Hand - Wrist ligament injuries and fractures Flashcards
A 24-year-old man comes to the office because of a scaphoid wrist nonunion with apex dorsal angulation and proximal pole avascular necrosis. A free tissue transfer from the lower extremity is planned. A branch of which of the following arteries supplies the most appropriate flap for this patient?
A) Dorsalis pedis
B) Genicular
C) Lateral femoral circumflex
D) Medial sural
E) Peroneal
The correct response is Option B.
The descending genicular artery is the arterial pedicle for the medial femoral condyle free vascularized osseous corticoperiosteal free flap, or free vascularized bone graft. Scaphoid nonunions with a humpback deformity, carpal collapse, and proximal pole osteonecrosis are difficult to treat. Vascularized bone grafts have been shown to have nearly 2× the union rate of traditional nonvascularized bone grafts. Vascularized corticocancellous bone has the potential to revascularize necrotic bone and can provide structural support for fractures with loss of height of the scaphoid. Studies have shown superior union rates for the medial femoral condyle vascularized bone graft versus pedicled grafts from the distal radius. Anatomical studies show no clinical loss of stability of the femur after flap harvest.
The peroneal artery is the blood supply of the fibular osseous or osteocutaneous free flap. It is generally reserved for head and neck reconstruction and larger defects of the extremities.
The descending branch of the lateral femoral circumflex artery supplies the anterolateral thigh free flap. The dorsalis pedis artery supplies the dorsalis pedis fasciocutaneous flap. The medial sural artery and its perforators supply the medial gastrocnemius muscle, and musculocutaneous and fasciocutaneous flaps. All of these flaps are used for soft-tissue defects alone and are not appropriate for reconstruction of bony defects.
A 45-year-old roofer has pain and swelling of the right wrist after falling off a roof and landing on his outstretched right hand. Radiographs are shown above. This patient most likely has which of the following types of fracture-dislocation?
(A) Carpometacarpal joint-hamate
(B) Radial styloid
(C) Scaphocapitate
(D) Scaphoid-perilunate
(E) Scaphotrapeziotrapezoid

The correct response is Option D.
This patient has a scaphoid-perilunate fracture-dislocation, also known as a scaphoid-dorsal perilunate fracture-dislocation. Wrist dislocations can range from simple injuries to extended fractures associated with dislocation of one or more carpal bones. This patient has sustained one of the most severe forms of wrist dislocation, as shown in the radiographs.
Fracture-dislocations of the wrist are identified according to the carpal bone(s) involved and the type of lunate dislocation (ie, incomplete or complete). Lunate dislocations are subdivided into midcarpal lunocapitate, complete lunate, and perilunate injuries. A complete lunate injury can be differentiated from a perilunate injury by the presence of a concomitant dislocation of the radiolunate joint. Greater arc injuries are typically caused by high-energy trauma. The radial styloid, scaphoid, capitate, hamate, triquetrum, and/or ulnar styloid may be fractured. Lesser arc dislocations involve injury to the scapholunate, lunocapitate, and/or lunotriquetral intervals; these injuries are rated as type I to type IV according to Mayfield’s classification.
The radiographs do not depict a carpometacarpal joint-hamate fracture-dislocation. A fracture-dislocation of the radial styloid would occur more proximally. The scaphocapitate and scaphotrapeziotrapezoid lie distal to the level of injury.
A 47-year-old woman comes to the office after sustaining an injury to the left wrist after falling on her outstretched hand. Examination shows pain of the radial aspect of the left wrist and anatomical snuffbox. Scaphoid fracture is suspected. When obtaining posterior-anterior x-ray studies, which of the following is the optimal positioning of the wrist for evaluation of the entire scaphoid?
A) Wrist in 20 degrees of radial deviation, 20 degrees of wrist extension
B) Wrist in 20 degrees of radial deviation, 20 degrees of wrist flexion
C) Wrist in 20 degrees of ulnar deviation, 20 degrees of wrist extension
D) Wrist in 20 degrees of ulnar deviation, 20 degrees of wrist flexion
E) Wrist in neutral radial/ulnar position, neutral flexion/extension
The correct response is Option C.
Scaphoid fractures are the most common carpal fracture and frequently occur after a fall onto an extended and radially deviated wrist. Initial workup often involves plain x-ray studies, which have a sensitivity of approximately 85%. The optimal position of the wrist when imaging scaphoid fractures includes ulnar deviation and wrist extension, which allows for evaluation of the long axis of the scaphoid. CT scan or MRI may be used as additional imaging if plain x-ray studies do not demonstrate a fracture, yet there is high clinical suspicion.
Which of the following carpal bones is the second most commonly fractured?
A ) Capitate
B ) Lunate
C ) Pisiform
D ) Scaphoid
E ) Triquetrum
The correct response is Option E.
