks may help with perfusion temporarily but are advocated mainly in patients undergoing microvascular surgery. Their use is not recommended in this setting. Surgical bypass to the superficial palmar arch has been shown to increase blood flow to the hand and improve ulcer healing. However, bypass to the digital vessels would not be indicated as the distal target vessels are often diminutive without adequate flow.
A 60-year-old farmer who sustained injuries to the right hand when it was caught in a corn picker is undergoing ray amputation of the ring finger. After metacarpal excision, which of the following structures are sutured to close the space between the small and long fingers?
(A) Collateral ligaments
(B) Deep intermetacarpal ligaments
(C) Extensor tendons
(D) Flexor tendons
(E) Sagittal bands
The correct response is Option B.
In patients undergoing ray amputation of the finger, the space between the small and long fingers is closed by suturing the deep intervolar plate ligaments. Another technique that can be used to close the gap between the long and small fingers is ray transposition, which involves transferring the base of the metacarpal of the small finger to the base of the ring finger. However, ray transposition often requires a longer period of immobilization to allow the osteotomy to heal.
Suture of the collateral ligaments, extensor tendons, flexor tendons, and sagittal bands would create a tether and limit tendon excursion and range of motion.
A 24-year-old, right-hand–dominant man is brought to the emergency department after sharp amputation of the index, long, and ring fingers of the left hand at the middle phalanx level sustained in a rollover motor vehicle collision. The digits are appropriately preserved. Before replantation surgery is performed, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Administer aspirin orally
B) Administer subcutaneous heparin
C) Obtain cervical spine x-ray
D) Obtain x-rays of the hand and digits
E) Predissection of the amputated digits
The correct response is Option C.
The NEXUS Criteria were developed to help physicians determine whether cervical spine imaging could be safely avoided in appropriate patients. The NEXUS literature defines a distracting injury as “a condition thought by the clinician to be producing pain sufficient to distract the patient from a second (neck) injury.” Similarly, the Canadian C-spine rule describes distracting injuries as “injuries […] that are so severely painful that the neck examination is unreliable.” It also must be recognized that the surgeon and ER staff can be “distracted” by what appears to be the overwhelming injury. Trauma evaluation algorithms strictly apply.
A patient involved in a rollover motor vehicle accident has significant mechanism of injury to warrant a complete trauma evaluation.
All other answers here are appropriate to prepare for the operating room AFTER the initial trauma clearance is obtained.
A 55-year-old, right-hand–dominant man who is a machinist comes to the office because of inability to fully extend the right ring finger. Photographs are shown. The patient reports that his symptom began 5 years ago and has worsened progressively. Examination shows a 45-degree flexion contracture of the right ring finger (PIP) joint during attempts at full extension. All other joints demonstrate full extension, and the patient can create a complete fist during flexion. Regarding treatment options for this patient, which of the following interventions is most likely to provide the longest relief of his symptom prior to recurrence?
A) Collagenase injection and manipulation
B) Limited fasciectomy
C) Percutaneous aponeurotomy with lipografting
D) Percutaneous needle fasciotomy
E) Radiation therapy and splinting
The correct answer is option B.
Radiotherapy has been proposed as a potential treatment to slow or stop progression of Dupuytren contractures (palmar fibromatosis). A prospective study of radiotherapy revealed no greater efficacy than observation as an intervention for slowing the disease process. There is no evidence to suggest radiotherapy for correction of an established contracture. Rijssen and colleagues established quantitative criteria for recurrence, using an increase of total passive flexion contracture of 30 or greater, compared to the 6-week follow-up values in previously treated joints. After 5 years, their recurrence rate following percutaneous needle fasciotomy was 85%; 21% for limited fasciectomy; and 32% of joints successfully treated with Clostridial collagenase. Percutaneous aponeurotomy with lipografting is an experimental technique which has shown some promise with correction of contractures and prevention of recurrence, but the evidence is level 4, with no controlled studies looking at this technique, in comparison to other established techniques. Although limited fasciectomy provides the greatest degree of initial correction for Dupuytren contractures, as well as the longest period prior to recurrence, the costs associated with the procedure are by far the highest. When comparing the QALY costs of three interventions (limited fasciectomy, percutaneous needle fasciotomy, and collagenase injection), limited fasciectomy yielded the highest cost per QALY. The authors emphasize that this does not indicate limited fasciectomy is an inappropriate intervention—only that it is relatively the most expensive.
A 25-year-old man is evaluated for thumb reconstruction after failed replantation just distal to the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint. The amputation was a sharp injury with no avulsion component. A photograph is shown. Which of the following is the dominant arterial pedicle for the most appropriate flap for reconstruction?
A) First dorsal metatarsal artery
B) Lateral plantar artery
C) Peroneal artery
D) Radial artery
E) Superficial circumflex iliac artery
The correct response is Option A.
The microvascular reconstruction of choice is a toe-to-thumb transfer involving the great toe. The most common arterial pedicle for this composite flap is the first dorsal metatarsal artery (~70%), a branch of the dorsalis pedis artery. The great toe can be harvested en bloc, as a trimmed flap to improve size match, or as a wrap-around soft-tissue flap for more distal or soft-tissue–only reconstructions. Less commonly, there is a dominant plantar arterial system from the plantar digital arteries via the lateral plantar artery. Communications between the dorsal and plantar systems exist between the metatarsals, and a flap with plantar-dominant inflow can be traced back to the dorsalis pedis in most cases, although the dissection is tedious. Many authors recommend vein grafting if more length is needed in a plantar-dominant flap.
This patient requires mostly restoration of length and sensibility. Reconstruction with a toe-to-thumb transfer has the advantages of transferring similar glabrous tissue with good cosmetic match. Flexion, extension, and sensation can be restored with good outcomes, according to the literature. This patient has an intact carpometacarpal joint and adequate range of motion should be maintained.
The lateral plantar artery is the arterial pedicle for the medial plantar artery fasciocutaneous flap. It does not contribute to the plantar arch. This flap is used mostly as a pedicle flap for coverage of defects on the forefoot and heel. It can be used for free tissue transfer. The deep plantar arch is an anastomotic network between the lateral plantar and dorsalis pedis arteries.
The peroneal artery is the pedicle for the free fibula osteocutaneous flap; however, this is not described for use in thumb reconstruction.
Osteoplastic reconstruction for thumb defects not involving the basilar joint have been described as both pedicle and microvascular free flaps. These involve a vascularized soft-tissue flap surrounding a nonvascularized bone graft. The radial artery is the pedicle for the radial forearm flap, which can be harvested as a soft-tissue flap around an iliac crest bone graft, or as an osteocutaneous flap. The superficial circumflex iliac artery is the pedicle for the groin flap. This is mostly described as a staged pedicled flap for osteoplastic reconstruction around an iliac crest bone graft. Both of these techniques are complicated by poor return of sensation and bone resorption. They should be used as second-line options when free toe transfer or pollicization is not available due to severity of injury or other patient-related concerns.
A 21-year-old man sustains traumatic amputation of the right thumb at the level of the metacarpal base. Pollicization should include osteosynthesis of which of the following?
A) Index metacarpal base to trapezium
B) Index metacarpal to thumb metacarpal
C) Index middle phalanx to thumb metacarpal
D) Index proximal phalanx to thumb metacarpal
E) Index proximal phalanx to trapezium
The correct response is Option D.
Transfer of the index finger to the thumb position on the hand (pollicization) typically transfers the proximal phalanx to the thumb metacarpal, as long as the base of the thumb metacarpal is preserved. Transfer of the middle phalanx or metacarpal of the index would create a neo-thumb that is too short or too large, respectively. Obliterating an intact carpometacarpal joint by transferring the index metacarpal to the trapezium would eliminate palmar and ulnar abduction of the thumb and compromise global hand function.
A 56-year-old man is evaluated because of Dupuytren contractures of the hand with palpable cords. Collagenase injection of which of the following joint contractures is most likely to result in serious complications?
A) Index metacarpophalangeal (MCP) contracture of 50 degrees
B) Long proximal interphalangeal (PIP) contracture of 30 degrees
C) Ring MCP contracture of 60 degrees
D) Little PIP contracture of 20 degrees
E) Thumb MCP contracture of 40 degrees
Correct answer is option D.
Collagenase injection has been FDA-approved for the treatment of Dupuytren contractures with palpable cords and works by dissolving collagen contained in the cord. Injection is typically performed with placement of collagenase along several areas along the Dupuytren cord using a hubless 1-mL syringe, followed by a finger extension procedure approximately 24 hours after injection. Care should be taken to avoid injecting into tendons, nerves, blood vessels, or other collagen-containing structures. Injection of the 20-degree contracture of the little finger proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint is most likely to result in serious complications. Dupuytren contracture is a disease resulting in progressive contracture of the palmar fascia. The disease involves activity of myofibroblasts and has a genetic component, being more common in people of northern European descent. Treatment of PIP contractures of the little finger is most likely to result in serious complications. There have been a few incidents of flexor tendon rupture occurring from collagenase injections, and these are thought to occur due to the proximity of the flexor tendon to the Dupuytren cord. Care must be taken to keep the collagenase injection away from the flexor tendon in this finger. Recommendations for collagenase injections for PIP contractures in the little finger include keeping the injection no more than 2 to 3 mm deep and as close to the palmar digital crease as possible, staying no more than 4 mm distal to the palmar digital crease. Serious complications are not found to be more frequent in other digits or in the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) vs. PIP joints (other than in the little finger PIP joint). The degree of contracture does not have a bearing on the incidence of serious complications.
A 10-year-old girl is brought to the office 2 years after she sustained a crush injury to the nail bed of the long finger of the right hand. Her mother sought no treatment at the time of injury. She now says that the nail appears split in two with no growth of the middle third of the nail. Examination shows a midline deformity that involves both the sterile and germinal matrices. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A) Excision of scar and primary closure of the nail bed
B) Full-thickness grafting from the nail bed of the great toe
C) Full-thickness grafting from the nail bed of the ring finger
D) Split-thickness grafting from the nail bed of the great toe
E) Split-thickness grafting from the nail bed of the ring finger
The correct response is Option B.
This patient has a split-nail deformity; the most appropriate management is full-thickness nail grafting from the toe. This deformity is caused by injury to the nail bed, leading to scarring of the bed. The nail plate does not grow in the scarred area, resulting in a split in the nail plate. The deformity described involves both the sterile and germinal matrices. Therefore, only a full-thickness nail will provide the sterile and germinal matrix components required for reconstruction. When a full-thickness nail bed graft is harvested, donor morbidity will always occur. Therefore, the donor site should be from the first or second toes or from spare parts in multidigit injuries.
In patients who have a small scar affecting the sterile matrix only, appropriate management may include excision of the scar and reapproximation of the sterile matrix. This is usually not possible unless the affected area is quite narrow and there is no involvement of the germinal matrix.
A split-thickness nail bed graft from either another finger nail bed or a toe will not provide the components needed for reconstruction of this defect. In addition, using another finger as a donor will result in an unsightly donor defect in the hand.
A 34-year-old man who works as a pipe fitter sustains amputation of the radial three digits of the nondominant left hand. Replantation of the thumb and long finger is performed. Three weeks later, the replanted thumb becomes necrotic. Photographs are shown. Which of the following methods of reconstruction is most likely to provide the best functional outcome?
A ) Amputation and web space deepening
B ) Debridement and coverage with a radial forearm flap
C ) Distraction lengthening of the remaining thumb
D ) Pollicization of the long finger
E ) Toe-to-thumb transfer (Please note that this pictorial appears in color in the online examination)
The correct response is Option E.
Toe-to-thumb transfer has become the standard of care for thumb reconstruction when the level of loss occurs at or around the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint. The functional outcomes from the transfer are excellent and the donor defect, while not completely free from morbidity, is acceptable. Wound and nerve complications, such as neuroma, can be successfully managed through traditional techniques.
Revision amputation of the thumb in the patient described would be at or proximal to the MCP joint level. Even with web space deepening, there would be insufficient length of the thumb against which the other fingers could oppose.
Distraction lengthening requires a higher-quality skin envelope than exists in the patient described to tolerate the increased space that would be occupied by the thumb metacarpal. In addition, the only remaining mobile joint in this patient would be the carpometacarpal (CMC) joint. Also, the distal end of a thumb created by this technique would have poor sensation and poor durability.
Debridement and coverage with a radial forearm flap would provide high-quality tissue that could even be made sensate with coaptation of the medial and lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerves to the digital nerve stumps. However, there would still be inadequate length of the thumb with this method.
Pollicization, while less commonly used in adult than in pediatric reconstruction, can still be useful when the level of amputation occurs at the CMC joint, or when the patient cannot tolerate or will not accept microsurgical transfer of a toe. Pollicization generally moves the index finger to the thumb position; pollicizing the long finger is technically very difficult to do because of the vascular pedicle. Given that the index finger is already lost in this patient, sacrifice of the long finger would leave only two mobile fingers on this hand.
Photographs of the patient several months after great toe-to-thumb transfer are shown. Although the great toe is slightly larger than a normal thumb, recovery of function is quite good.
A 54-year-old man comes to the office because of an injury to the long finger of the dominant right hand sustained when it was pinched in a machine at work. Physical examination shows a 1.3-cm loss of pulp tissue with no exposed bone. To preserve function and sensation in the digit, which of the following is the most appropriate intervention?
A) Amputation at the distal interphalangeal joint
B) Cross-finger flap
C) Moist dressings
D) Thenar flap
E) Volar V-to-Y advancement flap
The correct response is Option C.
Fingertip injuries are one of the most common problems encountered in hand surgery. The long finger is the most common finger involved. The patient’s age, occupation, and compliance with treatment should be considered when determining treatment. When possible, if the patient has no exposed bone or only a small area of exposed bone, treatment with dressing changes offers excellent results. There is no donor site morbidity, scarring is often minimal, and return of sensation is generally excellent. Patients, however, need to be cautioned that a prolonged period of dressing changes is required, often lasting 3 to 6 weeks.
Amputation at the distal interphalangeal joint would result in loss of function of the profundus tendon and grip weakness. Neurovascular island flaps and V-to-Y advancement flaps offer excellent closure options when digital length needs to be preserved and there is significant exposure of bone. However, with these flaps there is a donor defect and decreased sensation. Care must be taken when using a cross-finger flap or thenar flap in older patients to avoid contractures and stiffness of the digits.
A 45-year-old man with a detailed history of alcohol abuse is referred for evaluation of pain in his left arm and forearm that began 1 week ago after a fall. Volkmann contracture is suspected. Which of the following is the most likely area to be initially affected?
A) Extensor digitorum communis
B) Flexor carpi radialis and palmaris longus
C) Flexor digitorum profundus
D) Supinator, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis
E) Volar wrist ligaments and capsule
The correct response is Option C.
Volkmann ischemic contracture can evolve from an untreated acute injury or fracture, blunt or sharp. In the scenario described, the patient appears to have passed out on his forearm, inebriated, possibly compounded by drug use. He presents in a delayed fashion with an early or partial Volkmann ischemic contracture. Essentially, this item tests the examinee’s basic knowledge of which parts of the forearm musculature are most sensitive to internal pressure and ischemic injury.
Useful classification systems that correlate well with clinical examination include the Tsuge and Holden classifications. The Tsuge classification basically describes a predictable injury pattern based on the relative susceptibility of different muscles in the forearm to ischemia and pressure. Essentially, the deeper compartments are the most susceptible. A mild Tsuge type affects the flexor digitorum profundus first. The moderate type involves the rest of the deep flexor compartment and begins to affect the superficial flexor compartment. Severe Tsuge type involves the complete deep and superficial flexor compartments, as well as the extensor compartment and mobile wad to varying degrees.
Therefore, in this case, the correct response is the flexor digitorum profundus because it is the most sensitive muscle group to a Volkmann ischemic contracture generating insult.
A complementary classification system is the Holden classification. The Holden Type 1 classification essentially describes contractures of varied severity caused by injuries proximal to the injured forearm muscles. Examples include a brachial artery thrombosis or a humeral fracture leading to vascular injury and a Volkmann ischemic contracture distal to the site of the initial injury. The Holden Type 2 classification describes direct injuries to the fascial compartment of varied severity, such as prolonged direct pressure, as in the scenario described. Other examples would be direct crush injuries or severe radial and ulnar fractures.
A 25-year-old machinist sustains severe crush injuries to the index and long fingers of the dominant right hand. Physical examination shows avulsion of the volar skin pad of the index finger to the distal interphalangeal joint crease. Bone is exposed, and the nail and nail bed are intact. The dorsal skin of the long finger is avulsed, and the paratenon is exposed.
Which of the following is most appropriate for reconstruction of the index finger?
(A) Skin graft
(B) Moberg advancement flap
(C) Reverse cross-finger flap
(D) Thenar flap
(E) Volar V-Y advancement flap
The correct response is Option D.
The thenar flap is most appropriate for reconstruction of this patient’s defect. This flap can be used to effectively reconstruct defects of the tips of the index and long fingers, which flex comfortably into the thenar eminence. In contrast, because the ring and small fingers have difficulty reaching the thenar crease, defects of these fingertips can be covered instead using a hypothenar flap from the ulnar side of the hand.
Split-thickness or full-thickness skin grafting is inappropriate over exposed bone, and padding is required for coverage of any fingertip defect.
Moberg flaps are recommended for coverage of soft-tissue defects of the volar pad of the thumb. The dorsal circulation of the thumb allows for the extensive soft-tissue mobilization required with this flap. The neurovascular bundles are elevated with the Moberg flap.
A reverse cross-finger flap is used to cover defects of the dorsal aspect of the finger. With this flap, subcutaneous tissue is harvested from the dorsal and not the volar aspect of the finger; therefore, the neurovascular bundles are not disrupted. A cross-finger flap cannot be used in this patient because the dorsal skin of the long finger is avulsed.
Likewise, a volar V-Y advancement flap is not possible because the volar skin pad of the index finger has also been avulsed. Although the dorsal skin is intact, it should not be used for coverage because the patient would like to preserve finger length, and because the risk for development of a hook nail deformity would be increased if the dorsal skin were transferred.
A 27-year-old man is brought to emergency department because of a thumb avulsion injury measuring 3 × 3 cm. A photograph is shown. Which of the following is the best option for sensate, soft-tissue coverage?
A) Cross-finger flap
B) First dorsal metacarpal artery flap
C) Moberg flap
D) Pedicled groin flap
E) Skin grafting
The correct response is Option B.
There are several sensate options for thumb pulp deformities. These include neurovascular island flaps, Moberg flaps, free toe pulp flaps, and the first dorsal metacarpal artery flap (FDMA). Cross finger flaps, skin grafts, and pedicle groin flaps do not have innate innervation. The defect in the question involves the entire pulp of the thumb overlying the distal phalanx and is too large for a Moberg advancement flap.
The FDMA flap is supplied by its eponymous artery, which travels in the fascia overlying the index metacarpal and supplies the skin overlying the dorsum of the proximal phalanx. The vessel is accompanied superficially by a branch of the radial nerve that provides neural activation to the skin overlying the proximal phalanx of the index finger. The flap can be transposed to provide sensate coverage of the tip of the thumb, and can provide sufficient size to resurface relatively large defects.
Cortical reorientation is the fact that the brain recognizes a stimulus from the flap area as a stimulus from the thumb, and not from the index finger. This process takes some time, but is usually complete after 2 years. Average static two-point discrimination in these flaps utilized for thumb resurfacing is 10 to 11 mm.
Use of the FDMA flap for resurfacing of the thumb pulp has been compared to heterodigital island flaps in several studies. Both remain options to be considered, but the ease of elevation, limited dissection, and acceptable donor site morbidity make the FDMA flap a common primary option for thumb tip resurfacing.
A 35-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department four hours after sustaining an amputation of the right thumb when it was caught in a machine at a meatpacking plant. The amputated part was wrapped in moist saline gauze and placed on ice within 20 minutes of the injury, and has 12cm of flexor pollicis longus tendon attached to the part. Which of the following factors is most likely to limit the success of replantation of the thumb?
A) Mechanism of injury
B) Inadequate bone stock
C) Initial treatment of digit
D) Possibility of infection
E) Warm ischemia time
Correct answer is A.
The extensor tendons and flexor tendons in the scenario described have been avulsed from the musculotendinous junction. In addition, the nerve ends extend proximally beyond the level of the soft-tissue injury; both of these findings are indicative of an avulsion-type injury. Such injury mechanisms often result in significant intimal injury within digital arteries, limiting the success of replantation. The amputated part was appropriately managed, and warm ischemia time was minimized. Digits have been successfully replanted with greater than 24 hours of cold ischemia time. Amputations at the metacarpophalangeal or interphalangeal level of the thumb may result in joint fusion; however, in this scenario, bone stock is adequate for skeletal fixation. Infection is a potential problem following any traumatic hand injury, but adequate surgical debridement and appropriate antibiotic coverage make replantation loss from infection a rare occurrence.