The triquetrum is the second-most commonly fractured carpal bone. Most triquetrum fractures are dorsal ridge fractures that appear as avulsion fractures on lateral view radiographs of the wrist.
Pisiform, lunate, and capitate bones fracture less often than the triquetrum. The scaphoid is the most commonly fractured carpal bone.
Scaphoid fractures comprise 70% of all carpal fractures, with triquetral at 14%. The isolated incidence of other carpal bone fractures is 0.2% to 5%.
A 40-year-old man sustains the fracture shown in the radiograph, when he falls on his outstretched hand. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
(A) Immobilization in a thumb spica cast for six weeks
(B) Immobilization in a long arm cast for six weeks
(C) Open reduction and compression screw fixation
(D) Open reduction and Kirschner wire fixation
(E) Scaphoidectomy
The correct response is Option C.
In this patient who has a displaced fracture of the scaphoid waist, the most appropriate management is open reduction and compression screw fixation. This can be accomplished using a Herbert, Herbert-Whipple, or Accutrak screw; the Herbert-Whipple and Accutrak screws are cannulated to allow for guided pin placement. Compression screw fixation allows reduction of the fracture and compression across the fracture site, decreasing the risk for nonunion and the time required for immobilization. Although some surgeons suggest that adequate screw fixation allows early protected range of motion and eliminates the need for cast application, most physicians still recommend postoperative cast immobilization for three to six weeks. This shortened period of immobilization decreases the potential for muscle atrophy and joint stiffness and allows the patient to return to work sooner.
Previously recommended techniques for management of displaced fractures of the scaphoid waist, including prolonged immobilization in a long arm cast for three months or longer, have been associated with nonunion or malunion rates ranging from 30% to 40%.
Kirschner wire fixation is considered an acceptable fixation method, but is associated with higher rates of nonunion than compression screw fixation. In addition, Kirschner wires are typically buried for an extended fixation time to allow bony union and require an additional operative procedure for removal.
Scaphoidectomy is appropriate for management of patients with malunion or nonunion who develop scaphoid nonunion advanced collapse (SNAC wrist), which is a progressive, patterned arthritis of the wrist that may develop in a patient with nonunion. This procedure can be performed adjuvantly with proximal row carpectomy or four-corner arthrodesis, depending on the pattern of arthritis seen in the patient. It is not appropriate in patients with acute injuries.
A 45-year-old man is brought to the emergency department two hours after sustaining an avulsion injury to the thumb of the dominant right hand while roping a horse. The amputated part (shown) is too badly damaged for replantation. Two hours later, the patient says he has increasing pain in the forearm. On physical examination, firmness of the forearm is noted. Active extension of the fingers is limited to 120 degrees, 60 degrees less than on initial evaluation. Loss of sensation to pinprick over the entire hand is noted. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
(A) Administration of corticosteroids
(B) Application of cold compresses
(C) Carpal tunnel release
(D) Elevation of the arm
(E) Forearm fasciotomy

The correct response is Option E.
The patient described has a case of impending compartment syndrome. The cardinal signs of evolving compartment syndrome are
$ pain disproportionate to the injury
$ palpably swollen compartments
$ pain on passive stretching of the involved muscles
$ diminished perception of simple touch
$ decreased strength of the involved muscles
$ hypesthesia or anesthesia
A significant amount of forearm hemorrhaging can occur after avulsion injuries such as the one shown in the photograph. The surgeon must suspect compartment syndrome and proceed to surgery. None of the other treatment modality options listed are adequate in light of the severity of symptoms.
A 29-year-old man undergoes evaluation for nonunion of a scaphoid fracture. Reconstruction with a vascularized osseous flap is planned, and a medial femoral condyle flap is chosen. During harvest, the vascular pedicle for this flap runs between which of the following structures?
A) Anterior to the tensor fascia lata and posterior to the vastus lateralis
B) Anterior to the vastus medialis and anterior to the adductor tendon
C) Anterior to the vastus medialis and posterior to the rectus femoris
D) Posterior to the rectus femoris and anterior to the vastus lateralis
E) Posterior to the vastus medialis and anterior to the adductor tendon
The correct response is Option E.
The medial femoral condyle osseous free flap has become a useful option for reconstruction of bony defects in the extremities, particularly of the scaphoid waist and proximal pole. The vascular supply to this flap is from the descending geniculate artery in the distal medial aspect of the thigh. To explore and identify the pedicle for this flap, the vastus medialis is reflected anteriorly, and the adductor tendon is found posterior to the vessels. The rectus femoris is located anterior to the dissection for this flap.
A 24-year-old man is scheduled to undergo reconstruction for avascular necrosis of the proximal pole of the scaphoid with a free osteochondral bone flap. Which of the following arteries is the most commonly encountered vascular pedicle for the medial femoral condyle free bone flap?
A) Anterior tibial recurrent
B) Descending genicular
C) Popliteal
D) Saphenous
E) Superficial femoral
The correct response is Option B.
The medial femoral condyle free bone (corticocancellous) flap has been shown to be an excellent option for treatment of complicated degenerative bone pathology in the wrist, particularly scaphoid avascular necrosis. The Mayo group has also shown improved outcomes for scaphoid nonunion with humpback deformity compared with pedicled flaps from the distal radius. The same group has shown more consistent presence of supply from the medial superior genicular artery, which can be used in cases where the descending genicular artery is insufficient, although the pedicle length of the medial superior genicular artery is generally shorter. More recent anatomic analysis has shown this vessel can supply flaps up to 11 cm in length.
The (superficial) femoral and popliteal arteries are larger, regional vessels, with the superficial femoral artery being the immediate source vessel for the descending genicular artery. The popliteal artery is the source vessel for the medial superior genicular artery. The anterior tibial recurrent artery is distal and lateral, lying over the lateral aspect of the tibial plateau, and does not supply the medial femoral condyle. The saphenous artery has been described as a branch of the superficial femoral supplying the skin paddle overlying the medial femoral condyle but does not supply the bone.
The radiographs shown on page 140 are from a 45-year-old dock worker who has had worsening pain and loss of motion and strength in the dominant right wrist over the past two years. Which of the following is the most appropriate operative procedure?
(A) Scapholunate ligament repair
(B) Radial styloidectomy
(C) Radial corrective osteotomy
(D) Ulnar shortening osteotomy
(E) Four-corner arthrodesis

The correct response is Option E.
This patient has scapholunate advanced collapse of the wrist, also known as SLAC wrist, with radioscaphoid arthrosis and a dorsiflexed intercalated segment instability deformity. This condition is caused by incompetency of the scapholunate ligament, which leads to rotatory subluxation of the scaphoid.
SLAC is the most common cause of degenerative arthritis of the wrist. This condition can be classified according to four stages, as shown in the table below.
Stage I Radioscaphoid
Stage II Radial midcarpal
Stage III Ulnar midcarpal
Stage IV Pancarpal
Surgical management is aimed at decreasing pain and optimizing wrist function, using two unaffected articular surfaces if possible. In this patient, goals of surgery include eliminating the radioscaphoid articulation and stabilizing carpal kinematics. Therefore, the most appropriate procedure is scaphoid excision and four-corner arthrodesis between the lunate, capitate, hamate, and triquetrum. None of the other procedures addresses all of the problems that are present in this patient’s wrist.
A 36-year-old man comes to the office because of a 2-week history of pain of the right wrist after a fall on his outstretched hand. X-ray studies are shown. If this injury is left untreated, which of the following joint surfaces is most likely to develop arthritis first?
A) Capitolunate
B) Lunotriquetral
C) Radiolunate
D) Radioscaphoid
E) Scaphocapitate

The correct response is Option D.
The most likely joint surface to develop arthritis is the radioscaphoid joint. This patient shows evidence of scapholunate ligament tear. There is evidence of widening of the scapholunate interval and increase in the scapholunate angle.
The scapholunate angle is calculated by measuring the angle between a line drawn perpendicular to the distal surface of the lunate and along the axis of the scaphoid on the lateral view. The normal scapholunate angle varies from 30 to 60 degrees. A tear in the scapholunate ligament results in volar flexion of the scaphoid bone and dorsiflexion of the lunate, with a resultant increase in the angle.
If a scapholunate ligament tear is left untreated, a degenerative pattern of changes result. This is known as scapholunate advanced collapse (SLAC) wrist. Over time there is separation of the scaphoid and lunate bones and descent of the capitate into the intervening space.
With scapholunate ligament tears, arthritis occurs in a predictable sequence. This initially begins in the radioscaphoid joint, followed by the scaphocapitate joint and the capitolunate joint. The radiolunate joint is typically spared until advanced stages. The lunotriquetral ligament is intact and arthritis does not occur in this area with SLAC wrist.
A 25-year-old steelworker has significant posttraumatic trapeziometacarpal arthritis of the dominant thumb that interferes with job-related activities. Conservative management including joint protection and administration of anti-inflammatory drugs does not alleviate the pain.
Which of the following is the most appropriate operative management?
(A) Excision of the distal pole of the scaphoid
(B) Excision of the distal trapezium
(C) Excision of the proximal trapezium
(D) Scaphotrapezial arthrodesis
(E) Trapeziometacarpal arthrodesis
The correct response is Option E.
Patients with basilar joint arthritis of the thumb typically have involvement of the trapeziometacarpal joint; the scaphotrapeziotrapezoidal joint is involved less frequently. Conservative management including splinting, administration of anti-inflammatory agents, and joint protection should be attempted first. Recent studies have shown that administration of glucosamine and chondroitin sulfate may aid in alleviation of pain.