Which of the following are the most likely findings in a patient with Dupuytren’s diathesis?
(A) Heberden’s nodes and flexor tenosynovitis
(B) Hypersensitivity and skin discoloration
(C) Knuckle pads and plantar fascia involvement
(D) Thrombophlebitis and sclerodactyly
(E) Trophic changes in the fingers and decreased temperature
The correct response is Option C.
Dupuytren’s diathesis is an aggressive form of Dupuytren’s contracture associated with knuckle pads, involvement of the plantar fascia, and Peyronie’s disease, or thickening of the tunica albuginea of the penis. Dupuytren’s diathesis has an earlier age of onset and a more rapid progression than Dupuytren’s contractures, and is more likely to be bilateral and to involve the radial side of the hand. In contrast, Dupuytren’s contractures typically affect the ulnarmost digits.
Heberden’s (DIP) and Bouchard (PIP) nodes, which affect the distal interphalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints, respectively, occur in association with osteoarthritis of the hand.
Patients with Dupuytren’s diathesis who undergo surgery have been shown to be at increased risk for development of a flare response with early recurrence or extension of the condition. A flare response is a type of extreme, focal reflex sympathetic dystrophy or complex regional pain syndrome that occurs after surgery for Dupuytren’s contracture and is associated with hypersensitivity and skin discoloration.
Flexor tenosynovitis occurs in patients with trigger finger or rheumatoid arthritis.
Thrombophlebitis, sclerodactyly, trophic changes in the fingers, and decreased temperature in the fingers and/or hand are symptomatic of vascular conditions such as ischemia, scleroderma, or Raynaud’s disease.
A 45-year-old man who sustained a crush injury to the right index finger when a 55-gallon drum fell on the finger eight days ago. On examination, there is significant compromise of the soft tissues and multiple stellate pattern injuries of the volar and ulnar aspects of the finger with marginal necrosis. There are gangrenous changes of the fingertip and only marginal vascularization of the finger to the level of the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint. The dense anesthesia in the distribution of the radial and ulnar digital nerves has worsened over time. The flexor and extensor tendons are intact. Radiographs show several areas of impacted debris; there is no evidence of fracture.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
(A) Healing by second intention
(B) Debridement and dressing changes
(C) Amputation at the PIP joint
(D) Amputation at the metacarpophalangeal joint
(E) Ray amputation
The correct response is Option E.
This 45-year-old man sustained a multilevel crush injury to his right index finger, resulting in gangrenous changes at the level of the midportion of the midphalanx. In most patients who have extensive soft-tissue and nerve damage, the affected digit should be shortened to a level at which ample soft tissue is available for primary closure of the wound. However, complete ray amputation is recommended instead in this patient because the soft-tissue injuries extend proximal to the level of the distal interphalangeal joint. This single-stage procedure will securely close the soft tissues, allowing the patient to return to work sooner. In addition, oblique osteotomy should be performed through the proximal
metacarpal flare, enhancing the curved web space. Hand function can be realized by allowing the middle finger to perform as an index finger during grasping.
Healing by second intention is typically reserved for fingertip amputations without exposed bone. In this patient who has an extensive area of injury with contamination, second intention healing may result in the development of wound sepsis. Although dressing changes can aid in wound debridement, they would be inadequate in a patient with a severely injured and possibly contaminated digit.
Staged reconstruction of the skin, tendons, nerves, and vessels would result in a stiff, insensitive digit that would be bypassed during hand activities.
Amputation at the PIP joint is rarely indicated for the index finger. Amputation through the metacarpophalangeal joint would result in a prominent, cumbersome amputation stump and would provide no advantage over ray amputation because the intrinsic and extrinsic tendons have already been sacrificed.
A 25-year-old laborer who has sustained a crush injury of the thumb. Examination shows complete avulsion of the extensor pollicis longus tendon from its insertion as well as avulsion of the dorsal soft tissues from the germinal matrix to the midproximal phalanx. The patient wishes to maintain as much thumb function as possible.
Which of the following flaps is most appropriate for soft-tissue coverage of the wound?
(A) Dermal flap
(B) Flag flap
(C) Free flap
(D) Kite flap
(E) Muscle flap
The correct response is Option D.
A kite flap will provide reliable soft-tissue coverage of this patient’s wound. This axially patterned flap is based on the first dorsal metacarpal artery; it can be elevated from the dorsal aspect of the proximal phalanx of the index finger. In order to reach distal defects of the dorsal thumb, the surgeon should dissect proximally to the origin of the first dorsal metacarpal artery, just proximal to the bifurcation of the dorsal radial artery and into the princeps pollicis artery and deep palmar arch. Although this flap is technically demanding, it will provide optimal results.
A dermal turnover flap from the index finger will not have a sufficient arc of rotation to cover this defect. A flag flap is best for coverage of defects involving the proximal phalanges or metacarpophalangeal joints of the fingers and should not be used for the thumb. A free flap should not be attempted when more simple options are available. A muscle flap is too bulky and would inhibit pinch strength, effectively limiting the use of the hand, which is unacceptable in a laborer.
A 45-year-old woman comes to the office because of a split in the nail plate following a previous crush injury to the left index finger. The patient desires improvement in the appearance of the nail. A photograph is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
A) Application of topical phenol
B) Excision/repair of the nail bed
C) Nail plate avulsion
D) Oral antifungal therapy
E) Split-thickness skin grafting
The correct response is Option B.
The most appropriate method of treatment is excision and repair of the nail bed.
The anatomy of the nail consists of a nail plate, nail fold, and a nail bed. The nail bed is the soft tissue beneath the nail plate, which is composed of the germinal matrix proximally and the sterile matrix distally. Most nail plate growth (90%) is provided by the germinal matrix. In cases of trauma, adherence between the nail fold dorsally and nail bed volarly can result in synechiae, interfering with nail growth and resulting in a longitudinal split in the nail. It is important to prevent adherence of dorsal and palmar elements by splinting the nail fold open during the healing phase. This can be accomplished by replacement of the nail plate if available, or using a piece of foil from the suture packet. This patient presents with a split nail deformity after previous trauma. There is scarring between the nail fold and the nail bed, resulting in a longitudinal split with inability to allow for growth of the nail plate in the central portion. Proper treatment consists of excision of the nail bed scar, with repair of the nail bed. Splinting of the nail fold during the healing period will prevent recurrent scarring of the dorsal fold to the palmar surface. In cases where there is significant scar tissue and inability to close the resultant defect after excision, grafting of the nail bed may be required. A split graft of the sterile matrix can be performed if the deficit is only present distally. If the germinal matrix is involved, a full-thickness graft is needed.
Avulsion of the nail plate alone will not eliminate the scarring at the proximal nail fold.
Oral antifungal therapy is useful in treatment of fungal onychomycosis.
Complete excision of the nail bed and split-thickness skin grafting can be used in nail ablation, but would result in absence of the nail and not yield a more cosmetic appearance.
Topical phenol application has been used for nail matricectomy, but can produce irregular tissue destruction and would result in loss of the nail.
A 42-year-old man comes to the emergency department 45 minutes after he sustained an amputation injury to the long finger of the right hand (shown) when the hand was crushed in a truck tailgate as it was being closed. Physical examination shows exposed bone. No fractures are noted on radiographs of the hand. The most appropriate management of this patient’s injury is reconstruction using which of the following techniques?
(A) Atasoy-Kleinert flap
(B) Cross-finger flap
(C) Moberg flap
(D) Split-thickness skin grafting
(E) Thenar flap
The correct response is Option A.
Goals in management of fingertip amputations include wound closure, maximizing sensory return, maintaining joint function, obtaining satisfactory cosmesis, and preservation of length, especially in the thumb. Split-thickness grafting would not be appropriate to cover with exposed bone. The cross-finger flap is a pedicled, heterodigital flap that brings in durable cover from the dorsal middle phalanx skin from an adjacent finger. The donor site requires a split-thickness skin graft for coverage. The thenar flap is a regional pedicled flap based on the soft tissue of the thenar eminence. Both the cross-finger flap and the thenar flap reconstructions have the disadvantages of requiring a second stage for division and inset as well as problems with joint stiffness secondary to immobilization while awaiting vascular ingrowth from the recipient bed. The Atasoy-Kleinert flap is a homodigital V-Y advancement flap of the volar pulp tissue useful in transverse or oblique fingertip injuries with greater soft tissue on the volar aspect. The Atasoy-Kleinert flap is the best choice because it is a one-stage repair that allows primary closure of its donor site. The Moberg flap is a volar advancement flap used in thumb tip amputation coverage.
A 52-year-old man sustains an amputation of the index finger of his dominant right hand from a table saw. Physical examination shows a sharp amputation immediately distal to the flexor digitorum superficialis insertion. He does not smoke cigarettes. Which of the following factors is the most appropriate indication to perform a replantation?
A) Dominant hand
B) Index finger amputation
C) Level of amputation
D) Nonsmoking status
E) Patient age
The correct response is Option C.
The most appropriate indication to perform a replantation is the level of the amputation. Replantation of an amputation distal to the flexor digitorum superficialis is attempted because the function of the digit is improved with additional length to a normal proximal interphalangeal joint. An amputation in a child is an indication for replantation (adult age is not). Hand dominance is not a major variable in the determination of whether or not to perform a replantation. Replantation of single digits (including the index finger) at the proximal phalanx or proximal interphalangeal joint in adults often is not performed because the limited motion of the digit can inhibit overall hand function. An exception is any level amputation of the thumb, which is a major indication for replantation because the thumb provides 40 to 50% of hand function. Smoking status is not a major variable for the consideration of replantation.
A 36-year-old man comes to the emergency department 8 hours after he sustained a sharp circumferential laceration of the proximal forearm. Most of the musculature is visibly transected. The distal forearm and hand are pale and insensate, and there are no discernible pulses distal to the laceration. X-ray study shows no bony injury. All structures are successfully repaired and hand perfusion is restored during a 6-hour procedure. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in treatment?
A) Administration of an anticoagulant
B) Administration of thrombolytic agents
C) Forearm and hand fasciotomies
D) Splinting, and intravenous administration of antibiotics
E) Tissue oximetry
The correct response is Option C.
Following a protracted course of tissue ischemia, reperfusion will lead to soft-tissue and muscle edema, and there is a very high risk of compartment syndrome. Routine prophylactic fasciotomy after arterial repair has been questioned. Nevertheless, an extended warm ischemia time of greater than 8 hours and a combined injury involving both major arteries and veins have been proposed as indications for this procedure. In this scenario, the patient has both of these risk factors for reperfusion compartment syndrome, and fasciotomy of the hand and forearm should be performed before leaving the operating room.
Wound management, splinting, intravenous administration of antibiotics, and monitoring of hand perfusion are important postoperative modalities, but they are not as temporally relevant as fasciotomy. The use of thrombolytic agents is not indicated in this setting because the perfusion was restored and there is no reason in the vignette to suspect evolving thrombus formation. The routine use of anticoagulant after uncomplicated vessel repair is controversial.
Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to replantation?
(A) History of smoking
(B) Multilevel amputation
(C) Recent myocardial infarction
(D) Self-inflicted amputation
(E) Single-digit amputation
The correct response is Option C.
Associated life-threatening conditions are the only true contraindications to replantation of an amputated part. All other concomitant conditions, such as diabetes mellitus or psychiatric disorders, are relative contraindications, and the risks and benefits of replantation should be weighed in patients with these conditions.
A history of smoking may affect the success of the replantation but is not an absolute contraindication.
In some patients, multilevel amputations can be replanted successfully, especially if the amputation is sharp and/or guillotine-like. Although a self-inflicted amputation in a patient with an underlying psychiatric disorder is problematic, replantation is not contraindicated absolutely.
In patients who sustain single-digit amputations, replantation is relatively contraindicated because the risk for functional loss in the adjacent fingers is high in relation to the possible functional gain that will result. Replantation is strongly indicated in patients with amputations of multiple digits or of the thumb. Replantation is easier and is more likely to be successful in patients with sharp, guillotine-like amputations than in those with ragged, avulsion, or crush-type injuries.
In general, amputations distal to the insertion of the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) tendon (zone I) are associated with a better functional outcome than amputations proximal to the insertion of the FDS tendon (zone II).
A 30-year-old man comes to the emergency department 30 minutes after he sustained traumatic avulsion amputation of the thumb at the level of the interphalangeal joint. The amputated digit was wrapped in a wet towel immediately after the injury and has been kept on ice since that time. Physical examination shows complete avulsions of the extensor pollicis longus and flexor pollicis longus tendons from their muscle bellies. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient’s injury?
A) Replantation and tendon repair
B) Replantation of the amputated digit and immediate fusion of the interphalangeal joint
C) Revision amputation and delayed pollicization
D) Revision amputation and subsequent transfer of the great toe
E) Revision amputation, immediate shortening of the bone, and closure of the skin
Correct answer is B.
Because the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) and flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendons are avulsed, repair or reconstruction of their function is difficult. When these tendons are reinserted, there is a risk of infection. The main contribution of the thumb to overall hand function is through its length and ability to oppose the fingers to grab and hold objects. The critical length of the thumb is the level of the interphalangeal (IP) joint. It is optimal to preserve the length of the thumb to at least the IP level. Thumb length is more important than motion. Considerable motion can be preserved through the metacarpophalangeal and carpometacarpal joints of the thumb. Therefore, thumb function is not significantly altered with fusion of the IP joint. Furthermore, fusion of the IP joint can allow for less tension across the microneurovascular repairs. This has been shown to improve survival rates for thumb replantations as well as produce reliable recovery of two-point discrimination through nerve repairs that are not under tension. Furthermore, shortening of the thumb allows for avoidance of the potential need for grafts to repair the artery or nerves. If the IP joint of the thumb is fused, there is no need to repair the FPL tendon. Revision amputation with closure, pollicization, or toe transfer would not yield the functional outcome of a successful replantation. Specifically, transfer of the great toe is not needed if thumb length is at the IP level.
A 55-year-old man with well-controlled type 1 diabetes mellitus and a history of kidney transplantation comes to the clinic because he has had increasing pain, swelling, and redness of the right index finger over the past four days. Five days ago, he sustained an injury to the finger when a thorn became lodged under the skin while he was gardening. Medical records show that hemoglobin A1cwas 12% three weeks ago. Temperature is 37.9EC (100.2EF). On laboratory studies, white blood cell count is 16,000/mm3 and serum glucose level is 495 mg/dL. Examination of the right hand shows severe flexor tenosynovitis of the index finger. Which of the following factors in this patient increases his risk of amputation of the digit?
(A) Hemoglobin A1c greater than 10%
(B) History of kidney transplantation
(C) Insulin dependence
(D) Serum glucose level greater than 450 mg/dL
(E) White blood cell count greater than 14,000/mm3
The correct response is Option B.
History of renal failure or kidney transplantation is associated with the highest risk of amputation in diabetic patients with hand infections. Amputation rates in this population range from 75% to 100%.
Multiple studies have shown that diabetes mellitus negatively impacts the prognosis of hand infections. Hand infections in patients with diabetes take longer to resolve and are more likely to require multiple debridements than infections in patients without diabetes. In addition, initiation of treatment is more likely to be delayed in patients with diabetes. In 50% of cases, the initial surgical procedure does not control the infection adequately. Amputation rates for hand infections in patients with diabetes range from 7% to 63%. In up to 28% of patients undergoing amputation, a repeat procedure at a more proximal level is required.
Insulin dependence, history of poorly controlled diabetes (as indicated by elevated hemoglobin A1c), white blood cell count greater than 14,000/mm3, and serum glucose level greater than 450 mg/dL have not been shown to significantly increase the risk of amputation in diabetic patients with hand infections.
A 23-year-old man comes to the emergency department immediately after he sustained an injury to the tip and nail bed of the index finger of the right hand. Physical examination shows avulsion of the nail bed and nail plate. Ninety percent of the sterile matrix is missing and cannot be located on the underside of the nail plate. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention for repair of the missing nail bed?
(A) Application of regenerative dermal matrix (Alloderm)
(B) Grafting of the sterile matrix from the great toe
(C) Grafting of the sterile matrix from the injured nail bed
(D) Healing by secondary intention
(E) Skin grafting from the hypothenar area
The correct response is Option B.
If the area of loss of sterile matrix is significant, grafting with sterile matrix provides the best outcome. More than half of the sterile matrix is missing from the injured nail bed of the patient described, which is not enough to provide for coverage of the defect. Therefore, use of sterile matrix from the great toe as the donor site is the most appropriate intervention in the scenario described.
Regenerative dermal matrix is not sterile matrix and application of it would not reconstruct either the germinal or sterile matrix.
Allowing the nail bed injury of the patient described to heal by secondary intention would result in nail nonadherence and risk bony infection.
The sterile matrix should not be reconstructed with a standard skin graft because this would also result in nail nonadherence and risk frequent infection.
A 56-year-old man is evaluated because of Dupuytren contractures of the hand with palpable cords. Collagenase injection of which of the following joint contractures is most likely to result in serious complications?
A) Index metacarpophalangeal (MCP) contracture of 50 degrees
B) Long proximal interphalangeal (PIP) contracture of 30 degrees
C) Ring MCP contracture of 60 degrees
D) Little PIP contracture of 20 degrees
E) Thumb MCP contracture of 40 degrees
The correct response is Option D.
Collagenase injection has been FDA-approved for the treatment of Dupuytren contractures with palpable cords and works by dissolving collagen contained in the cord. Injection is typically performed with placement of collagenase along several areas along the Dupuytren cord using a hubless 1-mL syringe, followed by a finger extension procedure approximately 24 hours after injection. Care should be taken to avoid injecting into tendons, nerves, blood vessels, or other collagen-containing structures.
Injection of the 20-degree contracture of the little finger proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint is most likely to result in serious complications.
Dupuytren contracture is a disease resulting in progressive contracture of the palmar fascia. The disease involves activity of myofibroblasts and has a genetic component, being more common in people of northern European descent.
Treatment of PIP contractures of the little finger is most likely to result in serious complications. There have been a few incidents of flexor tendon rupture occurring from collagenase injections, and these are thought to occur due to the proximity of the flexor tendon to the Dupuytren cord. Care must be taken to keep the collagenase injection away from the flexor tendon in this finger. Recommendations for collagenase injections for PIP contractures in the little finger include keeping the injection no more than 2 to 3 mm deep and as close to the palmar digital crease as possible, staying no more than 4 mm distal to the palmar digital crease.
Serious complications are not found to be more frequent in other digits or in the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) vs. PIP joints (other than in the little finger PIP joint).
The degree of contracture does not have a bearing on the incidence of serious complications.
A 37-year-old woman is brought to the operating room after sustaining a crush injury to the left upper arm during a rollover motor vehicle collision that included prolonged extraction from the vehicle. In the operating room, the patient underwent bypass grafting to reconstruct the brachial artery after fixation of the humerus. Postoperatively, the patient reports increasing pain of the left forearm with increasing pain control requirement. Doppler shows intact radial and ulnar pulses. Which of the following clinical studies is most likely to help determine the treatment plan at this time?
A) Assessment of capillary refill of the finger tips
B) Doppler examination of the digital arteries
C) Duplex scan to check patency of graft
D) Measurement of the compartment pressures of the forearm
E) Pulse oximetry of the digits
The correct response is Option D.
In this scenario, the physician should rule out compartment syndrome for several reasons: the crush injury, the reperfusion state, and pain unrelieved by pain medications prior to providing more pain relief. Pain that is out of proportion to the expected level or out of proportion to examination findings should alert the clinician to the possibility of compartment syndrome.
The only study option provided that would give the clinician the ability to rule out compartment syndrome is the direct measurement of compartment pressures, which is recommended by several authors. Loss of peripheral artery pulses or perfusion to the distal skin would be very late presentations of the ischemic process, at a point where intervention, such as fasciotomy may not be effective. Missing this diagnosis in a patient such as this one, may lead to loss of muscular function (ischemic muscle contracture) even if the limb as a whole is salvaged.
The presence of palpable pulses is reassuring evidence for the patency of the bypass graft but does not tell the clinician about the perfusion in the capillary beds of the muscle. Similarly, perfusion of the skin and the digits does not guarantee flow in the muscle that was reperfused.
A healthy, active 75-year-old man of Northern European descent comes to the office because he has had “tightness” in the ring and small fingers of the nondominant left hand for the past 15 years. He is able to work and play golf without difficulty. Physical examination shows a thick band of tissue in the palm extending into the involved digits. Fixed flexion deformities of 20 degrees in the metacarpophalangeal joints and no contractures in the proximal interphalangeal joints are noted. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?
(A) Observation
(B) Splinting
(C) Injection
(D) Fasciectomy
(E) Fasciotomy
The correct response is Option A.
Palmar bands in an older man of Northern European descent without a history of trauma is most likely Dupuytren’s disease. Because the patient is entirely functional and has a history of slow progression, observation would be the best course of management at this time. Threshold indications for surgery include a 30-degree contracture of the metacarpophalangeal joint or any contracture of the proximal interphalangeal joint. In a fully functioning patient with slow progression of disease, immediate surgery would not be necessary. Corticosteroid injections are useful for painful Dupuytren=s nodules but are generally ineffective for the extensive bands described. Finally, although therapy is a routine part of the postoperative management of this problem, it is unlikely to be of benefit in preventing the progression of disease. Stretching the joint contractures with splints and external fixators has shown limited long-term improvement.
A 38-year-old right-hand–dominant man is evaluated in the emergency department 4 hours after amputating the left thumb and index finger with a circular saw. Microvascular replantation surgery is planned. Which of the following is first in the sequence of repair?
A) Artery
B) Bone
C) Nerve
D) Tendon
E) Vein
The correct response is Option B.
When multiple digits are amputated, thumb replantation takes priority. If the amputated thumb is not suitable for replantation, the best available finger is replanted in its position. If there are injuries to other fingers or parts of the hand, they should be repaired first before replantation. In a mutilated hand, functional preservation takes priority. Procedures that ensure maximal function must be done first because the hand should not be disturbed after replantation. The sequence of repair of structures in multi-digit replants can be performed either digit-by-digit or structure-by-structure. While structure-by-structure is more efficient, warm ischemia time tends to be longer. If the thumb is involved, it is preferred that the thumb be replanted first followed by the remaining digits.
After debridement, vessels and nerves should be identified and tagged because they may be more difficult to locate after bone fixation. The sequence usually is bone fixation, tendon repair, and then vessel and nerve repair. Bone shortening facilitates repair of structures without tension. Bone fixation is performed first and should be stable enough to undergo the rigors of hand therapy. After bone fixation, the volar structures are repaired by structure type (i.e., flexor tendon, then the artery and nerves) followed by the dorsal structures (extensor tendon and veins).
A 60-year-old mechanic is brought to the emergency department 12 hours after sustaining a amputation of the nondominant left thumb at the level of the metacarpophalangeal joint. At the time of injury, the amputated part was immediately placed in a plastic bag over an ice slush. He underwent arthroplasty of the carpometacarpal joint of the left hand five years ago.
Which of the following factors is most likely to influence the success of replantation in this patient?
(A) Age of the patient
(B) Hematocrit of the patient
(C) Length of ischemia time
(D) Mechanism of injury
(E) Previous hand surgery
The correct response is Option D.
In addition to the experience of the surgeon, the mechanism of injury is most likely to influence the success of replantation in any patient who has sustained an amputation of a digit. Because the vessels of the amputated part are damaged in patients who sustain avulsion and crush amputations, perfusion will be impeded, decreasing the likelihood of successful replantation. In addition, cooling of the amputated part contributes to the success of the replantation, as the amputated part can be replanted as late as 24 hours after injury if it is well preserved.
The age of the patient does not affect the success rate of replantation in the absence of other comorbid conditions or a history of cigarette smoking. Likewise, hematocrit and a history of hand surgery generally do not influence the outcome of replantation significantly. Because digits do not contain muscle, the length of ischemia time is not an influential factor.
An 86-year-old farmer is brought to the emergency department because of a large dorsal wound of his nondominant left hand sustained when his hand was caught in a flail mower. After debridement is performed, examination shows normal volar structures, including nerve and tendon function, and loss of dorsal skin and tendons. Medical history includes myocardial infarction 1 month ago. An x-ray study and photograph are shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate method of reconstruction for this patient?
A) Bilaminate neodermis (Integra) and skin grafting with delayed bone grafting
B) External fixator and posterior interosseous artery flap
C) Finger fillet flaps of index and middle finger
D) Free anterior lateral thigh flap with secondary bone grafting
E) Pedicle radial forearm flap with secondary bone grafting
The correct response is Option C.
When caring for patients with mangling hand injuries, it is imperative to consider all aspects of the patient’s history and future goals. This patient would be at risk for cardiac complications if a longer procedure such as a free flap were chosen. The amount of bone loss in the index and middle metacarpals is also problematic and would most likely require multiple procedures. Just placing an external fixation and covering the wound with a local flap is also possible but will require several procedures. Bone grafting while receiving bilaminate neodermis (Integra) and skin grafts is not recommended because of the lack of subcutaneous tissue and poor blood supply. The most expeditious method of covering this patient’s wounds in one procedure is finger fillet flaps of the injured digits. Finger fillet flaps can cover a large area for reconstruction as shown.
A 65-year-old man undergoes fasciectomy for Dupuytren disease affecting the left ring finger. During dissection, the ulnar digital nerve is noted to be centrally displaced on the ring finger by a Dupuytren cord. A photograph is shown. Which of the following palmar fascia structures contributes to the formation of this cord? A ) Central band
B ) Cleland ligament
C ) Lateral digital sheet
D ) Natatory ligament
E ) Septa of Legueu and Juvara
The correct response is Option C.
Except for Cleland ligament, any of the above named structures can become involved in Dupuytren contracture. Once involved in a contracture, the name of the structure is changed to include ?cord? (e.g., natatory ligament becomes natatory cord).
A spiral cord is formed when Dupuytren disease affects the pretendinous band, spiral band, lateral digital sheet, and Grayson ligament. The normal palmar fascia structures pass around the neurovascular bundle in a spiral fashion. As the cord forms and contracts, it eventually becomes straight. The neurovascular bundle is then displaced centrally on the digit and is distorted to spiral around the cord.
A 25-year-old police officer is brought to the emergency department 30 minutes after he sustained amputation injuries to the dominant right hand. Physical examination shows guillotine-type amputation of the thumb at the level of the metacarpophalangeal (MP) joint and index finger at the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint. The amputated parts were wrapped in moist gauze and placed in a plastic bag immediately after the injury. Transfer of the patient to a replantation facility will not be possible for at least 18 to 24 hours because a hurricane in the region has disabled all ground and air emergency transport. The emergency department physician has experience suturing minor lacerations of the hand but has no microscopic surgical experience. He contacts the replantation facility by telephone for consultation with a plastic surgeon. Which of the following is the most appropriate instruction regarding management of the patient’s condition until transport to a replantation facility is possible?
A) Debride and close the wounds
B) Dermabrade the epidermis of the amputated parts and insert them under the skin of the abdomen through two separate incisions
C) Reattach the amputated parts with sutures as a composite graft and apply splints to the involved digits
D) Replant the amputated parts with step-by-step guidance of the plastic surgeon via telephone
E) Wrap the amputated parts in saline-soaked gauze and place them in a plastic bag on a bed of ice
Correct answer is E.
The time interval between amputation and replantation can change a replantable situation to an unreplantable one. There are no strict guidelines for ischemia times. There have been case reports of a successful hand replantation performed after 54 hours of cold ischemia and a successful digit replantation after 42 hours of warm ischemia. Acceptable ischemia time is dependent on the amount of muscle in the amputated part: the more muscle, the shorter the acceptable ischemia time. General guidelines are that if warm ischemia time is greater than 6 hours for amputations proximal to the carpus or 12 hours for the digits, replantation is usually not recommended. Cold ischemia can double these acceptable time limitations. The patient discussed is a young police officer with an amputation of the thumb and index finger. The thumb is the only opposable digit and, as such, is critical for hand function. Thumb amputation is a strong indication for replantation. The dangerous weather in the scenario described precludes quick transfer; however, the cold ischemia time would be approximately 24 hours in a digit with no muscle. This time frame is within the limits for a successful outcome. Therefore, the most appropriate management in the scenario described is to wrap the amputated parts in saline soaked gauze and place them on ice. Debriding and closing the wounds is not appropriate because this would treat the cold ischemia time as a contraindication for replantation and commit this patient to late reconstruction. Reattaching the amputated parts with sutures as a composite graft and applying splints to the involved digits is not appropriate because of the size of the amputated digit. Small composite grafts can survive; however, this applies to young children with distal tip amputations. Furthermore, suturing the parts back on will create a condition of warm ischemia instead of cold ischemia. In situations of near-complete amputations, the attached digits can be placed in ice/saline slurry. Dermabrading the epidermis of the amputated parts and inserting them under the skin of the abdomen through two separate incisions will not work for similar reasons. Replanting the amputated parts with step-by-step guidance of the plastic surgeon via telephone is inappropriate because of the poor outcome associated with an inexperienced operator.
A 28-year-old, right-hand–dominant woman is brought to the emergency department after sustaining a severe crush injury to the right upper extremity during a rollover motor vehicle collision. Examination shows multiple digit amputations and comminuted fractures of the distal radius and ulna. After multiple debridements, the limb is unsalvageable. Which of the following is the shortest stump length distal to the elbow that is required when fitting a prosthesis to maintain native elbow motion?
A) 3 cm
B) 8 cm
C) 13 cm
D) 18 cm
E) 23 cm
The correct response is Option B.
The minimum stump length required for prosthesis fitting is 5 to 10 cm distal to the elbow. Major upper extremity amputations are defined as amputations at or proximal to the wrist joint. Data from 2005 estimate that upper extremity amputations account for 34% of the 1.6 million people living in the US with limb loss, and 41,000 of these were considered major amputations. Limb salvage is always the goal of the initial surgical management; however, the decision to amputate is made when limb salvage will result in a less functional outcome for the patient.
The ideal stump has adequate length, durable soft tissue, minimal edema, and a tapered shape with minimal scar tissue that is not directly over the bony prominence. Muscle preservation is important for the potential use of a myoelectric prosthesis.
In order to preserve elbow function and allow for fitting of a prosthesis, at least 5 cm of a bony stump is required. Although shorter transradial stumps do not allow for pronation and supination, preservation of elbow function is felt to be worthwhile functionally. Transfer of the biceps tendon to the ulna should be considered in shorter transradial stumps to decrease the risk of developing a flexion contracture at the elbow.
Amputations at least 10 cm proximal to the wrist or at the junction of the middle and distal 1/3 are felt to be ideal in terms of muscle coverage, stability of prosthesis fit, and forearm rotation, but not required. More distal stumps can be problematic in terms of soft-tissue coverage over bone and limb-length discrepancy to accommodate the wrist unit of the prosthesis.
A 56-year-old woman with a history of systemic sclerosis (scleroderma) is evaluated for intractable pain and progressive ulceration to the right index and middle fingers despite medical management. Duplex ultrasonography shows no identifiable vascular occlusion in the affected digits. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?
A) Interposition bypass grafting
B) Intra-arterial TPA
C) Sympathectomy
D) Thrombectomy
E) Venous arterialization
The correct response is Option C.
For patients who have patent arterial inflow on imaging, spasm is likely to be responsible for their ischemia. Spasm is most common in those with autoimmune disease. Digital sympathectomy involves stripping the adventitia from the radial, ulnar, and digital arteries in an effort to decrease sympathetic input that is the presumed cause of pathologic vasoconstriction. Vascular occlusion with a satisfactory distal target may require an interposition bypass. Occlusion without a distal target for bypass may require venous arterialization. In the absence of evidence of occlusion, there is no indication for thrombolytic therapy.
A 50-year-old woman has joint stiffness and shiny edema of both hands. She has had difficulty swallowing for the past several months. Examination shows ulcers on the distal tips of several fingers. These findings are most consistent with
(A) Raynaud’s disease
(B) Raynaud’s phenomenon
(C) reflex sympathetic dystrophy
(D) scleroderma
(E) systemic lupus erythematosus
The correct response is Option D.
The most likely diagnosis in this 50-year-old woman is scleroderma, or primary systemic sclerosis. Characteristic findings in patients with scleroderma include shiny edema of the skin and stiffness of the joints. Vasospasm of the digits may lead to ischemia and ultimately to the ulceration typically associated with Raynaud’s phenomenon. These conditions may occur concomitantly as part of the CREST syndrome (calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, esophageal dysfunction, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasias).
Raynaud’s disease is a vasospastic disorder characterized by triphasic color changes of the skin. This disorder has no gender predilection and typically has its onset in patients age 30 to 50 years. Hand symptoms are bilateral and dysesthesias of the extremities are associated. Symptoms must be present for two years before a definitive diagnosis can be made.
In patients with Raynaud’s phenomenon, there are episodic triphasic color changes of the digits following stress or cold exposure. Digital gangrene may result. This condition often occurs in patients with connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma.
Patients with reflex sympathetic dystrophy have the sudden onset of diffuse pain and hypersensitivity of one extremity following surgery or trauma to the extremity. Signs and symptoms of reflex sympathetic dystrophy include diminished hand function, joint stiffness, color changes, and vasomotor instability.
Systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disorder characterized by arthralgias of the hands, wrists, and feet and swelling of the joints. This condition typically affects women of child-bearing age. Neurologic involvement is common; a malar rash can also be seen.
A 25-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after sustaining an avulsion of the ring finger of the left hand. The avulsed part was transported to the hospital in a plastic bag. The patient is employed as a concert pianist and her livelihood depends on successful replantation. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment to improve survival of the finger and optimize the clinical outcome?
A) Acute bone grafting
B) Coverage of the exposed tendons with a groin flap
C) Delayed tendon reconstruction
D) Neural repair with at least eight interrupted 10-0 nylon sutures
E) Resection of the injured vessels and vein grafting
Correct answer is E.
Ring avulsion injury remains one of the most challenging replantation problems because of the large zone of injury of the soft tissues. As a result, the regional vessels are significantly damaged due to the stretch avulsion, and as such, need to be resected widely and replaced with vein grafts. Amputated parts should be transported dry in a saline-iced slurry and protected by a plastic bag. Bone grafting should be reserved for a failed union, in the subacute or late setting, while tendon repair should be performed at the time of replantation. A neural repair with more than four sutures is not necessary and may contribute to neuroma formation.
A 65-year-old man comes to the office because of difficulty grasping items with the left hand. He sustained a sharp amputation of the thumb in the distal third of the proximal phalanx 9 months ago. Palmar and radial abduction of the residual thumb is symmetric to the uninjured thumb. Photographs are shown. Which of the following procedures is most likely to improve hand function in this patient?
A) Four-flap Z-plasty of the first web space
B) Groin flap
C) Heterodigital island flap augmentation of the thumb
D) Pollicization of the index finger
E) Resection of the first dorsal interosseous muscle
The correct response is Option A.
When approaching post-traumatic thumb reconstruction, two of the most important factors in determining treatment are the residual length and relative function of the remaining thumb. In this patient with a distal amputation and good active range of motion, the simplest and most beneficial procedure would be web-space deepening via a four-flap Z-plasty. Simple Z-plasty and dorsal rotational flaps can also serve to deepen the first web, but the most commonly used technique is the four-flap Z-plasty.
Groin flap can address soft-tissue defecits that this patient does not have.
Instances involving contractures of the first web space frequently require release or resection of some of the first web musculature, including the first dorsal interosseous. In a supple thumb with good abduction, this would not be necessary.
Pollicization of the index finger or the stump of an index finger can be useful when amputation occurs in the proximal third of the thumb. In the setting of a healthy index finger, however, amputations through the metacarpal would likely be best handled via toe-to-thumb transplantation.
Heterodigital island flaps are one method of restoring glabrous, sensate skin to the palmar surface of the thumb. Such flaps were useful primarily when trying to restore sensation to a thumb reconstructed through osteoplastic techniques. This flap would not add length to the thumb or serve to deepen the web space.
A 53-year-old tire mechanic comes to the office because of a 6-month history of a painful mass on the ulnar side of the palm, cold intolerance in the ring and little fingers, and numbness of the little finger of the right hand. Physical examination shows an ulcer on the tip of the little finger. Range of motion of the fingers is full. Doppler signals in the superficial palmar arch disappear with radial artery occlusion. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Fracture of the hook of the hamate
B) Ganglion cyst of the Guyon canal
C) Hypothenar hammer syndrome
D) Persistent median artery
E) Systemic sclerosis (scleroderma)
The correct response is Option C.
Hypothenar hammer syndrome occurs following repetitive blunt trauma to the hypothenar eminence. It is associated with cold intolerance, pain near the distal aspect of the Guyon canal, ulnar sensory dysfunction, and sometimes a mass near the hypothenar eminence. In severe cases, ulceration can occur in the ring and little fingers. The underlying pathology is thrombosis of the ulnar artery at the level of the Guyon canal.
Surgical treatment of hypothenar hammer syndrome consists of excision of the thrombosed arterial segment, usually followed by vascular reconstruction with primary repair or construction of a vein graft.
Fracture of the hook of the hamate, or hamulus, is seen more often in athletes who use rackets (ie, golfers, hockey players) or have direct trauma to the palm (ie, baseball catchers). An injury with acute pain is often noted, and tendon rupture may follow months later. Masses and fingertip ulceration are not seen with this condition. Treatment consists of excision of the fracture fragment.
Ganglion cysts of the Guyon canal usually present with motor dysfunction, sensory dysfunction, or both. Cold intolerance, fingertip ulceration, and a mass are not usually found.
Persistent median artery may present as a cause of carpal tunnel syndrome but would not cause a mass or ulceration.
Systemic sclerosis is a relatively rare connective tissue disorder. Its hallmark is calcium deposits within the skin and progressive skin tightening. While skin ulcerations are found in systemic sclerosis, masses in the ulnar palm are not.
An 18-year-old man sustains a deep laceration to the volar aspect of the wrist. Multiple tendons are involved. Which of the following structures is located in the carpal tunnel?
(A) Abductor pollicis longus
(B) Flexor carpi radialis
(C) Flexor digitorum superficialis
(D) Palmaris brevis
(E) Pronator teres
The correct response is Option C.
The carpal canal contains nine tendons: the flexor pollicis longus and the four slips of both the flexor digitorum superficialis and the flexor digitorum profundus. The ulnar nerve is contained within Guyon’s canal, which is bordered by the pisiform ligament, hook of the hamate ligament, and pisohamate ligament. The flexor carpi ulnaris partly forms the volar boundary of Guyon’s canal. The flexor carpi radialis is contained within its own flexor sheath outside the carpal canal. The palmaris longus, which is also outside the carpal canal, continues into the palm as the palmar aponeurotic expansion. The brachioradialis is an accessory elbow flexor that crosses the elbow and inserts into the distal radial aspect of the radius. The pronator teres is the most superficial of the forearm muscles and inserts into the radius proximal to the level of the wrist. The abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis are located within the first dorsal compartment. The lumbrical muscles arise from the flexor digitorum profundus tendons at the level of the palm and are typically distal to the carpal canal. The palmaris brevis is a vestigial muscle that partly constitutes the prominence of the proximal aspect of the hypothenar eminence of the hand. The palmar cutaneous branch exits from the median nerve at the level of the distal third of the forearm on the radial aspect of the flexor carpi radialis tendon as it travels toward the scaphoid tuberosity.
A 50-year-old man comes to the emergency department after sustaining amputation of the right long finger involving an avulsion mechanism. The patient is taken to surgery for replantation. During surgery, extensive vascular injury is seen, and an approximately 2-cm vascular gap of the digital arteries and veins results following excision of injured vessels. Which of the following interventions is most likely to increase the probability of functional digit replantation?
A) Bone shortening
B) Medicinal leech therapy
C) Postoperative warming
D) Systemic heparin
E) Vein grafts
The correct response is Option E.
In patients who sustain digital amputation as a result of an avulsion mechanism, there is often an extensive zone of injury that precludes primary vascular anastomosis. Vein grafts permit vascular anastomosis outside of the zone of injury.
Bone shortening can sometimes allow excision of the injured vasculature and primary anastomosis. However, in this case, bone shortening is unlikely to make up for a 2-cm vascular gap.
Longer vascular gaps can be addressed with vein grafts. Despite the fact that vein grafts involve an additional anastomosis per vessel compared to primary anastomosis, they have been found to exhibit similar rates of thrombosis and replantation survival.
Medicinal leech therapy can help address venous congestion, but is typically considered when venous congestion occurs after attempt at surgical replantation, or if no suitable veins can be found for anastomosis.
While postoperative warming and systemic heparin are often used adjunctively in patients undergoing replantation, they have not been demonstrated to increase the likelihood of survival of the replanted part, and would most likely not have as significant an effect as restoring perfusion to the amputated part using vein grafts.