Both arthroplasty and arthrodesis are recommended in patients in whom conservative management has been unsuccessful. Either procedure will alleviate pain in the diseased trapeziometacarpal joint. Because arthroplasty has limited use in manual laborers who require durability, arthrodesis is more appropriate. Although trapeziometacarpal arthrodesis permits pain-free powerful grip and pinch, this procedure places greater motion demands on the metacarpophalangeal and scaphotrapezial joints. Another disadvantage of trapeziometacarpal arthrodesis is that the procedure results in a decrease in thumb metacarpal motion; as a result, hand span will be decreased, and the patient will be unable to flatten the palm completely.
The other procedures do not address the trapeziometacarpal joint of the thumb and thus are not indicated.
In patients with basilar joint arthritis of the thumb, treatment with trapeziectomy alone compared with trapeziectomy with ligament reconstruction and tendon interposition is most likely to result in which of the following?
A) Decreased complication rate
B) Increased risk for recurrent pain
C) Longer recovery time
D) Worse functional outcomes
The correct response is Option A.
Simple trapeziectomy was first described in 1947 and though it is only utilized by a small minority of hand surgeons in the United States as solitary treatment for basilar thumb arthritis, its efficacy has not been demonstrated to be inferior to the more commonly employed trapeziectomy with ligament reconstruction and tendon interposition. Meta-analysis has demonstrated that simple trapeziectomy is equally beneficial in terms of pain relief and function as trapeziectomy with ligament reconstruction and tendon interposition, but results in fewer complications.
A variety of reconstructive techniques have been employed in management of basilar thumb arthritis. Most commonly employed in the United States is the trapeziectomy with ligament reconstruction and tendon interposition utilizing the flexor carpi radialis tendon. Other described techniques include CMC joint implant arthroplasty, partial trapeziectomy with interposition arthroplasty, and thumb metacarpal extension osteotomy for early-stage arthritis. None of these techniques have demonstrated superiority over simple trapeziectomy, and synthetic implants have been associated with significant complications.
A 15-year-old boy sustains the fracture shown in the radiograph after falling on his outstretched hand during a football game. For how many weeks should the fracture be immobilized in a thumb spica cast?
A) 2 to 4
B) 5 to 6
C) 7 to 8
D) 10 to 14
E) 16 to 20
Correct answer is option D.
In this patient who has a nondisplaced transverse fracture of the scaphoid waist, the wrist should be immobilized in a thumb spica cast for 10 to 14 weeks. Most surgeons agree that acute nondisplaced scaphoid fractures will generally heal if the wrist is immobilized adequately for two to three months. Some surgeons recommend immobilization in a long arm cast for the first several weeks and replacement with a short arm cast for the duration of the healing period.
Open reduction and internal fixation are indicated in patients who have scaphoid fractures with displacement of more than 1 mm because the blood supply to the bone is likely to be disrupted. Because this blood supply enters the scaphoid distally and proceeds proximally, fractures of the tubercle and distal third of the scaphoid exhibit a more rapid
healing process. Therefore, casting for no more than four to six weeks is recommended in patients with fractures of the distal third of the scaphoid if there is no displacement. In contrast, the proximal pole of the scaphoid receives the poorest blood supply, and nondisplaced fractures of the proximal pole of the scaphoid would typically be immobilized for four to six months to allow for bony union. Instead, open reduction and internal fixation can be performed even if the fracture is nondisplaced. Electrical stimulation or ultrasound can be used adjunctively to treat delayed bony union.
Because fracture healing is variable, frequent follow-up examination and radiographs are indicated. CT scans show fracture callus and bridging trabeculae in healing scaphoid fractures.
A 59-year-old woman comes for evaluation because of a 7-month history of pain over the radial aspect of the right wrist that is aggravated with forceful gripping. She denies any history of trauma to the hand or wrist. On physical examination, there is tenderness to palpation over the right anatomic snuffbox and thenar eminence. Axial load and shifting of the basal joint does not result in crepitance or pain. Resisted thumb extension at the metacarpophalangeal joint level is not painful. An x-ray study of the wrist is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate operative management?
A) Arthrodesis of the scaphotrapeziotrapezoid joint
B) Arthrodesis of the trapeziometacarpal joint
C) Hemi-resection of the distal trapezium and tendon interposition
D) Release of the first dorsal compartment
E) Release of the second dorsal compartment

The correct response is Option A.
Scaphotrapeziotrapezoid (STT) arthritis can often be misdiagnosed on initial presentation as basal joint arthritis. The keys to differentiating the two sites of pain include physical examination, which shows tenderness more proximal than the basal joint and absence of pain with a grind maneuver, coupled with imaging showing osteoarthritic degeneration at the STT rather than the trapeziometacarpal level. Treatment for the arthritic pain can consist of resection arthroplasty or arthrodesis. Both techniques can provide good relief of symptoms. Resection arthroplasty often is used when the scapho-trapezoid articulation is relatively preserved. Regardless of technique chosen, the surgeon should address both the scapho-trapezial and the scapho-trapezoid joints during the procedure.