A 12-year-old, left-hand–dominant boy presents for examination of a scald burn of the right hand sustained 1 year ago. Examination shows a boutonniere deformity of the ring finger with very thin skin overlying the dorsum of the joint. Surgical correction of the joint deformity is planned. Coverage with which of the following flaps is most appropriate for this patient?
A) Atasoy
B) Homodigital island
C) Moberg
D) Reverse cross finger
E) Thenar
The correct response is Option D.
The reverse cross finger flap is the only flap from among the choices that would reach the dorsal proximal interphalangeal joint. This flap transfers pedicled subdermal plexus to the defect, leaving a thin skin flap at the donor site. The recipient site must be skin grafted for completion of coverage. The preferred donor areas are the dorsal aspect of the middle and proximal phalanges of the adjacent fingers. This is usually an obliquely oriented flap located at the dorsum of the middle phalanx about 1 cm longer and about 4 to 5 mm wider than the defect. A thin full-thickness skin flap with intact subdermal vascular plexus is elevated based on the opposite side of the uninjured finger. The flap is based on the side of the uninjured finger closest to the defect. It is elevated at the level of the extensor paratenon, preserving dorsal veins and blood supply. The originally elevated, thin, full-thickness skin flap is then sutured back to cover the donor defect, and the thin subcutaneous flap on the injured finger is covered with a thin full-thickness skin graft.
The homodigital island flap is used to reconstruct pulp defects. The cross finger flap is used to reconstruct volar soft tissue defects including the pulp. The Atasoy V-Y advancement flap is used for finger pulp defects.
The Moberg flap is traditionally used to cover volar amputation defects of the thumb that are normally 1.5 cm in size but no more than 2 cm. This often leads to flexor contractures. The Moberg flap cannot be used to cover the dorsal surface of the ring finger.
A thenar flap would not be able to reach the dorsum of a ring finger PIP joint.
A 32-year-old man sustains an avulsion injury involving the volar soft tissue of the left thumb. Physical examination shows exposure of the flexor pollicis longus tendon. The first dorsal metacarpal artery flap is to be used for closure of the defect.
Which of the following best describes the location of the first dorsal metacarpal artery during flap harvest?
(A) Adjacent to the common digital artery to the thumb
(B) At the deep palmar arch
(C) Over the periosteum of the first metacarpal
(D) Within the fascia of the first dorsal interosseous muscle
(E) Within the subcutaneous tissue over the first dorsal interosseous muscle
The correct response is Option D.
The first dorsal metacarpal artery courses within the fascia of the first dorsal interosseous muscle; in rare cases, it may lie within the muscle itself. It communicates with the perforators from the superficial palmar arch at the level of the metacarpophalangeal joint.
The first dorsal metacarpal artery flap is axially patterned and based on a terminal branch of the radial artery after it exits the region known as the anatomic snuff box. This region is bordered volarly by the abductor pollicis longus (APL) and extensor pollicis brevis (EPB) tendons (first dorsal compartment) and dorsally by the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon (third dorsal compartment). The skin paddle of this flap is obtained from the dorsal aspect of the index finger over the proximal phalanx, and the venae comitantes and superficial veins provide venous drainage.
A 48-year-old right-hand–dominant man who is a carpenter is evaluated because of progressive intermittent discomfort in his dominant hand. Symptoms include hand cramping during work activities, sensitivity to cold, tingling of the ulnar fingers, and difficulty holding heavy objects. He does not smoke cigarettes. Physical examination shows decreased sensation, pallor, and decreased capillary refill time in the ring and little fingers. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Hypothenar hammer syndrome
B) Raynaud disease
C) Thoracic outlet syndrome
D) Thromboangiitis obliterans
E) Ulnar tunnel syndrome
The correct response is Option A.
The patient’s presentation is classic for hypothenar hammer syndrome, or trauma-induced thrombosis of the ulnar artery. This condition is significantly more common in men than in women (9:1), peaks in incidence between 40 and 60 years of age, and is often associated with vocational (e.g., carpenter, machinist, mechanic) or recreational activities (e.g., golf, baseball catchers) that subject the ulnar base of the palm to repeated vibration or blunt trauma. Unlike thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease) or Raynaud disease, the presenting signs and symptoms are almost always unilateral and localized to the ulnar side of the hand and can include pain over the hypothenar eminence, cold sensitivity, paresthesias in the ring and little fingers, blanching and slow capillary refill in the ring and little fingers, and possible positive Allen test. Occasionally, there may be an aneurysm (pulsatile mass) in the ulnar tunnel. Nonoperative treatment, such as activity modification, is effective in many cases, but persistent symptoms or the presence of an aneurysm may warrant resection of the involved area with vein grafting.
Buerger disease is an acquired vasculitis that occurs almost exclusively in smokers. It is typically bilateral, not localized to the ulnar side of the hand, more common in males (3:1) between the ages of 30 and 45 years, and progresses from intermittent claudication to severe ischemia with ulceration and necrosis of the affected fingers. Raynaud disease is an idiopathic vasospastic disorder that is more common in females under the age of 40 years. This typically affects all fingers and is often bilateral. Symptoms include acute episodes of blanching and lack of blood flow (white fingers), followed by cyanosis (blue finger discoloration), and eventual rapid reperfusion and hyperemia (fingers turn bright red). Ulnar tunnel syndrome refers to compression of the ulnar nerve in the ulnar tunnel, often by a ganglion cyst. While ulnar nerve compression can be a component of hypothenar hammer syndrome, this diagnosis does not include an ischemic presentation as portrayed in the case. Thoracic outlet syndrome is neurovascular compression of the subclavian vessels and brachial plexus. This condition can present with upper extremity cold intolerance and sensory symptoms localized to the ulnar nerve, but the symptoms are usually more diffuse, and vascular compromise is rare and not specific to the ulnar hand.
A 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department after sustaining a crush injury to the index finger of his right dominant hand, resulting in amputation through the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint. X-ray study shows a comminuted fracture of the proximal phalanx. Which of the following is the most significant CONTRAINDICATION to replantation in this patient?
A) Children have a difficult time adapting to functional deficits
B) The index finger is expendable
C) The mechanism and multiple-level nature of the injury preclude a functional result
D) Microvascular anastomosis is unlikely to be successful in a child of this age
E) Replantation will adversely affect epiphyseal growth
The correct response is Option C.
In the patient described, the most significant contraindication to replantation is the mechanism (crush injury) and multiple-level nature of the injury. It is highly unlikely that replantation will be successful with a crush mechanism due to the zone of injury. In addition, the multiple-level injury including the proximal phalanx and distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint precludes a functional result.
Replantation in children does not adversely affect epiphyseal growth. Children adapt quite well to functional deficits of the hand. Microvascular surgery in children, while challenging, has been shown to have a very high success rate when performed by skilled microsurgeons. The index finger can be considered expendable; however, children tend to have more favorable results than adults when it comes to replantation and, therefore, whenever feasible, replantation should be attempted, even if it is an isolated index finger injury. The mechanism of injury plays a greater role than the type of digit in determining the feasibility of replantation in the pediatric population.
A 65-year-old man who plays golf three times weekly has severe Dupuytren contracture of the small finger of the dominant right hand. The dense cord extends along the ulnar aspect of the hand and digit. The contracture of the metacarpophalangeal joint is 60 degrees, and the contracture of the proximal interphalangeal joint is 95 degrees. Which of the following is the most likely origin of the ulnar cord?
(A) Abductor digiti minimi
(B) Abductor pollicis brevis
(C) Antebrachial fascia
(D) Cleland ligament
(E) Volar carpal ligament
The correct response is Option A.
In the small finger, the ulnar cord typically originates from the musculotendinous junction of the abductor digiti minimi. From this location, the pretendinous band, spiral band, lateral digital sheath, and Grayson ligament can become involved, which can result in significant contractures at the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints.
The other structures listed are not typically involved in Dupuytren contracture. The abductor pollicis brevis is the most radial thenar muscle and does not affect the ulnar cord. The antebrachial fascia is the superficial forearm fascia and is not related to Dupuytren contracture. The contractile cords involve Grayson ligaments and not Cleland ligaments. The Cleland ligament is dorsal to the neurovascular bundle. The volar carpal ligament covers the Guyon canal.
A 21-year-old man with a crush injury to the right forearm is evaluated because of severe pain at rest and with passive range of motion 24 hours after he was released by the emergency department. The patient reports no paresthesias. Which of the following assessments is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Compartment pressures
B) CT scan
C) MRI
D) Ultrasonography
E) Urinalysis
The correct response is Option A.
The patient described sustained a crush injury, and subsequently experienced increased pain in the affected extremity. He ultimately experienced pain upon passive motion as well. This scenario should elevate suspicion for compartment syndrome. Other signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome include paresthesias, which this patient did not have, as well as poikilothermia, and pulselessness, which is a late finding. Compartment syndrome can be the result of high-impact trauma or low-impact injury, and it should be identified as early as possible to prevent permanent disability. Therefore, the next best step in the care of this patient is measurement of compartment pressures to determine if fasciotomy is necessary to release the build-up of pressure in the forearm. Radiological imaging will waste time and possibly worsen the patient’s prognosis. Urinalysis should be performed as part of the patient’s overall workup in order to assess the potential for acute tubular necrosis, but it is not the definitive next step.
A 55-year-old man is evaluated 10 days after sustaining a traumatic amputation of the tip of the right index finger. A photograph of the debridement is shown. X-ray study shows no fractures. After debridement of loose eschar, no bone or tendon was exposed. The wound is approximately 1 cm2. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment of the resulting defect?
A ) Coverage with bilateral V-Y flaps
B ) Coverage with volar advancement flap
C ) Dressing changes
D ) Periarterial sympathectomy
E ) Split-thickness skin grafting
The correct response is Option C.
Although composite grafts will often survive in children and may be attempted in adults, aggressive defatting of the amputated segment and removal of bone fragments may still fail.
The photograph demonstrates an eschar resulting from necrosis following reattachment of an amputated fingertip pulp. In the absence of underlying exposed ?white? structures such as joints, or tendon denuded of tenosynovium, optimal healing and function will occur via secondary intention. In this case, removal of any sloughing eschar will facilitate local wound care during healing.
Skin grafting is useful for covering larger defects; however, sensation over the graft will be less satisfactory than over a fingertip wound that heals by secondary intention.
A variety of local flaps have been used for fingertip tissue loss, including bilateral V-Y (Kutler) and volar advancement (Atasoy/Tranquilli-Leali) flaps. V-Y flaps place a scar directly in the midline of the pulp and are limited in the degree to which they may be advanced. The longer volar advancement flaps may be useful in covering bone or supporting the nail bed in the setting of a palmar oblique amputation through the distal phalanx; however, these flaps carry an increased risk of flexion contracture at the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint.
Pulp necrosis can occur in the setting of digital ischemia due to Raynaud disease or thrombotic ulnar artery occlusion (hypothenar hammer syndrome). Periarterial sympathectomy can prevent tissue loss in some cases of vascular spasm or insufficiency. In this patient with an otherwise visibly well-perfused hand and discrete history of trauma, digital ischemia would be an unlikely cause of the necrosis.
A 50-year-old auto mechanic comes to the office for consultation because he has had cold intolerance and numbness of the ring and small fingers of the dominant right hand for the past nine months. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the past 25 years. He is otherwise healthy and currently takes no medications. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no visible signs of skin breakdown or infection. Angiography shows evidence of an occluded ulnar artery at the level of the wrist and palm. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient’s condition?
(A) Smoking cessation
(B) Biofeedback therapy
(C) Calcium channel blocker therapy
(D) Ligation of the ulnar artery
(E) Resection of thrombosed segment and grafting
The correct response is Option E.
The clinical and angiographic findings are most consistent with hypothenar hammer syndrome, which is thrombosis of the ulnar artery and proximal superficial arch. This syndrome is the most common type of post-traumatic upper extremity arterial occlusion and results from repetitive injury to the hypothenar region of the hand. Symptoms of pain, cold sensitivity, and numbness are common after thrombosis of the artery within Guyon’s canal. The syndrome occurs most commonly in male laborers who usually use the palm of the hand as a hammer, resulting in injury to the ulnar artery as it is crushed between the roof of Guyon’s canal and the hook of the hamate and pisiform. Patients with this condition are often smokers.
Treatment consists of resection of the thrombosed segment followed by vein grafting. Previous treatments include ligation of the artery alone. Smoking cessation, calcium channel blocker therapy, and biofeedback have all been used to treat vasospastic conditions of the hand and would not be effective in this situation.
A 48-year-old man presents with pain 4 days after he underwent elective surgery of the right hand. The procedure included injection of 1% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine into the palm. Physical examination shows cold, pale digits, with prolonged capillary refill. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A) Inpatient admission and hourly wound checks for signs of necrosis
B) Local phentolamine infiltration
C) Topical nitroglycerin with warm water immersion
D) Topical terbutaline infiltration
E) No further management is necessary
The correct response is Option B.
Case reports have been documented of ischemia and subsequent tissue necrosis following elective hand surgery using lidocaine with epinephrine. The vasoconstrictive effect of epinephrine is a result of its stimulation of alpha-adrenergic receptors. Phentolamine, an alpha-adrenergic antagonist, has been used effectively to reverse the vasoconstrictive effect of epinephrine. When used in the hand, phentolamine rescue is carried out by injecting 1 to 2 mg of phentolamine in 1 to 5 mL of saline into the area where epinephrine was used. The reversal of vasoconstriction should result within 1 hour. Digital ischemia following accidental EpiPen injection into the hand has also been reported. The use of topical terbutaline infiltration has been attempted in such cases. In one case series, terbutaline infiltration was found to be effective in reversing vasoconstriction in some, but not all cases. The conclusion reached in the study was that terbutaline should be considered as an alternative when phentolamine is not available. The use of topical nitroglycerin and warm water immersion has not been proven to be an effective method to reverse the alpha-adrenergic effect of epinephrine. If prolonged ischemia is a concern following the use of lidocaine with epinephrine, further management, such as phentolamine rescue, should be considered given that complications such as distal digital amputation have occurred.
A 25-year-old police officer is brought to the emergency department 30 minutes after he sustained amputation injuries to the dominant right hand. Physical examination shows guillotine-type amputation of the thumb at the level of the metacarpophalangeal (MP) joint and index finger at the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint. The amputated parts were wrapped in moist gauze and placed in a plastic bag immediately after the injury. Transfer of the patient to a replantation facility will not be possible for at least 18 to 24 hours because a hurricane in the region has disabled all ground and air emergency transport. The emergency department physician has experience suturing minor lacerations of the hand but has no microscopic surgical experience. He contacts the replantation facility by telephone for consultation with a plastic surgeon. Which of the following is the most appropriate instruction regarding management of the patient €™s condition until transport to a replantation facility is possible?
(A) Debride and close the wounds
(B) Dermabrade the epidermis of the amputated parts and insert them under the skin of the abdomen through two separate incisions
(C) Reattach the amputated parts with sutures as a composite graft and apply splints to the involved digits
(D) Replant the amputated parts with step-by-step guidance of the plastic surgeon via telephone
(E) Wrap the amputated parts in saline-soaked gauze and place them in a plastic bag on a bed of ice
The correct response is Option E.
The time interval between amputation and replantation can change a replantable situation to an unreplantable one. There are no strict guidelines for ischemia times. There have been case reports of a successful hand replantation performed after 54 hours of cold ischemia and a successful digit replantation after 42 hours of warm ischemia. Acceptable ischemia time is dependent on the amount of muscle in the amputated part: the more muscle, the shorter the acceptable ischemia time. General guidelines are that if warm ischemia time is greater than 6 hours for amputations proximal to the carpus or 12 hours for the digits, replantation is usually not recommended. Cold ischemia can double these acceptable time limitations. The patient discussed is a young police officer with an amputation of the thumb and index finger. The thumb is the only opposable digit and, as such, is critical for hand function. Thumb amputation is a strong indication for replantation. The dangerous weather in the scenario described precludes quick transfer; however, the cold ischemia time would be approximately 24 hours in a digit with no muscle. This time frame is within the limits for a successful outcome. Therefore, the most appropriate management in the scenario described is to wrap the amputated parts in saline-soaked gauze and place them on ice.
Debriding and closing the wounds is not appropriate because this would treat the cold ischemia time as a contraindication for replantation and commit this patient to late reconstruction.
Reattaching the amputated parts with sutures as a composite graft and applying splints to the involved digits is not appropriate because of the size of the amputated digit. Small composite grafts can survive; however, this applies to young children with distal tip amputations. Furthermore, suturing the parts back on will create a condition of warm ischemia instead of cold ischemia. In situations of near-complete amputations, the attached digits can be placed in an ice saline slurry. Dermabrading the epidermis of the amputated parts and inserting them under the skin of the abdomen through two separate incisions will not work for similar reasons.
Replanting the amputated parts with step-by-step guidance of the plastic surgeon via telephone is inappropriate because of the poor outcome associated with an inexperienced operator.
A 65-year-old man undergoes fasciectomy for Dupuytren disease affecting the left ring finger. During dissection, the ulnar digital nerve is noted to be centrally displaced on the ring finger by a Dupuytren cord. Which of the following palmar fascia structures contributes to the formation of this cord?
A) Central band
B) Cleland ligament
C) Lateral digital sheet
D) Natatory ligament
E) Septa of Legueu and Juvara
Correct answer is option C.
Except for Cleland ligament, any of the above named structures can become involved in Dupuytren contracture. Once involved in a contracture, the name of the structure is changed to include ―cord‖ (e.g., natatory ligament becomes natatory cord).
A spiral cord is formed when Dupuytren disease affects the pretendinous band, spiral band, lateral digital sheet, and Grayson ligament. The normal palmar fascia structures pass around the neurovascular bundle in a spiral fashion. As the cord forms and contracts, it eventually becomes straight. The neurovascular bundle is then displaced centrally on the digit and is distorted to spiral around the cord.
A 5-year-old boy presents to the emergency department 4 hours after he sustained an amputation of his left index finger when it was slammed in a door. The parents brought the amputated digit in a plastic bag on ice. The amputation is at the level of the mid proximal phalanx. Which of the following is the most important reason to attempt replantation?
A) The amputation is proximal to the flexor digitorum superficialis insertion
B) The cold ischemia time is less than 6 hours
C) It is the index finger
D) It is a single-digit amputation
E) The patient is a child
The correct response is Option E.
Digital replantation should almost always be attempted in a child, except when the amputated part is severely crushed or there are other life-threatening injuries that preclude surgery. Replantation in children is technically more challenging due to the smaller size of the vessels. However, functional outcomes are more superior than in adults. The replanted parts have better sensory return and can have normal growth. Amputations through joints also exhibit remarkable joint remodeling.
A single digit amputation, especially proximal to the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) insertion is considered a contraindication to replantation. Digit replantations proximal to the FDS insertion have a poor range of motion as compared to amputations distal to the FDS insertion. This is, thus, an important landmark when making decisions about amputation versus replantation. Multiple digit amputations are an indication for replantation as the functioning deficit with loss of multiple digits is great. The thumb is responsible for 40% of the function of the hand and should always be replanted, if possible. Even if it is stiff and insensate, a replanted thumb will act as a post for opposition.
Index finger amputations at or proximal to the proximal interphalangeal joint are considered by many to be an indication for amputation. A stiff and painful index finger is likely to be excluded by the patient; amputation will result in better global hand function.
Digits tolerate longer ischemia times than more proximal level amputations, due to absence of muscle. Amputated digits tolerate warm ischemia times of 6 to 12 hours and cold ischemia times of 12 to 24 hours. Digital replantation has been reported with warm ischemia time of 33 hours and cold ischemia time of 94 hours. Cold ischemia time is thus not a major consideration in the decision-making process for amputation versus replantation.
A 33-year-old woman presents after volar oblique amputation of the distal pulp of the middle finger. Compared with a local flap, which of the following outcomes is most likely if the wound is allowed to heal by secondary intention?
A) Infection
B) Lack of sensation at the tip
C) Longer duration of time until complete healing
D) Nail deformity
E) Poor aesthetic appearance of the tip
The correct response is Option C.
These fingertip injuries, if allowed to heal by secondary intention, will often take 4 to 6 weeks to close and may make it difficult or impossible for the patient to return to work expeditiously. It also requires the cooperation of the patient to do dressing changes and keep the wound clean. The sensation of fingertips allowed to heal by secondary intention is usually better than that with flap coverage. With volar oblique amputations, the appearance with secondary healing is most often acceptable other than that the finger will be slightly shortened. Nail deformity can result from injury to the germinal or sterile matrices, which is not the case for this patient. A hook nail is caused by having the nail bed extend beyond the remaining tip of the distal phalanx and most likely will not be a problem with a volar oblique amputation. Infection is unlikely if appropriate wound care is provided.