Release of the first dorsal compartment would address de Quervain tenosynovitis, which could present with pain over the anatomic snuffbox. On examination, however, the patient would typically demonstrate pain with the “resisted Hitchhiker” maneuver (resisted extensor pollicis brevis function at the metacarpophalangeal level). Given the negative findings on examination and the STT arthritis noted on imaging, this patient would not likely respond to treatment directed at the first dorsal compartment.
Second dorsal compartment tenosynovitis can present with distal forearm and wrist pain. The location of the pain is typically more proximal in the forearm and localized to the intersection between the muscle bellies of the first compartment tendons and the radial wrist extensors. This patient’s pain is localized to the STT region rather than the second dorsal compartment.
Hemiresection of the distal trapezium and tendon interposition has been used successfully in the management of trapezio-metacarpal arthritis (basal joint arthritis). In this patient, the location of the pain, absence of pain with a “grinding” type maneuver, and the imaging showing preservation of the basal joint argue against directing treatment at the basal joint itself.
For the same reasons that hemiresection of the distal trapezium is a poor choice for this patient, arthrodesis of the basal joint addresses the wrong site of arthritis. X-ray study and physical examination both indicate STT arthritis as the etiology of the patient’s pain.
A 63-year-old man comes to the office because of pain of the right wrist and posttraumatic arthritis after a long-standing scapholunate tear that was untreated. Salvage reconstruction with proximal row carpectomy is planned. Which of the following articular surfaces should be intact in order to perform the procedure?
A) Capitolunate
B) Lunotriquetral
C) Radioscaphoid
D) Scaphotrapezial
E) Trapeziotrapezoid
The correct response is Option A.
The capitolunate articulation should be intact in order to perform proximal row carpectomy.
The patient described has a chronic scapholunate tear, which if left untreated, can lead to the consequences of scapholunate advanced collapse (SLAC) wrist. With ongoing progression, degenerative wrist arthritis and pain result.
Arthritis occurs in a predictable sequence, initially at the radioscaphoid joint, followed by the scaphocapitate joint and the capitolunate joint. The radiolunate joint is typically spared until advanced stages.
Proximal row carpectomy is a salvage wrist procedure that can be used in some cases of SLAC wrist. The proximal carpal bones of the wrist (scaphoid, lunate, and triquetral) are removed, and the capitate head is allowed to rest in the lunate fossa of the radius. In order for this procedure to be successful, the capitolunate joint should be free of arthritis. The patient should have preservation of cartilage on the capitate head and the lunate fossa of the radius, as this forms the new articulation of the wrist.
A 20-year-old major college basketball player sustained a displaced fracture of the proximal pole of the scaphoid of the dominant right wrist during a basketball game four months ago. Open reduction and internal fixation were performed at the time of injury. A current MRI shows nonunion of the fracture and avascular necrosis of the proximal pole; the articular surfaces are intact. She anticipates playing for the team the following season, and would like to play basketball professionally after graduation. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Further immobilization
B) Cancellous grafting
C) Corticocancellous grafting
D) Reconstruction with a bone pedicle flap
E) Bone autotransplantation
Correct answer is option D.
Approximately two-thirds of carpal fractures involve the scaphoid, and more than 90% of nondisplaced scaphoid fractures treated by cast immobilization result in bony union. However, fracture displacement disrupts the retrograde endosteal blood supply of the scaphoid. In patients with scaphoid fractures that are displaced more than 1 mm treated with cast immobilization, approximately 55% have nonunion, and 50% ultimately develop avascular necrosis. Fractures of the proximal pole of the scaphoid are associated with an incidence of avascular necrosis approaching 100%.
Appropriate management of a displaced fracture of the scaphoid bone involves reduction and compressive, rigid fixation. Pedicled bone flaps can be used to revascularize the nonhealing scaphoid bone. These flaps are based on septal perforators from the adjacent extensor compartments. A bone flap based on the septum between the first and second extensor compartments is used most commonly. Bone flaps from the distal radius have been shown to improve the rate of bone healing in patients who have nonunion of the scaphoid. According to one study of ten patients who underwent reconstruction with a pedicled bone flap for long-term nonunion of fractures of the proximal pole of the scaphoid, approximately 100% demonstrated union, at an average of twelve weeks after surgery. In addition, in those patients who have Kienbšck disease (avascular necrosis of the lunate), successful revascularization of the lunate has been shown to occur.
Although bone grafts from the distal radius have been used in the past, they do not provide vascularized bone for grafting at the avascular site of the fracture.