A 45-year-old woman is evaluated for a dorsal oblique amputation of the tip of her index finger sustained when she was cutting vegetables with a sharp knife. X-ray studies and physical examination show tuft exposure. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A) Cross-finger flap
B) Groin flap
C) Moberg flap
D) Split-thickness skin grafting
E) Volar V-Y advancement flap
The correct response is Option E.
Although daily dressing changes are appropriate for fingertip injuries with one dimension measuring 1 cm or less, the exposed bone makes this less appropriate due to the increased risk of infection with prolonged bone exposure. A split-thickness skin graft would adequately cover the defect, but padding over the bone may not be sufficient and sensory recovery would not be as good as with a flap. Use of an Atasoy volar V-Y advancement flap is ideal in transverse and dorsal oblique fingertip amputations, particularly those with bone exposure where durability and padding might be a consideration. In addition, Atasoy flaps provide excellent sensation as the neurovascular supply is not interrupted. The Atasoy flap is contraindicated in volar oblique fingertip amputations, as advancement in these amputations would be inadequate. A groin flap would provide excellent durability and padding, but would be an extreme option where local flap reconstruction is available and preferred. The Moberg flap is for thumb tip injuries. The cross-finger flap is for volar defects.
A critically ill 85-year-old man requires arterial catheterization for serial arterial blood testing and continuous blood pressure monitoring. Which of the following is the most likely complication of brachial artery catheterization in this patient?
A) Increased risk of catheter thrombosis compared with radial artery catheterization
B) Increased risk of infection compared with femoral artery catheterization
C) Paresthesia to the radial three digits
D) Progressive clawing of the ring and little fingers
E) Transient loss of wrist and finger extension
The correct response is Option C.
Of the choices given, the most likely complication of brachial artery catheterization is paresthesia to the lateral three digits due to median nerve injury. The median nerve travels adjacent to the brachial artery along its length of the arm until the two separate deep to the bicipital aponeurosis and is thus subject to unintended injury in the course of attempted cannulation in the distal arm.
Progressive clawing of the ring and little fingers, and transient loss of wrist and finger extension, manifesting ulnar and high radial nerve injuries, respectively, have not been described as complications of brachial artery catheterization.
Common sites of arterial catheterization in adults include the radial, femoral, brachial, dorsalis pedis, and axillary arteries. Complications common to all sites include local and systemic infection, catheter thrombosis, bleeding, hematoma, and pain. One prospective cohort study involving almost 2500 patients found that femoral artery catheters were associated with increased incidence of both local infection and bloodstream infection when compared with radial arterial catheters. A significant relationship between other anatomical sites of arterial catheterization and increased incidence of infection has not been shown in other large studies.
There is a decreased risk of catheter thrombosis in larger caliber vessels like the brachial artery compared with smaller vessels such as the radial artery. Other risk factors for catheter thrombosis include duration of catheterization greater than 72 hours, larger gauge catheters, low blood flow states, peripheral artery disease, and vasospastic disorders.
A 36-year-old man presents to the clinic 1 year after repair of an isolated brachial artery laceration. Prior to arterial repair, the hand and forearm were dysvascular. Fasciotomies were not performed at the time of repair. The patient is unable to extend his fingers actively or passively with the wrist held in neutral position, but he is able to actively make a full fist. Sensation is intact. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate to improve finger extension and preserve grip strength in this patient?
A) Flexor pronator slide
B) Free functional gracilis transfer
C) Joint release and tenolysis
D) Splinting
The correct response is Option A.
Volkmann ischemic contracture is a devastating condition with serious motor and sensory functional implications for the upper extremity, most typically the forearm. It is the result of an acute compartment syndrome, following severe soft-tissue trauma and accompanying vascular insult. The patient in the scenario demonstrates a moderate contracture that is best treated with a flexor pronator slide.
When treatment of acute compartment syndrome is delayed or neglected, the muscles of the forearm undergo necrosis and contracture due to secondary fibrosis, causing the typical flexed deformity. This results in impairment of hand and finger function.
Surgical treatment is based on severity of contracture and function of the residual motor units. Mild contractures allow for full passive extension of the fingers with the wrist in volar flexion and can be treated with tendon lengthening and skin release, or selective flexor pronator slide, depending on the source of constrainment. Patients with moderate contractures demonstrate an inability to passively extend the fingers with the wrist in flexion but retain flexor muscle function. These contractures require consideration for a flexor pronator slide alone or in conjunction with tendon lengthening. Complete loss of muscle function necessitates consideration of free functional muscle transfer. Superficialis to profundus transfers are a consideration in the setting of significant contracture and functional limitation. It is typically used to facilitate improved hygiene and confers limited function. This would not be as good of an option for the patient in this question as it would compromise his strength and function. Neurolysis should be considered in conjunction with any reconstructive procedures. Splinting is an important adjunct to any reconstructive procedure and potentially can be employed as an initial treatment prior to surgical intervention to prevent worsening contracture.
A 60-year-old man is referred for evaluation of a flexion deformity of the left long finger. Physical examination shows a thickened cord from the mid palm to the volar proximal phalanx of the long finger. The metacarpophalangeal joint cannot be extended beyond 30 degrees. A photograph is shown. Which of the following cells is most directly responsible for the contraction of the cord shown?
A) Macrophage
B) Merkel cell
C) Myofibroblast
D) Stem cell
E) Striated myocyte
The correct response is Option C.
Myofibroblasts act on the collagen bundles deposited by fibroblasts to cause alignment into a cord and shortening of the cord. These cells also secrete extracellular matrix components that remodel in a shorter configuration, creating durability of the contracture. More mature cords are believed to be less cellular.
Macrophages are believed to act on the extracellular matrix but do not produce contracture. Striated myocytes are in skeletal muscle and are not involved in Dupuytren disease. Merkel cells are a sensory end-organ and are not involved in Dupuytren disease. Stem cells including adipocyte progenitors are known to exist in Dupuytren cords. They are hypothesized to develop into cells that affect the cord. There is no evidence that these cells act on Dupuytren cords while they are still stem cells.
An 18-year-old man comes for evaluation 4 days after he sustained an avulsion injury of the pad of the index finger of his dominant right hand. A photograph is shown. The part was never recovered, and the patient has been performing dressing changes. The defect is 2.5 cm2 and extends to the distal phalanx bone. Coverage with which of the following flaps is most likely to result in fingertip sensation closest to pre-injury?
A) Cross-finger flap
B) First dorsal metacarpal artery flap
C) Homodigital island flap
D) Reverse radial forearm flap
E) Thenar flap
The correct response is Option C.
The homodigital island flap raises skin and fat overlying one digital neurovascular bundle that can be advanced distally to cover a pulp defect. As long as both digital arteries are patent, the flap can be raised on either digital artery on any finger. Because the digital nerve is raised with the flap, the overlying skin retains its sensibility (figures 2b and 2c).
The first dorsal metacarpal artery flap raises skin and fat from the dorsum of the proximal phalanx of the index finger based on branches of the radial artery and superficial radial nerve. It is useful in providing sensate coverage of the thumb, but the pedicle is not long enough to allow the flap to reach the tip of a finger.
The thenar flap and cross-finger flap raise skin from the thenar eminence and dorsal middle phalanx of a finger, respectively. Innervation is not transferred in coverage with these flaps; sensation recovery must occur with growth of the tissue surrounding the original defect. Both of these flaps require two stages, making them less appealing options.
The reverse radial forearm flap is a large, robust flap that provides excellent coverage of the hand. Its pedicle allows it to reach the tip of a finger; however, when raised in a reverse pattern with retrograde vascular flow, the flap would not bring sensation with it. In addition, the flap is too large for the defect shown in the photograph.
Replantation is most likely to be contraindicated in which of the following patients who have sustained amputations of a single digit at the level of the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint?
A) A 25-year-old steelworker with an amputation through the index finger
B) A 5-year-old girl with an amputation through the index finger
C) A 30-year-old musician with an amputation through the long finger
D) A 35-year-old attorney with an amputation through the long finger
E) A 40-year-old construction worker with an amputation through the thumb
Correct answer is B.
Functional outcomes following replantation vary with the level of injury. Replantation of single digits amputated within the zone II level is relatively contraindicated due to postoperative stiffness. It is also contraindicated when rehabilitation will significantly delay the patient’s return to work and the procedure offers minimal or no functional benefit. Replantation of single digits, particularly index fingers, usually does not improve hand function.
Replantation should be considered on nearly all parts in healthy children. Replantation should be considered in most cases of thumb amputation.
A 34-year-old woman sustains a traumatic amputation of all digits. The digits have been preserved. Photographs are shown above. Which of the following is the most appropriate sequence for replantation?
(A) Digit by digit, initially long finger
(B) Digit by digit, initially thumb
(C) Structure by structure, initially artery
(D) Structure by structure, initially bone
(E) Structure by structure, initially flexor tendon
The correct response is Option D.
When contemplating replantation of multiple digits, it is important to choose a management plan that maximizes the potential for survival of each replanted digit. For instance, in patients with sharp amputations, there is a better prognosis for replantation than in patients with avulsion-type amputations or crush amputations. The level of injury also helps determine the usefulness of the digit. In a patient who has sustained amputations of all digits, the relative importance of replantation is guided by the contribution of each digit to overall hand function.
Because the thumb is generally believed to be the most important digit, its preservation is a priority. Although the index finger is generally important for fine motor pinch, the long finger can perform its functions in its absence. The two ulnarmost digits provide power grasping functions of the hand. In a five-digit replantation, the thumb is thought to be the most important digit, followed by either the long or ring finger, with replantation of the index finger being least important. Optimal repair has been shown to occur with a structure-by-structure approach, rather than a digit-by-digit approach. Most surgeons agree that bone and tendons should be repaired initially, followed by either vein or artery repair. The nerves should be repaired last.
The AMA Guides to the Evaluation of Permanent Impairment are used to assign an impairment percentage to each amputated digit. Impairment can be calculated based on the level of amputation and the involved digit; each digit is given a value relative to the whole hand. The thumb is given a value of 40%, the index and long fingers values of 20% each, and the ring and small fingers values of 10% each. In addition, amputation through each portion of a digit is assigned a relative value of loss to the entire digit. Amputation through the metacarpophalangeal joint of a digit is assigned a value of 100%, and amputation through the proximal interphalangeal joint has a value of 80%. Amputation through the interphalangeal joint of the thumb is given a value of 50%. Amputation through the distal interphalangeal joint has a value of 45%.
A 24 year-old man has defects over the dorsal aspect of the proximal phalanges of the index and long fingers after sustaining a grinder injury. The extensor tendon of the index finger is denuded of peritenon over a 1-cm-diameter area extending from the metacarpophalangeal joint to the proximal interphalangeal joint. A skin graft is planned to reconstruct the defect over the long finger. Which of the following flaps is most appropriate to reconstruct the defect over the index finger?
(A) Adipofascial turndown
(B) Cross-finger
(C) Dorsal thumb metacarpal transposition
(D) Reverse posterior interosseous artery
(E) Reverse radial forearm
The correct response is Option A.
Small, dorsal defects of the fingers can be reconstructed via a number of local flaps; as in many other parts of the body, adipofascial turnover flaps have been developed for the upper extremity, hand, and fingers. Advantages of these flaps include almost limitless donor sites, single stage reconstruction, and minimal donor site morbidity.
For coverage of dorsal digital defects, adipofascial turnover flaps are designed with the base of the flap proximal to the defect. The flap itself is designed to be 2 to 4 mm wider than the skin defect with a base €‘to €‘length ratio of 1:1.5 to 1:3. A longitudinal incision over the center of the flap allows dissection of the flap from the overlying skin. The adipofascial flap is then elevated from proximal to distal from the underlying paratenon. Elevation stops approximately 0.5 to 1 cm proximal to the defect to create the base of the flap; the flap is then turned over into the digital defect and covered with a split €‘thickness skin graft (see the figure below).
Given the damage to the adjacent long finger, a cross €‘finger flap would not be possible. A transposition flap from the dorsal thumb may suffice for first web resurfacing but will not adequately reach the dorsal index finger.
Both the posterior interosseous artery and radial-artery based flaps are capable of resurfacing sizable defects on the hand and fingers; however, the added morbidity of harvesting these flaps does not warrant their use when a more suitable local flap is available.
Image intentionally omitted
A 9-year-old girl is brought to the office two years after she sustained a crush injury to the nail bed of her left ring finger. Her mother says that the nail grows but then lifts off the finger and catches onto her clothes. The patient complains that the nail looks ugly. On examination, the germinal matrix is intact but 95% of the sterile matrix is scarred. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
A ) Coverage with lateral Kutler flaps
B ) Full-thickness nail bed grafting from the long finger
C ) Lateral paronychial-releasing incisions with central advancement flap
D ) Release of the sterile matrix scar and acellular dermal matrix grafting
E ) Split-thickness nail bed grafting from the great toe
The correct response is Option E.
Nail bed injuries are common occurrences. Knowledge of nail bed anatomy is essential for proper evaluation and treatment. The germinal matrix is the most proximal part of the nail bed and is hidden from view by the eponychium. The germinal matrix produces 90% of the nail plate and extends to the visible white arc of the nail known as the lunula. The sterile matrix is the distal portion of the nail bed and adds a thin layer of cells to the undersurface of the nail, which maintains nail adherence to the nail bed. In the patient described, the sterile matrix is scarred and the nail cannot adhere to the nail bed.
Reconstruction requires removal of the scarring to the sterile matrix followed by split-thickness nail bed grafting. Though harvesting of a split-thickness nail bed graft should not leave any deformity, one study found a 25% donor deformity.
In contrast to a sterile matrix defect, when using a nail bed graft for reconstruction of the germinal matrix, a full-thickness graft is needed. Also, when harvesting a full-thickness nail bed graft, donor morbidity will always occur. Therefore the donor site should be from the first or second toes or from spare parts in multidigit injuries.
Lateral Kutler flaps, which are used for soft-tissue loss of the fingertip, may be required in conjunction with nail bed reconstruction but not in this scenario.
A full-thickness graft is not an appropriate choice because it is not necessary, and an uninjured digit should not be used for a full-thickness graft donor site.
Lateral paronychial-releasing incisions with central advancement flap can be used for full-thickness germinal and sterile matrix losses up to around 4 mm, but this defect is too extensive.
Release of the sterile matrix scar and acellular regenerative dermal matrix grafting are more appropriate for a pincer nail deformity.
A 28-year-old woman who works as a manicurist comes for left thumb reconstruction 1 year after sustaining an amputation injury through the metacarpophalangeal joint. She desires improved pinch and grip with the best possible aesthetic appearance. Which of the following reconstruction techniques is most likely to offer her improved function with the least aesthetic donor site deformity?
A) First webspace Z-plasty
B) Great toe flap
C) Great toe wraparound flap
D) Osteocutaneous radial forearm flap
E) Second toe flap
The correct response is Option E.
While amputations distal through the proximal phalanx may benefit from isolated webspace deepening, it is unlikely that adequate length would remain at this level to provide good pinch or grip function even with a deeper web.
Prior to the advent of free-tissue transfer, osteoplastic reconstructions, including the reversed radial forearm flap with inclusion of a radius bone segment, were the workhorses of thumb reconstruction. The resulting thumb, however, is insensate and lacks any motion except at the level of the remaining CMC joint. Aesthetically, this reconstruction looks the least like a thumb when compared to toe transfers.
The great toe wrap-around flap provides a cosmetically acceptable way to resurface a thumb when the skeletal support is already present, either due to retention from the trauma or from an osteoplastic reconstruction. In this case, the skeletal support is absent, and the wrap-around flap by itself would not allow recreation of a stable thumb.
The great toe free flap provides an excellent reconstructive choice for a sensate, mobile thumb. Functionally, it will be nearly identical to the second toe transfer, and the two have both been used extensively for functional restoration. Aesthetically, the great toe tends to be larger than the contralateral thumb, leading to the development of the “trimmed” great toe transfer. In addition, the cosmetic impact on the foot is greater than that of harvesting the second toe, making this a less aesthetically acceptable reconstruction than the second toe.
The second toe transfer offers functionality equivalent to the great toe transfer and creates a thumb closer in size to the contralateral thumb. In addition, the harvest of the second toe avoids sacrifice of the aesthetic unit of the great toe on the foot, a consideration for this patient as she may still wear open-toed footwear.
A 15-year-old boy sustained a traumatic amputation of the left index finger at the proximal interphalangeal joint level from a sharp injury. Replantation of the digit is performed, with vein grafting of the radial digital artery and vein. The distal tip of the digit appears congested, so medicinal leeching is instituted. Which of the following antibiotics is the most appropriate prophylaxis for this patient?
A) Amoxicillin and clavulanic acid
B) Ampicillin
C) Cephalexin
D) Ciprofloxacin
E) Vancomycin
The correct response is Option D.
The antibiotic choice that constitutes the best prophylaxis for this patient undergoing leech therapy is ciprofloxacin. Hirudo medicinalis is the most common leech species used in medicine, and its gut flora includes Morganella, Rikenella, and Aeromonas isolates. These bacteria are all sensitive to ciprofloxacin. Doxycycline or ceftriaxone are alternative treatments for Aeromonas prophylaxis.
Animal toxicology data available with the first quinolone compounds revealed an association with inflammation and subsequent destruction of weight-bearing joints in canine puppies. This observation limited further development or large-scale evaluation of this class of antibiotic agents in children at that time. However, there continued to be increased use of fluoroquinolones for pediatric patients over the past 30 years with data on the lack of toxicity when used in children. In 2004, ciprofloxacin became the first fluoroquinolone agent approved for use in children 1 through 17 years of age.
Cephalexin (Keflex) is a first-generation cephalosporin that is used to treat respiratory tract, middle ear, skin, bone, and urinary tract infections. Most Aeromonas strains are resistant to penicillin, ampicillin, carbenicillin, and ticarcillin. And most Aeromonas and Morganella strains have complete or intermediate resistance to amoxicillin and clavulanic acid (Augmentin). Vancomycin is a macrolide antibiotic, and has limited effectiveness for Aeromonas strains with high levels of antibiotic resistance.
A 56-year-old man has a 30-degree flexion contracture of the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint of the right ring finger. He has had thickening in the palm at the base of the finger for the past five years. Which of the following structures are most likely involved in the PIP joint contracture?
(A) Central and spiral cords
(B) Lateral cord and knuckle pad
(C) Natatory and retrovascular cords
(D) Retrovascular and lateral cords
(E) Spiral cord and Cleland’s ligament
The correct response is Option A.
The central, lateral, and spiral cords each contribute to recurrent contracture of the PIP joint; the little finger is affected most frequently. The central cord develops from fascia between the neurovascular bundles and is continuous proximally with the pretendinous cord. It attaches distally to the tendon sheath over the middle phalanx. The lateral cord is adherent to the skin, while the spiral cord can occur as a continuation of the pretendinous cord or can arise at the musculotendinous junction of the intrinsic muscle. This cord straightens and courses less obliquely over time.
The natatory cord passes across the palm at the level of the web spaces and attaches to each individual flexor tendon sheath. Contracture of this cord can contribute to contracture of the PIP joint. Cleland’s ligaments are fascial structures located dorsal to the neurovascular bundle that help to hold the skin in position during flexion and extension of the finger. These structures are only an occasional cause of PIP joint contracture. The retrovascular cord most frequently causes contractures of the distal interphalangeal joint. This longitudinally oriented fascial cord lies dorsal to the neurovascular bundle and palmar to Cleland’s ligament.
Knuckle pads are a manifestation of joint contracture and not a cause themselves.
A 43-year-old woman comes to the emergency department after sustaining an amputation at the fingertip of the long finger of the dominant hand while attempting to unclog a snowblower. Physical examination shows pulp loss of 1 × 1.2 cm. Which of the following is the most appropriate method of reconstruction to maximize sensation and function?
A) Cross-finger flap from the ring finger
B) Full-thickness skin graft harvested from the hypothenar eminence
C) Full-thickness skin graft harvested from the medial elbow
D) Moist dressing changes until healing is complete
E) V-Y advancement flap
The correct response is Option D.
Injuries to the fingertip are among the most common injuries seen by the hand and plastic surgeons. These injuries can affect all components of the hand, including skin, bones, nerves, tendons, and vessels. In fingertip injuries without a bony amputation or with minimum exposed bone (less than 0.5 mm), a variety of reconstruction methods are possible. For preservation of sensation of the fingertip, the most appropriate method of reconstruction is healing by secondary intention with the use of moist dressings.
Skin grafts, either full- or split-thickness, have the poorest sensory recovery. Flaps, either local or regional, provide decreased sensation in the reconstruction.