A 35-year-old man sustained a dorsal perilunate dislocation of the left wrist when he jumped from a moving truck. Following closed reduction in the emergency department, anteroposterior radiographs show a scapholunate interval of 10 mm. Lateral radiographs show a dorsal intercalated segment instability (DISI) pattern (scapholunate angle of 90 degrees). There are no fractures. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A) Application of a long arm cast for 12 weeks
B) Percutaneous pin fixation followed by application of a cast for six weeks
C) Operative repair through a dorsal incision
D) Proximal row carpectomy
E) Scapholunate arthrodesis
Correct answer is option C.
In this patient with an acute scapholunate ligament tear, the most appropriate management is operative repair through a dorsal incision. Surgical intervention should be expedited in cases of acute scapholunate ligament tears associated with carpal instability to prevent degenerative wrist arthritis, which is likely if the scapholunate diastasis and carpal collapse are not corrected. The repair is performed through a dorsal approach, with carpal collapse reduced and stabilized using Kirschner wires. Pin fixation of the reduced scapholunate joint is achieved under fluoroscopic guidance, and the ligament is repaired either directly or with suture anchors when necessary. A dorsal capsulodesis (e.g., Blatt capsulodesis) is often added to reinforce the repair and stabilize the rotary subluxation of the scaphoid.
According to Mayfield’s classification of progressive perilunate instability patterns, the stages of injury correlate with ligamentous damage around the lunate:
• Stage I: Scapholunate joint instability due to tearing of the scapholunate and volar radioscaphoid ligaments.
• Stage II: Dislocation of the capitate.
• Stage III: Separation of the lunate and triquetrum.
• Stage IV: Lunate dislocation.
Perilunate dislocations are also categorized as greater arc injuries (which include fractures of the radial styloid, scaphoid, capitate, triquetrum, and ulnar styloid) and lesser arc injuries, corresponding to Mayfield’s stages of progressive instability.
Nonoperative management, such as immobilization in a long arm cast, is insufficient for this injury and will likely lead to degenerative wrist arthritis.
Percutaneous pin fixation is only appropriate in cases where scapholunate diastasis can be adequately corrected using this technique. However, it is ineffective in patients with a carpal collapse pattern.
Proximal row carpectomy and scapholunate arthrodesis are contraindicated for acute injuries and are instead reserved for managing certain types of late-stage degenerative wrist arthritis.
A 60-year-old woman comes to the office because of a 2-year history of disabling pain in the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb of the nondominant left hand. Physical examination shows swelling and tenderness. Grind test results are positive. X-ray study shows osteoarthritis with subluxation of the joint. Which of the following types of biomaterial is most appropriate for arthroplasty?
A ) Expanded polytetrafluoroethylene (GORE-TEX)
B ) Polypropylene (Marlex)
C ) Polyurethaneurea (Artelon)
D ) Porcine dermal collagen xenograft (Permacol)
E ) Silicone trapezial implant arthroplasty
The correct response is Option C.
Polyurethaneurea (Artelon) implants typically biodegrade by hydrolysis and are described as causing minimal giant cell and foreign body reaction. Although long-term studies are still pending, they currently appear to be the best biomaterial for this application.
The use of silicone trapezial implants was, at one time, a common procedure, but the long-term results of silicone arthroplasty wear and deformation led to multinucleated giant cell reactions with silicone granulomas and synovitis. This resulted in about a 25% failure rate with this modality.
Similarly, a study by Greenberg, et al, showed an incidence of 80% osteolysis and a high failure rate with GORE-TEX implants. A biopsy specimen of one retrieved implant showed giant cell reactions. Marlex implants also showed foreign body reactions and synovitis. A study by Belcher, et al, on Permacol implants was terminated prematurely because of adverse reactions to the implant in 6 of 13 patients, with significant pain and evidence of multinucleated giant cells.
Following a fall 2 hours ago, a 23-year-old man reports increasing tingling and pain in the left thumb and index finger. X-ray studies of the left wrist are shown. Attempts at reduction fail. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient?
A) Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning
B) Exploration and wrist arthrodesis
C) External distractor placement
D) Open reduction and internal fixation
E) Proximal row carpectomy

The correct response is Option D.
This patient has sustained a Mayfield III greater arc perilunate injury. The x-ray studies show a scaphoid waist fracture along with a disruption of Gilula’s lines. The lateral view shows the lunate in its fossa with the remaining carpus displaced dorsally. In a closed injury, attempted reduction in the emergency department, often accompanied by sedation, is an appropriate first step. If reduction is successfully performed and the patient has minimal median nerve symptoms, they can be safely discharged home with plans to return within the week for repair. If reduction is not possible, as in this case, then the patient should be admitted to the hospital for open reduction and internal fixation in the form of screw fixation of the scaphoid fracture and scapholunate ligament tear versus K-wire fixation.
In this case, given the patient’s worsening median nerve compression symptoms, acute carpal tunnel syndrome should be considered, and a carpal tunnel release should be performed concurrently with the open reduction and internal fixation. If the resources are not available to perform definitive repair of the bone and joint injury, acute carpal tunnel release is still needed to preserve viability of the median nerve. If the nerve and bony procedures can be done concurrently, by using the volar approach, the carpal tunnel can be easily accessed and released during the approach to reach the displaced lunate. Following this, often a dorsal approach is used to address concurrent scaphoid injuries.
Proximal row carpectomy is reserved for those missed injuries with chronic pain and instability. This patient presents with an acute injury so this would not be recommended. Similarly, wrist arthrodesis is also reserved for chronic injuries in those who have painful and unstable joints, but this would also be a poor choice in this patient.
While some authors use staged reconstruction with a distractor to address soft tissue shortening in late presentations, the two-stage approach would not be necessary in an acute injury like this.
Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning would be difficult since reduction attempts in the emergency department have been unsuccessful, and it would not address the carpal tunnel.
A 65-year-old woman has had worsening pain in the dominant right thumb for the past four years. She has difficulty buttoning her shirt and opening jars. Conservative management has not been effective.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
(A) Metacarpal dorsal opening wedge osteotomy
(B) Trapeziectomy and tendon interposition arthroplasty
(C) Trapeziectomy and implant interposition arthroplasty
(D) Carpometacarpal joint arthrodesis
(E) Scaphotrapeziotrapezoid arthrodesis
The correct response is Option B.
This patient has pantrapezial osteoarthritis of the basal joint of the thumb, as evident in the radiograph. Degenerative arthritis of the basal joint can involve the carpometacarpal (CMC), scaphotrapeziotrapezoid (STT), and radiocarpal joints. This condition is common in individuals with occupations requiring repetitive and forceful hand functions, such as laborers.
Clinical Presentation:
Pantrapezial arthritis typically presents with pain at the base of the thumb, which worsens with pinch, grasp, lifting, or twisting motions. The earliest pathological finding is the failure of the volar beak ligament. Patients often report difficulty with daily activities, such as opening jars or buttoning clothes. On physical examination, tenderness exacerbated by direct compression or axial loading of the thumb helps localize the osteoarticular level. Progressive dorsal subluxation of the CMC joint can result in hyperextension deformity of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint. Radiographic evaluation should include posteroanterior, oblique, lateral, and Robert’s views.
Management:
Treatment of pantrapezial osteoarthritis is guided by the stage of the disease:
1. Early Stage:
• Joint protection and activity modification.
• Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for pain management.
• Splinting, either hand-based or forearm-based, to stabilize the thumb.
• Corticosteroid injections for significant pain relief.
2. Surgical Management (When Conservative Treatment Fails):
The primary goals of surgery are to restore thumb stability and functional positioning. Surgical options include:
• Trapeziectomy with volar beak ligament reconstruction and tendon interposition arthroplasty: This is the recommended treatment for this patient to relieve pain and maintain function.
• Dorsal opening wedge osteotomy of the thumb metacarpal: Reserved for early arthritis to correct joint mechanics.
Less Common Surgical Options:
• CMC Joint Arthrodesis: Indicated for patients with high-demand occupations requiring significant grip strength. However, it is associated with a risk of nonunion and limits palm flattening.
• Scaphotrapeziotrapezoid Arthrodesis: Not effective for addressing the primary involved joint in pantrapezial arthritis.
• Silicone or Metal Implants: Historically used but inadequate, as partial trapezium resection does not fully relieve pain.
Proper staging of the disease and individualized treatment planning are critical to optimize outcomes and restore hand function.
A 60-year-old man who is retired comes to the office because he has had pain and stiffness of the left wrist for six months after he sustained a traumatic injury when he fell from a ladder. Radiographs of the wrist are shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
(A) Arthrodesis of the wrist
(B) Dorsal capsulodesis
(C) Open reduction and internal fixation of the scaphoid
(D) Proximal row carpectomy
(E) Surgical repair of the scapholunate

The correct response is Option D.
This patient has sustained an injury to the scapholunate ligament. His injury is not recent, as evidenced by the arthritis that is involving the radiocarpal joint and radial styloid. The radiograph suggests a scapholunate injury because of the widened gap between the scaphoid and lunate bones and the widened scapholunate angle (greater than 60 degrees on lateral view). When patients present early, for example within three months of injury, the scapholunate ligament can be repaired and a dorsal capsulodesis procedure can be performed to strengthen the repair. However, when they present later, especially after developing arthritis, the edges of the scapholunate ligament usually cannot be reapproximated and the pain elicited by the arthritis will not be relieved. A wrist arthrodesis may be an option if the lunate fossa of the radius or capitate head are involved with arthritis. However, in this patient, proximal row carpectomy would be the most appropriate management. Patients who undergo proximal row carpectomy usually recover 70% to 80% grip strength and 50% to 60% range of motion. Most patients who undergo proximal row carpectomy have resolution of pain. The scapholunate ligament can be reconstructed with the flexor carpi radialis tendon, AlloDerm, or bone ligament bone construct, but this is not an alternative in an individual who already has arthritis. The scaphoid has not been fractured; therefore, open reduction and internal fixation is not needed.