A 12-year-old boy has necrosis of the tip of the right small finger eight days after undergoing surgical release of a 90-degree flexion contracture of the proximal interphalangeal joint. The deformity resulted from a crush injury he sustained 10 years ago. In this patient, which of the following is the most likely cause of postoperative necrosis?
(A) Intra-arterial injection of anesthetic agent
(B) Laceration of the bilateral digital arteries
(C) Stretching of the digital arteries
(D) Tight splinting of the finger
(E) Vasospasm
The correct response is Option C.
When the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint is flexed for an extended period, the neurovascular bundles shorten. During contracture release, extension of the PIP joint must be performed judiciously. It may be necessary to accept a less-than-perfect PIP joint correction in an effort to prevent stretching of the digital arteries, which can cause insufficient perfusion distal to the PIP joint. After joint release and splinting, regular follow-up is necessary to ensure adequate perfusion. If vascularity is a concern, the surgeon must remove the splint and flex the finger to relax the digital arteries.
Vasospasm typically resolves and does not result in postoperative necrosis. Bilateral digital artery laceration loss would result in complete digital loss. Intra-arterial injection of a local anesthetic agent would not result in postoperative necrosis. A retained digital tourniquet, not a tight splint, would cause postoperative necrosis.
A 28-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 30 minutes after he sustained avulsion injuries to the nondominant left hand when it became caught in a motor vehicle fanbelt. Physical examination shows amputation of the index finger at the level of the proximal interphalangeal joint as well as a 2 x 1-cm area of soft-tissue loss. Replantation of the amputated digit is performed, and the resulting 2 x 1-cm soft-tissue avulsion volar defect is covered with an arterialized venous flow-through flap with overlying skin interposed as a vein graft in the arterial repair. Which of the following is the most likely early complication of this flap procedure?
A) Arterial thrombosis
B) Congestion of the flap
C) Failure of the replantation
D) Hematoma from vessel leak
E) Loss of flap due to infection
Correct answer is B.
Venous flow-through flaps (VFTFs) are unusual but are gaining acceptance for certain kinds of hand and finger wounds. The ideal site for coverage with a VFTF is a long and narrow defect needing thin soft tissue. VFTFs typically become congested in the first week and then decongest over the following two weeks as they revascularize from the wound bed. VFTFs cannot reliably transfer composite tissue such as bone and tendon or cover a wide defect such as an entire palm. Because VFTFs do not bring in vascularization to the wound bed as well as classic flaps, they are not indicated in radiated or potentially infected wound beds. A small defect such as the 2-cm defect needing coverage during the replantation of the finger in the scenario described is the ideal candidate for this flap. When compared with simple vein grafts, VFTFs are not associated with increased rates of arterial thrombosis, failure of replantation, or hematoma. Although VFTFs are more susceptible to infection than typical flaps, congestion of the flap with superior epidermolysis is a much more likely complication.
An otherwise healthy, nonsmoking 30-year-old mechanic has the long, ring, and little fingers amputated sharply through Zone II of the right hand. The amputated digits are stored appropriately, and he is rushed to surgery within 2 hours of the accident. Which of the following sequences is the best method of replantation?
A) Digit by digit: bone, tendons, arteries, nerves, veins
B) Digit by digit: bone, tendons, arteries, veins, nerves
C) Structure by structure: bone, nerves, tendons, arteries, veins
D) Structure by structure: bone, tendons, arteries, nerves, veins
E) Structure by structure: tendons, bones, veins, arteries, nerves
The correct response is Option D.
The most efficient sequence to perform the replantation is structure by structure: bone, tendons, arteries, nerves, and then veins. It has been shown that the time to complete the procedure is significantly shorter if the same anatomic structure on each severed digit is fixed before repairing the next structures, as opposed to completing all aspects of the replantation one digit at a time. With respect to the sequence of repair of the severed structures, the general thought is to have a stable construct prior to starting the delicate microscopic repairs. However, the technical sequence used by microsurgeons varies greatly.
The only consistent agreement is starting with bony shortening and fixation. The traditional sequence that follows is extensor and flexor tendon repair, and then vessel/nerve repair. However, individual surgeon preference and patient circumstances dictate the usual sequence thereafter. Some surgeons like to start dorsally and complete the extensor tendon, venous, and skin repair first, and then complete the volar structures next. On the volar side, some surgeons repair the tendon first, followed by the artery and nerve, while others fix the artery and nerve first, followed by the tendon. There are those who believe that the nerve is better repaired in a bloodless field, so that should be done first. Others feel that repairing the vein first reduces blood loss and keeps a bloodless field more reliably for better vision. In patients who present with long ischemia time, it may be beneficial to anastomose the artery first, because this provides the advantages of earlier revascularization and allows easier detection of the most functional veins by their spurting backflow. In short, any of these sequences is fine, as long as it follows the bony fixation.
The other options are incorrect sequences for the above reasons.
A 54-year-old man presents to the emergency department with increasing right forearm pain and a rapidly enlarging pulsatile mass 4 days after suture repair of a proximal right volar forearm laceration. At the time of injury, significant blood loss in the field and pulsatile bleeding in the emergency department was noted. The hand is perfused, and sensation is grossly intact to pinprick. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Incision and drainage of the laceration at bedside
B) Inpatient admission for observation
C) Magnetic resonance angiography
D) Needle manometry
E) Operative exploration
The correct response is Option E.
The history and presentation are concerning for a ruptured pseudoaneurysm. Although the patient’s hand is perfused, the rapid onset of pain and swelling is concerning for active bleeding. Appropriate management would consist of operative exploration and repair of the injured vessel. Imaging studies can confirm the diagnosis in the setting of a post-traumatic pulsatile mass, but they would not be appropriate in the emergent setting described. Observation would result in ongoing hemorrhage, which could be life-threatening or result in a compartment syndrome. Bedside incision and drainage could result in bleeding in an uncontrolled environment. Needle manometry is employed to provide adjunctive data in the assessment of potential compartment syndrome, but it would not be appropriate in the setting of potential uncontrolled hemorrhage.
A 51-year-old woman is scheduled to undergo needle aponeurotomy for Dupuytren disease of the small finger. A photograph is shown. The addition of lipografting after needle aponeurotomy is most likely to decrease the rate and severity of recurrence in this patient by which of the following mechanisms?
A) Decreasing the proximity of residual cord tissue to the skin
B) Increasing the density of myofibroblast cell-to-cell contact
C) Increasing the density of the residual cord tissue
D) Inhibiting myofibroblast proliferation
E) Providing stem cells to promote collagen production
The correct response is Option D.
Fat grafting (also called lipofilling) has shown promise as a means to improve outcomes after percutaneous needle aponeurotomy for Dupuytren disease. It is believed to work by several mechanisms:
Reducing the density of cell-to-cell myofibroblast contact
Inhibiting myofibroblast proliferation via adipose-derived stem cells
Acting as an interposed tissue graft
Providing passing over the cords to replace native subdermal fat displaced by the nodules and cords
A randomized prospective trial by Kan and colleagues showed that aponeurotomy with lipofilling showed equivalent results at one year out from treatment with a much faster recovery compared with limited fasciectomy.
A 57-year-old man has a 15-degree flexion contracture of the metacarpophalangeal joint of the ring finger. Examination of the hand shows palmar nodules and a thick palmar cord. The patient does not wish to undergo surgery.
Which of the following is the LEAST appropriate nonoperative management?
(A) Application of dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO)
(B) Injection of collagenase
(C) Injection of corticosteroids
(D) Continuous skeletal traction
(E) Static flexion splinting
The correct response is Option E.
In this patient who has a Dupuytren’s contracture primarily involving the metacarpophalangeal (MP) joint of the ring finger, the least appropriate management is static flexion splinting, which would only worsen the flexion contracture. Static extension splinting should be used instead following surgical treatment of flexion contractures.
Collagenase injections have been used successfully in the treatment of Dupuytren’s contracture. According to several studies, excellent results have been achieved in 90% of MP joint contractures and 60% of proximal interphalangeal joint contractures nine months after initiation of treatment.
Continuous skeletal traction has been shown to provide only a temporary resolution of flexion contractures. This technique, which results in continuous elongation, should be followed by limited fasciectomy.
Administration of triamcinolone and/or other corticosteroids has been shown to improve palmar nodules.
Other modalities, such as administration of dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO), vitamin E, or medications used in the treatment of gout, as well as physical therapy and ultrasonography, have no demonstrated effect in patients with Dupuytren’s contractures.
An otherwise healthy 5-year-old boy is evaluated because of cyanosis and swelling of the thumb 1 day after he underwent revascularization of the right thumb after a partial amputation injury. Preoperatively, the dorsal skin was intact, and venous anastomosis was not indicated. Which of the following prophylactic antibiotics is most appropriate to administer before initiating leech therapy?
A) Ampicillin
B) Cefazolin
C) Ceftriaxone
D) Ciprofloxacin
E) Doxycycline
The correct response is Option C.
The most appropriate prophylactic antibiotic to initiate in this patient is ceftriaxone. Leech therapy is associated with Aeromonas species infections with incidences quoted in the literature from 2.4 to 36.2%. The most common clinical presentation of Aeromonas infection in humans is of cellulitis, often with a foul odor, complicated by subcutaneous abscess formation. In severe cases, extensive tissue loss and septicemia have been reported. Of most concern to microsurgeons is the ability of Aeromonas to invade the walls of blood vessels with resultant vasculitis, thrombosis, and hemorrhagic necrosis.
Aeromonas species produce beta-lactamase, so penicillins and first-generation cephalosporins, like cefazolin, are ineffective. High levels of resistance to tetracyclines and amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin) have also been observed. These organisms are usually sensitive to second- and third-generation cephalosporins, aminoglycosides, chloramphenicol, fluoroquinolones, and trimethoprim.
The use of fluoroquinolones in children has been limited because of the potential of these agents to induce arthropathy in juvenile animals and to potentiate development of bacterial resistance. Fluoroquinolone use should be restricted to situations in which there is no safe and effective alternative to treat an infection caused by multidrug-resistant bacteria or to provide oral therapy when parenteral therapy is not feasible and no other effective oral agent is available.
Doxycycline is contraindicated in children younger than age 8 years, as it may cause permanent discoloration and altered development of teeth.
A 54-year-old carpenter has the sudden onset of numbness, tingling, and a cold sensation in the ring and little fingers of his dominant left hand. On examination, he has an area of tenderness in the palm; a photograph is shown above. Two-point discrimination is 12 mm in the ring and little fingers. Temperature in the small finger is 26.7 %C (80%F).
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
(A) Radiograph of the carpal tunnel
(B) CT scan of the hand
(C) EMG and nerve conduction velocity studies
(D) Impedance plethysmography with cold temperature challenge
(E) Angiography of the upper extremity
The correct response is E
In this patient who has findings consistent with hypothenar hammer syndrome, or thrombosis of the ulnar artery in Guyon’s canal, the most appropriate next step in diagnosis is angiography of the upper extremity. Hypothenar hammer syndrome is characterized by pain in the region of the hook of the hamate bone as well as paresthesias and a decrease in digital temperature in the ring and little fingers. Because this condition is caused by repetitive trauma, it is often seen in carpenters who use the hypothenar eminence as a hammer-type device during their work.
The diagnosis of hypothenar hammer syndrome can be confirmed with Doppler ultrasonography or angiography of the upper extremity. If findings on either test are positive, management should include surgical exploration of the ulnar artery and resection of the thrombosed segment. The inflammation characteristically seen around the thrombus in patients with hypothenar hammer syndrome has been theorized to result in sympathetic hyperstimulation and irritation of the ulnar nerve; as a result, some surgeons have advocated the use of thrombolytic therapy. Although reconstruction of the ulnar artery with a vein graft is controversial, most surgeons agree that grafting can be used to prevent cold intolerance in certain patients. If the distal ulnar artery pressure is less than 0.7 times the proximal ulnar artery pressure, vein grafting can be beneficial.
Radiographs of the carpal tunnel can be performed to diagnose a fracture of the hook of the hamate bone, which is instability in patients with Raynaud’s phenomenon.
A 30-year-old man with a history of radius and ulna midshaft fractures underwent fasciotomies for acute compartment syndrome of the nondominant left volar forearm with immediate return of normal perfusion 4 months ago. He is now pain-free with normal sensation but has persistent stiffness and weakness of the fingers, despite appropriate splinting and physiotherapy. His compartments are soft, and there are no joint contractures. He has full motion and normal strength, except the fingers and thumb can fully extend only with the wrist flexed, and finger and thumb flexion have MRC grade 4/5 strength. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Dynamic splinting
B) Flexor tendon transfers
C) Intrinsic releases
D) Selective muscle origin slide
E) Strengthening physiotherapy
The correct response is Option D.
The patient is presenting with evidence of Volkmann ischemic contracture of his deep volar forearm compartment musculature, specifically flexor digitorum profundus and flexor pollicis longus. Flexor digitorum superficialis could be minimally involved, but the wrist flexors are spared. Mild median nerve involvement with full recovery and sparing of the ulnar nerve would support this diagnosis. The patient has already undergone appropriate physiotherapy. With persistent findings at 4 months, the most appropriate treatment is surgical exploration, debridement of necrotic muscle, with either selective muscle origin slide or tendon lengthening of preserved but contracted muscle.
Although continued dynamic physiotherapy could potentially provide further improvement in this patient’s muscle tightness, strengthening physiotherapy will not address the problem adequately. Dynamic splinting could complement physiotherapy and be helpful but has likely provided most of its benefit in the 4 months after initial surgery. Intrinsic releases would be indicated in intrinsic muscle contractures; however, this patient has involvement of the extrinsic flexors, not the intrinsic muscles. Finally, flexor tendon transfers would be indicated for more severe cases of Volkmann contractures, where there is no muscle function remaining. This patient’s examination suggests adequate muscle function remains.
A 42-year-old man comes to the emergency department after sustaining an injury to the right hand when he caught his thumb in a table saw. Physical examination and x-ray studies show a 1.5-cm defect of the distal and volar aspect of the thumb with exposed bone. Which of the following flap and blood supply classifications is most appropriate for coverage of this defect?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
F)
The correct response is Option C.
The most appropriate coverage option for this 1.5-cm defect of the thumb is a Moberg flap. The Moberg flap has an axial pattern blood supply. It is indicated for defects as great as 1.5 cm on the volar surface of the thumb. It provides sensate soft-tissue coverage of thumb tip wounds.
The VY advancement flap will not cover defects as large as 1.5 cm; and the cross-finger flap, although it will cover defects as large as 1.5 cm, is inferior to the Moberg flap for defects of this type. It also does not carry innervated tissue, making the Moberg flap the most appropriate flap option for this defect.
A 55-year-old, right-hand–dominant man who is a machinist comes to the office because of inability to fully extend the right ring finger. Photographs are shown. The patient reports that his symptom began 5 years ago and has worsened progressively. Examination shows a 45-degree flexion contracture of the right ring finger (PIP) joint during attempts at full extension. All other joints demonstrate full extension, and the patient can create a complete fist during flexion. Regarding treatment options for this patient, which of the following interventions is most likely to provide the longest relief of his symptom prior to recurrence?
A) Collagenase injection and manipulation
B) Limited fasciectomy
C) Percutaneous aponeurotomy with lipografting
D) Percutaneous needle fasciotomy
E) Radiation therapy and splinting
The correct response is Option B.
Radiotherapy has been proposed as a potential treatment to slow or stop progression of Dupuytren contractures (palmar fibromatosis). A prospective study of radiotherapy revealed no greater efficacy than observation as an intervention for slowing the disease process. There is no evidence to suggest radiotherapy for correction of an established contracture.
Rijssen and colleagues established quantitative criteria for recurrence, using an increase of total passive flexion contracture of 30 or greater, compared to the 6-week follow-up values in previously treated joints. After 5 years, their recurrence rate following percutaneous needle fasciotomy was 85%; 21% for limited fasciectomy; and 32% of joints successfully treated with Clostridial collagenase. Percutaneous aponeurotomy with lipografting is an experimental technique which has shown some promise with correction of contractures and prevention of recurrence, but the evidence is level 4, with no controlled studies looking at this technique, in comparison to other established techniques.
Although limited fasciectomy provides the greatest degree of initial correction for Dupuytren contractures, as well as the longest period prior to recurrence, the costs associated with the procedure are by far the highest. When comparing the QALY costs of three interventions (limited fasciectomy, percutaneous needle fasciotomy, and collagenase injection), limited fasciectomy yielded the highest cost per QALY. The authors emphasize that this does not indicate limited fasciectomy is an inappropriate intervention—only that it is relatively the most expensive.
A 29-year-old man presents with nail pitting, leukonychia, and crumbling of the nail plate. A photograph is shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A) Arsenic toxicity
B) Human immunodeficiency virus
C) Lichen planus
D) Psoriatic arthritis
E) Subungual melanoma
The correct response is Option D.
Psoriatic arthritis often presents with auto-fusion of the small hand joints and diffuse fusiform swelling of the digits. This psoriatic dactylitis or “sausage digit” is caused by inflammation of periosteum, tendon, and tendon insertions. Nail deformities include pitting, leukonychia, nail crumbling, and onycholysis (separation of nail plate from bed). Nail deformities affect approximately 80% of patients with psoriatic arthritis, and 50% of patients with psoriasis.
Nail lichen planus (NLP) is characterized by thinning, longitudinal ridging, and distal splitting of the nail plate. NLP is usually resistant to topical corticosteroid therapy, but successful treatment has been reported with intralesional or systemic administration of corticosteroids.
Characteristic skin lesions of arsenic poisoning include hyperkeratosis and Mees’ lines. Mees’ lines are prominent transverse white lines in fingernails or toe-nails due to arsenic deposition in keratin-rich tissues.
Subungual melanoma has distinct cutaneous nail manifestations such as brown or black streaks in the nail without any known injury, streaks on the nails that increase in size, or a “bruise” on the nail that will not heal or move up as the fingernail grows. One of the key indications of subungual melanoma is known as “Hutchinson’s sign.” This is when a person has a streak that extends from the tip of the nail down to the nail bed and into the eponychium.
Nail disorders in HIV-infected patients include clubbing, splitting of the nails, or discoloration (black or brown lines going either vertically or horizontally).
A 47-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department 30 minutes after sustaining an amputation injury to the dominant right hand. The amputated part was wrapped in a wet towel immediately after the injury and has been kept on ice since that time. Physical examination shows a guillotine-type amputation of the hand at the distal aspect of the palm with minimal injury proximal and distal to the amputation. A photograph is shown. Which of the following structures is expected to have the poorest recovery following successful replantation?
(A) Extensor digitorum communis
(B) First dorsal interosseous
(C) Flexor digitorum profundus
(D) Flexor digitorum superficialis
(E) Flexor pollicis brevis
The correct response is Option B.
The first dorsal interosseous is in the zone of injury. When amputations occur through the distal aspect of the palm, the intrinsic muscles are usually injured and intrinsic function is poor despite successful replantation. Finger abduction and adduction, metacarpophalangeal joint flexion, and proximal and distal interphalangeal joint extension and key pinch are limited as a result. Debridement of injured muscle is recommended to prevent contracture and intrinsic tightness. In this setting, movement is generated by extrinsic muscle groups without the fine-tuning of motion usually provided by the intrinsic muscles.
With sharp lacerations at the level of the distal palm, the flexor digitorum profundus and superficialis and extensor digitorum communis tendons typically function well with good repair technique, appropriate rehabilitation, and occasional secondary surgery. The flexor pollicis brevis is proximal to the zone of injury.
The mechanism of injury is an important determinant in the outcome of the repair. Sharp injuries have the most discrete area of damage and therefore tend to have greater recovery of function. Blunt and avulsion €‘type mechanisms, which have greater zones of injury, require more extensive reconstruction and are associated with less complete restoration of function, including motion and sensibility. In addition to functional considerations, replantation of the amputated hand serves the patient by restoring the appearance of the hand.
Which of the following is the arterial supply of the flap for digital tip reconstruction shown?
A) Distally based from the contralateral digital artery
B) Dorsal perforating vessels
C) Perineural perforating vessels
D) Proximally based from the ipsilateral digital artery
The correct response is Option A.
A reverse homodigital island flap is shown. It is a distally based flap that is useful in the repair of fingertip injuries. Arterial inflow is based upon the contralateral digital artery in the crossing ladder vessels of the palmar digital arch that lie just dorsal to the volar plate at each joint. The flap requires sacrifice of the ipsilateral digital artery and care must be taken to preserve the digital nerve during elevation of the skin paddle. Typically, the donor site is grafted.