Postoperative radiographs are shown.

A 30-year-old man who works as a brick mason comes to the emergency department one hour after he sustained an injury to the right wrist when he fell backward off a 10-foot-high wall. He has severe pain in the wrist as well as numbness in the fingers and thumb. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A) Elevation of the hand and monitoring of compartment pressures with a wick catheter
B) Carpal tunnel release only
C) Carpal tunnel release and proximal row carpectomy
D) Carpal tunnel release and scapholunate arthrodesis
E) Carpal tunnel release, relocation of the lunate, and repair of the volar radiocarpal ligaments
Correct answer is E.
This patient has sustained a trans-scaphoid, dorsal perilunate, volar lunate fracture dislocation. In addition to pain in the wrist, this injury often presents with acute carpal tunnel syndrome, which must be recognized promptly and treated emergently. The lunate must be relocated from the carpal canal to the carpus, and the associated hematoma must be evacuated. After the lunate has been relocated, the volar radiocarpal ligaments must be repaired. Correct carpal alignment usually requires dorsal and volar approaches using a Kirschner wire in the lunate to function as a joystick. Reduction and fixation of the scaphoid are also required.
Acute carpal tunnel syndrome indicates ongoing compression and ischemia of the median nerve. Conservative measures such as elevation of the hand and serial measurement of compartment pressures are contraindicated. Proximal row carpectomy and scapholunate arthrodesis are options for treatment of degenerative arthritis of the wrist but should not be used as primary treatment of a fracture dislocation.
A 23-year-old man comes for evaluation after falling from a ladder onto the left wrist. A scaphoid fracture is suspected. Initial anterior-posterior, lateral, oblique, and scaphoid-view x-ray studies show no definitive fracture. Which of the following additional imaging studies is most sensitive and specific for detecting the suspected fracture?
A) Arthrography
B) Bone scan
C) CT scan
D) MRI
E) Ultrasonography
The correct response is Option D.
The imaging study that is most sensitive and specific for detecting an acute scaphoid fracture is MRI. Many authors have written about the best secondary imaging study for scaphoid fractures not evident on standard x-ray studies. MRI is the best test considering both sensitivity and specificity, followed by CT scan. The majority of the published data shows bone scan to be the most sensitive but less specific than MRI or CT scan. Ultrasonography is used for evaluation of long bone fractures but is not yet indicated for evaluation of carpal bone fractures.
A 32-year-old man comes to the emergency department after a motorcycle collision. Examination and x-ray studies show an isolated injury to the left wrist consistent with a perilunate dislocation. In perilunate dislocations, dislocation of which of the following is the initial injury that leads to lunate dislocation?
A) Dorsal carpal ligaments
B) Lunocapitate junction
C) Lunotriquetral ligaments
D) Scapholunate ligament
E) Triangular fibrocartilage complex
The correct response is Option D.
All the other answers are incorrect due to incorrect sequence of force transmission across the wrist. Furthermore B and E are wrong due to incorrect mechanism, as well.
Wagner and Mayfield conducted classic studies on carpal dynamics and anatomy to determine the progression of stresses across the wrist in severe hyperextension injuries. They determined that there is a reliable and predictable pattern to these injuries, which is described as Progressive Perilunate Instability (PLI). There are four stages of PLI, corresponding to the degree of stress applied in the injury.
Progressive Perilunate Instability (PLI) describes a sequence of ligamentous injuries in the wrist due to severe hyperextension forces. Understanding the four stages of PLI is crucial for accurate diagnosis and management. Below are illustrations depicting each stage:
Stage I: Scapholunate Dissociation
This initial stage involves the disruption of the scapholunate ligament, leading to instability between the scaphoid and lunate bones. The scaphoid may exhibit rotatory subluxation.
Stage II: Perilunate Dislocation
Progressing from Stage I, the capitate dislocates dorsally relative to the lunate, while the lunate maintains its position with the distal radius. This stage signifies further compromise of the carpal stability. 
Stage III: Midcarpal Dislocation
At this stage, there is disruption of the lunotriquetral ligament, resulting in dislocation at the midcarpal joint. The lunate remains aligned with the radius, but the surrounding carpal bones are dislocated. 
Stage IV: Lunate Dislocation
The final and most severe stage involves the volar dislocation of the lunate itself into the carpal tunnel, often leading to median nerve compression. This occurs due to the failure of both dorsal and volar ligaments stabilizing the lunate.
For a comprehensive visual representation of these stages, please refer to the diagram.
Understanding these stages aids in timely and appropriate intervention, potentially preventing long-term dysfunction and arthritis.




