A 35-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department four hours after sustaining an amputation of the right thumb when it was caught in a machine at a meatpacking plant. The amputated part (shown) was wrapped in moist saline gauze and placed on ice within 20 minutes of the injury. Which of the following factors is most likely to limit the success of replantation of the thumb?
A ) Inadequate bone stock
B ) Initial treatment of digit
C ) Mechanism of injury
D ) Possibility of infection
E ) Warm ischemia time
The correct response is Option C.
The extensor tendons and flexor tendons in the scenario described have been avulsed from the musculotendinous junction. In addition, the nerve ends extend proximally beyond the level of the soft-tissue injury; both of these findings are indicative of an avulsion-type injury. Such injury mechanisms often result in significant intimal injury within digital arteries, limiting the success of replantation. The amputated part was appropriately managed, and warm ischemia time was minimized. Digits have been successfully replanted with greater than 24 hours of cold ischemia time. Amputations at the metacarpophalangeal or interphalangeal level of the thumb may result in joint fusion; however, in this scenario, bone stock is adequate for skeletal fixation. Infection is a potential problem following any traumatic hand injury, but adequate surgical debridement and appropriate antibiotic coverage make replantation loss from infection a rare occurrence.
A 35-year-old woman presents with a fixed adduction contracture of the first web space that has not improved with splinting and hand therapy for 4 months. Medical history includes a crush injury with complex laceration to the first web and dorsal hand and index finger five months ago. A photograph is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate plan for reconstruction of the first web space contracture in this patient?
A) First dorsal metacarpal artery flap
B) Flexor carpi ulnaris flap
C) Posterior interosseous artery flap
D) Thenar flap
E) Split-thickness skin grafting
The correct response is Option C.
Contracture of the first web space may be secondary to cutaneous scarring, skin deficiency, fibrosis of the fascia and thenar muscles, or joint contractures. Mild contractures may be isolated to the skin; however, deeper structures are most likely involved as the contracture becomes more severe. It is important to understand the mechanism of injury, length of time the contracture has been present, and any prior treatments.
Reconstruction of the first web space involves complete contracture release and resurfacing with adequate vascularized tissue. The dissection should be carried out palmarly and dorsally with release of the palmar fascia and adductor aponeurosis as needed. Intrinsic muscle and joint contractures should be addressed at this time, and a trapeziectomy may be needed to restore carpometacarpal (CMC) motion.
This patient has a severe contracture that likely involves multiple structures given her history of deep lacerations and bony injury. This requires resurfacing with thin, pliable vascularized tissue. In this setting, the posterior interosseous artery (PIA) flap is the best choice. This flap is outside the zone of injury and provides an adequate amount of vascularized tissue for resurfacing of the web space. The PIA runs between the extensor carpi ulnaris and extensor digit quinti and forms an anastomosis with the anterior interosseous artery 2cm proximal to the distal radioulnar joint.
Skin grafting alone, either split-thickness or full-thickness, should be avoided because of the inherent tendency for secondary contracture. Skin grafts may be combined with local flaps such as a 4-flap or 5-flap z-plasty in mild to moderate contractures.
Tissue flaps from the dorsum of the hand such as the first dorsal metacarpal artery fasciocutaneous flap or dorsal hand transposition flap may be good options in some patients with small- to moderate-sized skin deficits. However, this patient sustained trauma to the dorsal hand with dorsal skin lacerations. This makes a random-pattern transposition flap unreliable. The defect in question is also too large to be completely resurfaced with a first dorsal metacarpal artery (FDMA) flap. The flexor carpi ulnaris flap is useful for elbow coverage as a turn-over flap but will not reach the hand.
A 32-year-old, right-hand–dominant man is brought to the emergency department 3 hours after sustaining an avulsion injury to the left thumb. The avulsed digit was immediately placed on ice and transported with the patient. Photographs are shown. Replantation fails; the necrotic digit is removed and the wound closed. The carpometacarpal (CMC) joint is disarticulated. Which of the following is the most appropriate method of reconstruction in this patient?
A) Great toe to thumb transfer
B) Metacarpal lengthening
C) Osteoplastic reconstruction
D) Pollicization of index finger
E) Web deepening
The correct response is Option D.
This patient has a proximal thumb avulsion with disruption of the carpometacarpal (CMC) joint. In this scenario, the best reconstructive option (besides successful replantation) is pollicization of the index finger. Reconstruction after thumb amputation, as with congenital deficiencies, depends largely on the length of the remaining skeletal structure. One can lose most of the distal phalanx and still retain good overall thumb function. Amputations that involve the proximal phalanx or the metacarpal suffer from deficient bone length and procedures that add length, like distraction, toe to thumb, or osteoplastic reconstruction. When the entire metacarpal is absent, the aforementioned procedures will not be effective. Pollicization will restore thumb length and provide very good function.
A 36-year-old man comes for evaluation because he is dissatisfied with the appearance of his nail (shown) after burning his hand. After removal of the nail, it is clear that more than one third of the nail bed is involved. Which of the following procedures is most likely to improve the appearance of the nail?
A ) Debridement of the nail bed and full-thickness skin grafting
B ) Dermabrasion of the nail bed and placement of a silicone rubber stent
C ) Excision of the scar tissue, reconstruction with an eponychial flap, and nail bed graft from a toe
D ) Reconstruction with a cross-finger flap to the distal pad and bone graft to the distal phalanx
E ) Resection of the scar, elevation of the nail bed for advancement, and primary repair of the nail bed
The correct response is Option C.
Nail bed deformities are common after injury to the fingertip. The photograph shows that the patient has a synechia of the nail bed at the lateral aspect of the eponychial fold. In the scenario described, the problem is twofold. First, the eponychial fold is contracted and adherent to the underlying nail bed. Second, the nail bed itself is likely scarred. Therefore, dermabrasion and
stent will not affect the status of the nail bed and will not improve the deformity. Reconstruction with a cross-finger flap and bone graft is good for a hook nail deformity but is not appropriate for scarred nail bed. Excision of the scar and attempt at advancement and primary closure is likely to fail in the scenario described as it is limited to defect of 1 mm or less. Given these constraints, resection of the scar and replacement with a graft from an adjacent finger or from one of the toes along with a flap procedure on the eponychial fold is most likely to correct the deformity. Full-thickness skin grafting will not affect this patient €™s goal of improved appearance.
A 62-year-old man comes to the office 1 week after he sustained an avulsion injury to the soft tissue of the dorsal aspect of the left thumb while firing his crossbow. Moist dressing changes have not resulted in granulation tissue over the tendon. A photograph is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive treatment of the defect?
A) Alginate dressing changes
B) Cross-finger flap transfer
C) First dorsal metacarpal artery flap transfer
D) Full-thickness skin grafting
E) Split-thickness skin grafting
The correct response is Option C.
In this patient with exposed tendon denuded of tenosynovium (as evidenced by the photo and failure to granulate) flap coverage with the first dorsal metacarpal artery flap, or “kite” flap, will provide closure of the wound with similar skin to what has been lost with minimal morbidity. Apart from reaching the thumb dorsal surface, this flap has been successfully used to resurface palmar wounds of the thumb. Photographs of the flap are shown.
Alginate dressings would keep the wound moist but would not add to the conservative management of dressing changes the patient has already tried.
Skin-graft take relies on adequate granulation tissue in the recipient site to survive. Here neither split- nor full-thickness grafts would be likely to take. Furthermore, grafts directly to tenosynovium can limit tendon excursion after healing.
Cross-finger flaps are useful for resurfacing the palmar defects of adjacent digits. Reversed/turnover cross-finger flaps, or cross-finger fascial flaps, can resurface adjacent digits. Wound closure then requires skin grafting of the fascial flap at the recipient site.
A 45-year-old woman with systemic sclerosis (scleroderma) has severe Raynaud phenomenon. A photograph is shown. Periarterial injection of botulinum toxin type A is being considered for treatment in this patient. This treatment is believed to relieve vasospasm in Raynaud phenomenon by which of the following mechanisms?
A) Blocking fast sodium channels in axonal gap junctions
B) Increasing the activity of chronically down-regulated group C nerve fiber nociceptors
C) Inhibiting Rho/Rho kinase activity
D) Obstructing myofibroblast contractile activity in vascular smooth muscle
E) Promoting substance P secretion/receptor sensitivity
The correct response is Option C.
Several mechanisms have been proposed to explain the effect of botulinum toxin type A (Botox) to inhibit Raynaud phenomenon in patients with scleroderma. Studies have demonstrated inhibition of Rho/Rho kinase activity, inhibition of substance P secretion and receptor sensitivity, and decreasing the activity of chronically up-regulated C-fiber nociceptors all to occur in models of Raynaud phenomenon that responded to Botox treatment. Fast sodium channels conduct axonal signals AT in gap junctions, but have not been shown to be affected by Botox. Myofibroblasts may be involved in late fibrosis of scleroderma patients but do not exist within the vascular smooth muscle.
A 30-year-old man is scheduled to undergo transhumeral amputation after unsalvageable brachial artery occlusion. A photograph is shown. Use of targeted muscle reinnervation may allow improved functional recovery by which of the following means?
A) Better bulk and durability by preventing denervation atrophy of muscles at the amputation stump
B) Better prosthesis control by input from median and ulnar nerve signals
C) Better sensory detection in the prosthesis by positioning amputated nerve stumps closer to the skin closure
D) More precise control of an osseointegrated body-powered prosthesis
E) Preservation of greater bony length in the amputation stump
The correct response is Option B.
A body-powered prosthesis uses motion of remaining joints, such as the gleno-humeral and scapulo-thoracic joints, to control an upper extremity prosthesis.
Targeted muscle reinnervation (TMR) would not affect function of a body-powered prosthesis. TMR positions amputated nerve stumps well within the remaining muscle and far from the cutaneous closure. Current prosthetics are not yet able to detect sensation and transmit this to the patient. Having nerve stumps near the amputation closure site increases the risk for neuroma pain.
TMR has not been shown to decrease denervation atrophy of residual upper extremity muscles. TMR has gained increasing acceptance in the treatment of patients who have undergone or will undergo upper extremity amputation. Resected nerves, such as the median and ulnar nerves, can be coapted to nerve branches to remaining muscles, such as the pectoralis and deltoid. Transcutaneous EMG detectors are positioned over these reinnervation sites to detect nerve signal, which a myoelectric prosthesis can then use to better control distal joints.
TMR does not affect the amount of bony length that can be preserved in an amputation.
A 5-year-old boy presents with deformity of the tip of the left long finger as shown in the photographs. The tip of the finger was amputated one year ago, and the wound was repaired at a local emergency department. Which of the following is the most appropriate method of correcting this deformity?
A) Coverage with a hypothenar flap
B) Distraction lengthening of the distal phalanx
C) Free toe transfer
D) Nail bed grafting
E) Release and augmentation of hyponychium
The correct response is Option E.
This is a classic hook nail deformity and is caused by deficient bone support of the distal nail bed, soft-tissue contracture/deficiency of the tip of the finger, or both. The most appropriate way to correct the deformity is release and shortening of the portion of the nail bed that has no underlying bone support, and augmentation or advancement of the distal soft tissue envelope. There are many correction methods described, including some that add both soft tissue and bone support of the overhanging distal nail bed. Regardless of method chosen, the primary goal of correction is to release the tethered nail bed, ensure that it is supported by bone, and provide sufficient soft tissue coverage to negate tension on the distal nail bed. Nail bed grafting alone will not correct this deformity as this does not provide additional bone support for the nail bed. A hypothenar flap is too remote to supply tissue for this problem. Lengthening the distal phalanx using bone grafting or vascularized bone has been described, but the use of distraction osteogenesis is impractical. Because most of the finger remains in place, a free toe transfer is not indicated.
Composite grafting could conceptually address this issue and has been described, but the survival of the graft is not predictable and harvest of the graft leaves a deformity at the donor digit.
A 65-year-old man comes to the office because he has had worsening pain and stiffness in the right ring finger (shown) for the past five years. Which of the following additional findings will have the greatest impact on the decision to manage this patient’s condition surgically?
(A) Loss of flexion of the metacarpophalangeal joint
(B) Loss of flexion of the proximal interphalangeal joint
(C) Loss of extension of the metacarpophalangeal joint
(D) Loss of extension of the proximal interphalangeal joint
(E) Palmar nodule
The correct response is Option D.
This patient has a Dupuytren’s contracture of the hand. Dupuytren’s disease is a benign fibroproliferative disorder of the palmar fascia that may result in disabling finger contractures. This condition has been associated with epilepsy, alcoholism, chronic pulmonary disease, diabetes, and northern European ancestry. There is no cause-and-effect relationship between the existence of one of the comorbidities listed above and the development of Dupuytren’s disease.
Because the risk of complications with this disease is significant, there are narrow indications that must be met to justify surgery for this condition. The surgery involves direct excision of the involved fascia. This can be performed through zig-zag (Brunner), midlateral, Y-to-V incisions, and longitudinal with zig-zag rearrangement incisions. The complications of Dupuytren’s fasciectomy include recurrence, hematoma, skin loss, infection, nerve and arterial division, loss of flexion, reflex sympathetic dystrophy, and digital loss. Threshold indications concerning contractures are 30 degrees at the metacarpophalangeal (MP) joint and any at the interphalangeal (IP) joints, specifically the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint. Some studies have shown that when surgery was performed for patients with less than 30-degree MP joint contracture, surgery outcome was worse for some patients after fasciectomy. PIP joint contracture is not improved with joint release. Additionally, with or without PIP joint release, long-term improved motion is approximately 37% of the short-term improved motion.
The general indications for Dupuytren’s fasciectomy include loss of 30 degrees of MP joint extension, any loss of proximal phalangeal joint extension, and neurovascular compromise. Spiral cords can wrap around the neurovascular bundles and cause neurovascular compromise. Solitary asymptomatic palmar nodules are observed. Tender nodules can be injected with corticosteroids or collagenase. Pain in the hand is not an indication for Dupuytren’s surgery. The most commonly involved finger is the ring finger. The anatomic structures that are involved with Dupuytren’s include pretendinous bands, spiral bands, lateral digital sheet, Grayson’s ligament lateral digital sheet, and natatory ligament. The superficial transverse ligament, deep transverse ligaments, Cleland’s ligament, and Landsmeer’s ligament usually are not involved.
A 46-year-old automobile mechanic comes to the office because of a 3-week history of localized pain in the fingers of the dominant right hand. He does not smoke cigarettes. He says the pain occurs intermittently and that he has no symptoms anywhere else in the body. Examination shows scattered, punctate, dark petechiae at the tips of the ring and little fingers. Rubor progressing from the distal interphalangeal joints to the tips of the ring and little fingers is noted. An additional bounding pulse is palpable in the proximal ulnar palm. Radial and ulnar pulses at the wrist are normal. Digital Allen tests show decreased flow at the ring and little fingers and the ulnar aspect of the long finger. Plain x-ray studies show no abnormalities. A photograph is shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Buerger disease
B) Congenital vasospastic disease
C) Distal embolization from the heart
D) Hypothenar hammer syndrome
E) Raynaud disease
The correct response is Option D.
This is a classic presentation for the patient who develops an ulnar artery aneurysm at Guyon canal. The aneurysm typically is the source of small emboli that tend to affect vessels at the ulnar aspect of the hand and fingers. The emboli cause decreased flow, cold sensitivity, ischemic pain and rubor in the small and ring fingers most commonly. This problem occurs most often in men in their 40s, who suffer repetitive blunt trauma to the hand. Some use their hand as a hammer at work. Other forms of blunt trauma have been linked to this problem, including certain sports and weight lifting. The treatment options include oral medications for vasodilation, cessation of the offending physical activity, smoking cessation if present, sympathectomy, thrombolytics, and either exclusion of the aneurysm and ulnar artery ligation in the palm, or aneurysm excision and vascular reconstruction.
Raynaud disease is not the best answer because this presentation with embolic disease localized to the ulnar fingers and the palpable pulse/mass (aneurysm) in the hand are not consistent with Raynaud disease. Patients with Raynaud disease typically present complaining of cold sensitivity, periods of finger blanching, followed by diffuse return of flow to the fingers and pain. Raynaud disease is a diffuse sympathetic problem, not a local aneurysmal problem.
Congenital vasospastic disease is not the best answer because the patient in this vignette has no symptoms prior to 3 weeks ago. A congenital vasospastic problem would have presented before, and would be unlikely to be so localized.
Distal embolization from the heart is wrong for similar reasons: emboli from the heart would be very unlikely to present unilaterally, in two fingers, adjacent to one another. There would very likely be other symptoms and sites of embolization.
Buerger disease is not the best answer for a few reasons. The patient in this vignette is a nonsmoker. Thromboangiitis obliterans (TAO), or Buerger disease, is an inflammatory arteritis seen in smokers. It improves or stops progressing with smoking cessation. Buerger disease does not typically present with such isolated symptoms, and can involve the lower extremities as well.
A 47-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department 30 minutes after sustaining an amputation injury to the dominant right hand. The amputated part was wrapped in a wet towel immediately after the injury and has been kept on ice since that time. Physical examination shows a guillotine-type amputation of the hand at the distal aspect of the palm with minimal injury proximal and distal to the amputation. A photograph is shown. Which of the following structures is expected to have the poorest recovery following successful replantation?
A) Extensor digitorum communis
B) First dorsal interosseous
C) Flexor digitorum profundus
D) Flexor digitorum superficialis
E) Flexor pollicis brevis
Correct answer is B.
The first dorsal interosseous is in the zone of injury. When amputations occur through the distal aspect of the palm, the intrinsic muscles are usually injured and intrinsic function is poor despite successful replantation. Finger abduction and adduction, metacarpophalangeal joint flexion, and proximal and distal interphalangeal joint extension and key pinch are limited as a result. Debridement of injured muscle is recommended to prevent contracture and intrinsic tightness. In this setting, movement is generated by extrinsic muscle groups without the fine-tuning of motion usually provided by the intrinsic muscles.
With sharp lacerations at the level of the distal palm, the flexor digitorum profundus and superficialis and extensor digitorum communis tendons typically function well with good repair technique, appropriate rehabilitation, and occasional secondary surgery. The flexor pollicis brevis is proximal to the zone of injury.
The mechanism of injury is an important determinant in the outcome of the repair. Sharp injuries have the most discrete area of damage and therefore tend to have greater recovery of function. Blunt and avulsion-type mechanisms, which have greater zones of injury, require more extensive reconstruction and are associated with less complete restoration of function, including motion and sensibility. In addition to functional considerations, replantation of the amputated hand serves the patient by restoring the appearance of the hand.
An otherwise healthy 50-year-old right-hand-dominant rodeo cowboy is brought to the emergency department immediately after he sustained a roping injury to the nondominant thumb. On examination, the digit is completely separated from the remaining hand, and is cool and pale. The flexor pollicis longus (FPL) tendon is attached to the amputated part, which has been avulsed from its musculotendinous junction. A photograph is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate operative management?
A) Completion amputation and wound closure
B) Immediate toe-to-thumb transfer
C) Nonvascularized bone grafting and a reverse radial forearm flap
D) Tendon repair into the FPL muscle belly
E) Replantation with vein grafting
The correct response is Option E.
The most appropriate option for this patient is to perform a replantation with the use of vein grafts to the snuffbox for arterial inflow. Roping injuries are a combination of both an amputation as well as an avulsion, resulting in a significant zone of injury to all structures, but especially to the vessels, which sometimes have up to 4 cm of involvement with bruising of the intima and adventitia and separation of the media from the vessel walls. This zone of injury can result in anastomotic failure and digital demise if not recognized both by the mechanism of injury as well as careful examination of the structures under the operating microscope during attempted repair. Primary anastomosis in these particular injuries is most often not possible; therefore, the use of vein grafts after resection of the involved segment is an optimal strategy. The use of an end-to-side anastomosis into the radial artery at the snuffbox has been described with good success, and would be the preferred choice in this situation.
A completion amputation of the thumb at this level (just distal to the metacarpophalangeal joint) would sacrifice needed thumb length and compromise ultimate function. As the thumb is reported to be responsible for up to 40% of hand function, this would represent a significant impact to the patient.
It is difficult to repair the FPL tendon once avulsed from the musculotendinous junction, and many authors advocate for FPL resection rather than attempted repair. As the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb is intact, it will afford good range of motion of the thumb in all directions, even if the thumb serves merely as a “post” without ability to flex at the interphalangeal joint.
Nonvascularized iliac crest bone grafting with a reverse radial forearm coverage is a surgical option but would not be the primary option in this acute amputation with an intact amputated part eligible for replantation, nor would it be preferred over staged toe-to-thumb transfer for better restoration of function and appearance.
A toe-to-thumb transfer would be a good option in this patient if the thumb could not be replanted due to extensive distal injury, distal contamination, or loss of the digit during injury. In this particular case, none of those criteria are met.
A 46-year-old woman sustains a ring avulsion injury to the long finger when the finger becomes caught in a machine. Emergent revascularization is performed; on examination 10 days later, the patient has the findings shown in the photographs above. Which of the following techniques is most likely to provide optimal function?
(A) Resection of all nonviable soft tissue and coverage with a full-thickness skin graft
(B) Resection of all nonviable soft tissue and coverage with a neurovascular island flap from the ring finger
(C) Resection of all nonviable soft tissue and reconstruction with a toe-to-hand transfer
(D) Revision amputation at the level of the mid proximal phalanx, with trimming of the bone to a level at which it can be covered primarily by viable skin
(E) Ray amputation of the long finger, leaving the base of the metacarpal in place
The correct response is Option E.
Ring avulsion injuries are typically associated with the highest failure rates following replantation, most likely because of the mechanism of injury, which involves destruction of the intimal layer of the supporting vasculature. In this patient, revascularization has failed, leaving a necrotic digit.
The most appropriate next step in management of this patient is ray amputation, which involves removal of the entire digit and most or all of the metacarpal. Completely removing the digit eliminates the segmental loss and greatly improves both function and aesthetic appearance, as shown in the photographs above.
Resection of nonviable soft tissue results in exposure of the phalanges and tendons. A full-thickness skin graft will not take over these exposed structures.
The Littler neurovascular island flap is based on the digital neurovascular bundle of either the long or ring finger. This flap provides sensate coverage of smaller digital defects, particularly the thumb, but would not cover the entire defect in this patient.
Replacing the long finger with a toe-to-hand transfer is impractical, as the transferred digit would be significantly shorter than the adjacent digits and would ultimately impair their function. This technique is appropriate for patients who have sustained amputations of the thumb or of multiple digits.
Simple revision amputation is the easiest method of skin closure but leaves a large gap between the long and small fingers, allowing an area through which small objects can fall, and thus limiting hand function.
A 57-year-old man is referred to the office by his primary care physician for management of contracture of the little finger (shown) that has been present for more than five years. Flexion of the digit has been increasing during the past year. Surgical management is planned via a transverse palmar approach with longitudinal incisions based over the contracted cord and later converted to the necessary V-Y advancement Z-plasties. Which of the following is the most likely long-term outcome in this patient?
(A) Anesthesia of the digit
(B) Carpal tunnel syndrome
(C) Complex regional pain syndrome type I
(D) Cord recurrence
(E) Vascular insufficiency
The correct response is Option D.
Complications of Dupuytren disease have been reported to be 17% overall. Nerve injuries can be a devastating complication after surgery for Dupuytren disease. The digital nerves are displaced medially by the spiral cord, making them more prone to injury. Fortunately, nerve transection is relatively rare, reported in only 1.5% of patients with Dupuytren disease. Complex regional pain syndrome (reflex sympathetic dystrophy) may occur after Dupuytren disease, but this is an uncommon complication (approximately 4% to 8%). It can be confused with flare reaction, which can intense vasodilation; however, there is no associated pain. Infection in patients with Dupuytren disease is not significantly greater than other similar surgeries. Arterial injuries occur in less than 1% of Dupuytren cases.
Recurrence after Dupuytren is significant; a recent study placed recurrence at 18% to 24%. Other studies, with 10 €‘year follow-up, have noted that no patients were free of disease. Patients should have realistic expectations on the possible complications and recurrence risks prior to surgery.
During coverage of a defect with a reverse cross-finger flap, which of the following is the most appropriate location for application of a full-thickness skin graft?
A ) Dorsal surface of the middle phalanx of the donor finger
B ) Dorsal surface of the middle phalanx of the recipient finger
C ) Volar surface of the distal phalanx of the donor finger
D ) Volar surface of the distal phalanx of the recipient finger
E ) Volar surface of the middle phalanx of the donor finger
The correct response is Option B.
Multiple local flaps are available for coverage of finger defects. A reverse cross-finger flap is used to cover soft-tissue defects on the dorsum of an adjacent digit. The skin on the donor finger is incised on the side closest to the recipient finger and elevated off of the underlying dorsal subcutaneous tissue. The dorsal subcutaneous tissue of the donor finger is raised as a flap based on the side closest to the recipient finger. The flap is sutured to the recipient finger and is used as a bed to receive a full-thickness skin graft. The native skin is then returned to the dorsum of the middle phalanx of the donor finger. If the volar surface of a finger requires coverage, a standard (not reverse) cross-finger flap is used.
The photograph shown on the left demonstrates the reverse cross-finger flap raised from the dorsum of the long finger and positioned over the index finger. After inset of the flap, the skin of
the donor finger is closed primarily. A skin graft is applied over the flap on the dorsum of the recipient finger as shown in the photograph on the right.
A 50-year-old man comes to the emergency department after sustaining an injury to the right thumb. A photograph is shown. The patient declines revision amputation and states that he does not want to lose thumb length or the nail. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Complete the amputation of the thumb proximal to the germinal matrix
B) Obliterate the germinal matrix and remaining nail bed, followed by skin grafting
C) Transplant germinal matrix from the great toe
D) Transplant sterile matrix from the great toe
E) Continue to observe
The correct response is Option D.
The patient described has lost the sterile matrix of the nail bed. The germinal matrix is intact, as the nail continues to grow. The nail bed consists of the germinal matrix proximally and the sterile matrix distally. The sterile matrix allows the nail to adhere to the bed. Observation, amputation, and obliteration of the nail bed do not seem to be good options for a patient who has stated that appearance is paramount. The issue here is that the nail continues to grow, but cannot adhere to the full-thickness skin graft. The best option would be to harvest a split-thickness sterile matrix graft from the big toe. No additional germinal matrix is necessary as the germinal matrix is intact and producing nail.
A 57-year-old man has a flexion contracture involving the ring and small fingers of the left hand. A photograph is shown on page 178. During partial fasciectomy in this patient, the neurovascular bundle to these fingers is at risk for injury. Each of the following structures is a normal component of the fascia surrounding the neurovascular bundle EXCEPT
(A) Cleland’s ligament
(B) Grayson’s ligament
(C) lateral digital sheet
(D) pretendinous band
(E) retrovascular band
The correct response is Option D.
Fascial structures that encase the neurovascular bundles include Cleland’s and Grayson’s ligaments, the lateral digital sheet, and the retrovascular band. Cleland’s ligament is a thick fascial structure that lies deep to the neurovascular bundle; it arises from the side of the phalanges and courses obliquely toward the skin. Grayson’s ligament is thinner and more sheet-like than Cleland’s ligament, and is positioned superficial to the neurovascular bundle; it arises from the tendon sheath and extends to the skin. The lateral digital sheet is comprised of superficial fascia on either side of the phalanges. It receives fibers from the natatory ligament and the spiral band, and is found lateral to the neurovascular bundle. The retrovascular band is a longitudinal structure situated dorsomedial to the neurovascular bundle.
The pretendinous cord is a pathologic component of Dupuytren disease. It is an extension of the pretendinous band in the midline of the phalanges. The pretendinous band is not a component of the fascia surrounding the neurovascular bundles.
A 14-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department 30 minutes after he sustained traumatic amputation of the index, long, and ring fingers of the dominant right hand (shown) when his hand was caught in an elevator door. Which of the following is the most appropriate method of replantation?
(A) Digit by digit; index finger, long finger, ring finger
(B) Digit by digit; long finger, ring finger, index finger
(C) Digit by digit; ring finger, long finger, index finger
(D) Part by part; bone, flexor tendons, extensor tendons, nerves, arteries, veins
(E) Part by part; flexor tendons, extensor tendons, bone, arteries, veins, nerves
The correct response is Option D.
The most appropriate method of replantation in this case is part by part; bone, flexor tendons, extensor tendons, nerves, arteries, veins. This patient has acute amputations and has presented promptly to the emergency department. In addition, all amputated parts have been approximately equally well preserved. In this scenario, the longer ischemia times tolerated by digital amputations allow for increased operative efficiencies by group repair of similar parts.
Because all three digits have been equally preserved, replantation should proceed by group repair of similar parts. Therefore, the digit-by-digit options are incorrect. If the digits were in different states of preservation, with one or more digits being more mutilated than the others, then replantation would proceed digit by digit. In that scenario, the digit in the best condition would be replanted first and might be orthotopically replanted based on the clinical circumstance. In this particular instance, if the index digit were the only well preserved digit, then consideration would be given to replanting that digit in the ring position because ulnar-sided hand function is more important than index function radially.
Skeletal stability must always be restored before any soft-tissue repairs. This is usually performed with crossed K-wires. Therefore, replantation part by part &Mac255; flexor tendons, extensor tendons, bone, arteries, veins, nerves is incorrect. The exact sequence of part-by-part repair thereafter is somewhat controversial; however, the heavier structures (flexor and extensor tendons) should be repaired first, followed by microsurgery. Arterial repair usually precedes venous repair, because the venous efflux assists with identification of the most desirable veins for anastomosis or grafting. The timing of the repairs often depends on tourniquet time but may be done either before the arterial repairs or after the venous repairs.
A 35-year-old man is transferred to the emergency department via helicopter 7 hours after he sustained a table saw injury to the left hand. The patient smokes one pack of cigarettes daily. Physical examination shows amputation of the thumb and partial amputation of the index finger. No other injuries are noted. An x-ray and a photograph study are shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A) Replantation of the thumb and index finger segment
B) Revision amputation of the index finger and replantation of the thumb
C) Revision amputation of the thumb and index finger
D) Revision amputation of the thumb and microvascular “on-top plasty” of the index finger
E) Revision amputation of the thumb and pollicization of the index finger
The correct response is Option B.
In patients with traumatic amputations of the thumb, optimal reconstruction is provided by replantation. Vein grafts from the princeps pollicis artery, in the anatomical snuff box, are often required because of the difficult positioning. Vein grafts can be harvested from the foot or the forearm. For injuries at the metacarpophalangeal joint level, no reconstruction method approximates that of the replanted thumb. All efforts should be utilized in order to salvage the amputated thumb. In contrast, for index finger amputations, any surgery which would not provide normal or near normal function often only serves to hamper hand function. A traumatic injury which involved the index finger metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint would require arthrodesis. A fused MCP joint would only get in the way and detract from function. Option (A) replantation of the thumb and index segment is not correct because of the decreased function which would be observed after a replantation of a poorly functioning index finger. Option (B) is the correct answer. Option (C) is incorrect and since it involved the amputation of both the thumb and index finger. Option (D) “on-top plasty” is a procedure which involves a non-vascularized bone graft covered with a local pedicle flap; this would not provide optimal function. Option (E), which is pollicization of the thumb to index finger, would be suboptimal. Pollicization would only be an option if the thumb were deemed unreplantable.
A 37-year-old man who works as a laborer sustains a saw injury to the non-dominant left hand. X-ray studies are shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate functional option for reconstruction of this thumb defect?
A) Metacarpal lengthening
B) Osteoplastic reconstruction
C) Pollicization
D) Prosthesis
E) Toe transfer
The correct answer is Option C.
The x-ray study shows a carpometacarpal-level amputation of the thumb. Toe transfer, osteoplastic reconstruction, and metacarpal lengthening require part or most of the thumb metacarpal to be present. A thumb prosthesis would have limited functionality and be insensate.
Pollicization would potentially allow a sensate, functional index finger to accomplish some of the functions of the thumb. It is, however, not without its drawbacks because it is technically demanding and has a high likelihood of requiring secondary procedures. For a carpometacarpal-level amputation, pollicization provides the best option for function.
The apical portion at which the distal nail loses its natural adherence and transitions to the white color indicated by the arrow in diagrammatic longitudinal section of the fingertip shown is called which of the following?
A) Eponychium
B) Hyponychium
C) Lunula
D) Perionychium
E) Sterile matrix
The correct response is Option B.
The hyponychium is the junction of the nail bed (sterile matrix) and fingertip skin beneath the distal free margin of the nail. It consists of a keratinous plug and contains large numbers of polymorphonuclear leukocytes and lymphocytes. It is the first barrier of defense, preventing microorganisms from invading the subungual region.
The perionychium extends along the lateral borders of the nail. The eponychium is the distal part of the nail fold where it attaches to the surface of the nail.
The lunula is the white arc just distal to the eponychium and marks the distal end of the germinal matrix of the nail bed. It is caused by nail cell nuclei in the germinal matrix as they stream distally and upwards, creating a difference in light reflection between this area and the more distal pink sterile matrix. The nail overlying the sterile matrix, on the other hand, is pink since the nuclei within the nail cells have disintegrated. The nail beyond the point of the lunula is thus clear and the blood vessels of the nail bed show through, giving that part of the nail a pink color.
A 22-year-old woman has the split nail deformity shown in the photograph above. On physical examination, the deformity involves the sterile and germinal matrices. The patient does not want to lose the nail. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
(A) Excision of the scar and primary closure of the nail bed
(B) Split nail grafting from the same nail bed
(C) Split nail grafting from the toe
(D) Full-thickness nail grafting from the finger
(E) Full-thickness nail grafting from the toe
The correct response is Option E.
In this patient who has a split nail deformity, the most appropriate management is full-thickness nail grafting from the toe. This deformity is caused by injury to the nail bed, leading to scarring of the bed. The nail plate does not grow in the scarred area, resulting in a split in the nail plate.
Because the deformity involves both the sterile and germinal matrices, only a full-thickness nail will provide the sterile and germinal matrix components required for reconstruction. Harvest of a full-thickness nail produces a significant cosmetic defect at the donor site; therefore, a graft from the second toe is thought to provide the least unsightly result.
In patients who have a small scar affecting the sterile matrix only, appropriate management may include excision of the scar and re-approximation of the sterile matrix; however, the sterile matrix is not usually mobilized and re-approximated unless the affected area is narrow. In addition, the germinal matrix cannot tolerate re-approximation.
As mentioned above, a split nail graft from either the same nail bed or another nail bed will not provide the components needed for reconstruction of this defect. In addition, using another finger as a donor will result in an unsightly donor defect in the hand.
A 63-year-old man has the deformity of the left small finger shown in the photographs above. It has worsened over the past two years, and he has limited passive and active extension of the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint of the finger. The most likely cause is contracture of which of the following cords?
(A) Central and lateral
(B) Central and pretendinous
(C) Natatory and lateral
(D) Natatory and pretendinous
(E) Natatory and spiral
The correct response is Option A.
In this 63-year-old man who has limited extension of the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint of the left small finger that has occurred as a result of a Dupuytren contracture, the central and lateral cords are the most likely cause. Diseased cords evolve from the normal fascial bands of the hand in patients with Dupuytren disease, leading to flexion deformities of the affected joints. Fascial structures of the hand that may contribute to Dupuytren contracture include Grayson’s and Cleland’s ligaments, the lateral digital sheath, the natatory ligament, the pretendinous and spiral bands, and the superficial transverse ligament.
The central, lateral, and spiral cords cause flexion contractures of the PIP joint. The central cord arises from the pretendinous band, and the lateral cord is formed from the central digital sheath. The spiral cord is composed of the pretendinous and spiral bands, lateral digital sheath, and Grayson’s ligament. Contraction of the spiral cord results in medial and superficial displacement of the neurovascular bundle.
In addition to the contracture of the PIP joint caused by the central and lateral cords, this patient’s hand posture results from contracture of the metacarpophalangeal joint caused by the action of the pretendinous cord. The pretendinous cord does not contribute to contractures of the PIP joint.
The natatory cord is formed from the natatory ligament as it passes transversely across the palm at the level of the web spaces. It causes adduction, not flexion, contractures of the digits.
Which of the following best describes the flap used for thumb reconstruction shown in the photograph above?
(A) Based on the dorsal metacarpal artery to the ring finger
(B) Based on the posterior interosseous artery
(C) Supplied by a terminal branch of the median nerve
(D) Supplied by a terminal branch of the radial nerve
(E) Supplied by a terminal branch of the ulnar nerve
The correct response is Option E.
The photograph illustrates Littler’s neurosensory island flap, which is based on the proper digital nerve to the ulnar aspect of the ring finger. This nerve is a terminal branch of the ulnar nerve. This flap is used to provide needed sensibility to the thumb and index finger pads. Its vascularity is supplied by the corresponding proper digital artery with venous return through multiple adventitial venae comitantes. The flap can be pedicled all the way to the superficial palmar arch by ligating the proper digital artery to the radial aspect of the small finger, creating a flap with adequate reach to resurface the volar aspect of the thumb. Adequate blood flow in the radial digital artery of the ring finger and ulnar digital artery of the small finger must be ensured prior to flap transfer. The common digital nerve to the fourth web space can be divided along the fascicles to allow for mobilization of the digital nerve to the level of the superficial arch.
This patient has third-degree burns of the thumb with destruction of the digital nerves resulting from an electrocution injury. In order to restore function and sensibility in the thumb, the neurosensory flap is elevated from the ulnar aspect of the ring finger, tunneled across the palm of the hand subcutaneously, and inset into the perimeter of the thumb wound to provide sensation to the thumb pad.
Flap vascularity is not supplied by the dorsal metacarpal artery or posterior interosseous artery. Nor do the radial and median nerves innervate the ulnar aspect of the ring finger, which would be transposed to provide sensation to the thumb pad.
A 27-year-old man with a cocaine addiction is brought to the emergency department one hour after sustaining amputation of the thumb of the nondominant left hand at the distal third of the proximal phalanx while using a circular saw. The amputated part was wrapped in a towel and placed on ice. Replantation is performed with an anastomosis of the ulnar digital artery to the radial artery at the anatomic snuffbox with a vein graft. Two weeks after the procedure, there is partial survival of the replanted thumb with exposure of the flexor pollicis longus. Use of which of the following flaps is most appropriate for reconstruction?
(A) First dorsal metacarpal artery
(B) Moberg
(C) Reverse posterior interosseous artery
(D) Reverse radial artery
(E) Thenar
The correct response is Option A.
A durable, sensate, well €‘vascularized reconstruction is required. The most appropriate flap for reconstruction of the defect in the scenario described is the first dorsal metacarpal artery. When paired with the first dorsal metacarpal nerve, this flap provides sensate coverage of large defects to the distal volar aspect of the thumb. Photographs are shown below.
The Moberg flap is a sensate advancement flap used to reconstruct volar thumb tip defects of up to 1 cm. This defect is too large. Use of this flap would endanger the blood flow for the replanted thumb, and it would have a high likelihood of partial flap loss.
The reverse posterior interosseous artery flap is a pedicled fasciocutaneous flap often used to reconstruct the dorsum of the hand or the first web space. A proximal extension would be required for the flap to reach the distal volar aspect of the thumb. Tip necrosis is a known complication of this nonsensate flap.
The reverse radial artery flap is often a fine choice for thumb reconstruction. In the scenario described, however, ligating the radial artery proximal to the harvested flap may compromise the vascular supply to the replanted thumb. The replanted thumb has already displayed signs of potential vascular compromise caused by the loss of the thumb tip after replantation.
The thenar flap is a random flap used to cover volar tip defects of the long and ring fingers. The defect in the patient described could not be covered with a thenar flap.
A 71-year-old woman with a long history of scleroderma has had a painful ulceration on the tip of the index finger for approximately the past year. Treatment regimens of calcium channel blockers, repeated stellate ganglion blocks, hyperbaric oxygen therapy, and wound care have been unsuccessful in resolving the lesion. Physical examination shows an area of ulceration on the index finger penetrating into the proximal interphalangeal joint (shown above). Arteriography with runoff shows digital small vessel disease. Which of the following interventions is the most appropriate management of this patient’s lesion?
(A) Conservative amputation
(B) Digital arterial bypass
(C) Distally based digital island flap
(D) Full-thickness skin grafting
(E) Ray amputation
The correct response is Option A.
In patients with established connective tissue disease and small vessel disease of the hand, the most appropriate management of painful ulcerations of the fingertip is conservative amputation. The degree of dermal bleeding at the site of amputation can be used to assess the likelihood of healing. Digital sympathectomy is also a possible management of this lesion.
Digital arterial bypass is unlikely to succeed in patients with small vessel occlusive disease.
Skin flaps should be loosely approximated without tension. Distally based digital flaps are highly unlikely to succeed in patients with small vessel disease. Full-thickness skin grafting is unlikely to succeed in this patient because the wound extends into the joint, the finger is ischemic, and the wound bed is unlikely to provide adequate vascularity for the skin graft.
Larger surgical procedures, such as ray amputation, are not indicated as a first choice in this patient, because of the increased incidence of complications and wound-related problems.
