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Microbio > Vaccines and Antimicrobial Drugs (#2) > Flashcards

Vaccines and Antimicrobial Drugs (#2) Flashcards

1
Q

any molecule or substance that stimulates the immune system to make antibodies against it and activate immune memory (response)

A

antigen

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2
Q

the substance given to a host (usually by injection) that induces artificial active immunity

A

vaccine

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3
Q

vaccines act as ______, but do not cause disease

A

antigens

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4
Q

what kind of immunity do vaccines induce?

A

artificial active (stimulate B cells to make antibodies + T cells)

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5
Q

inoculation of a host with a vaccine to stimulate protective active immunity; booster may be required to enhance or restore protection

A

vaccination (immunization)

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6
Q

first vaccine given ever was by who?

A

Jenner (gave James Smith cowpox for his smallpox)

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7
Q

immune responses after exposure to antigen (2):

A
  • primary immune response
  • secondary immune response
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8
Q

immune response that is slow to start; smaller antibody concentration

A

primary immune response

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9
Q

immune response that is FASTER and is larger; antibody concentration is higher

A

secondary immune response

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10
Q

vaccines get you through your _____ immune response level

A

primary (so when you get exposed again, your body responds with the more effective secondary response)

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11
Q

T/F: during your second exposure to the antigen, your immune system is already activated so you should not get sick (or less sick if there’s been mutation changes to antigen = partial protection)

A

true

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12
Q

T/F: you will always have antibodies leftover after your primary immune response

A

false (may have none)

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13
Q

what type of immunity includes your body’s first line of defense?

A

innate immunity

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14
Q

what type of immunity is built up as we are exposed to diseases or get vaccinated?

A

adaptive

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15
Q

what type of immunity occurs when an individual produces antibodies to a disease through his or her own immune system?

A

active

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16
Q

what type of immunity occurs when a person is GIVEN antibodies?

A

passive

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17
Q

purpose of vaccine development =

A

get antigen into your body to stim. an immune reponse

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18
Q

3 main approaches to making a vaccine:

A

1) whole-microbe approach
2) subunit approach
3) genetic approach (nucleic acid vaccine)

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19
Q

type of whole-microbe approach vaccines (3):

A

1 inactivated vaccine

#2 live-attenuated vaccine
#3 viral vector vaccine

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20
Q

type of whole-microbe approach vaccine: flu virus; attenuation; DEAD viruses; can cause you to get sick

A

inactivated vaccine

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21
Q

type of whole-microbe approach vaccine: still ALIVE but weakened; MMR (measles)

A

live-attenuated vaccine

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22
Q

type of whole-microbe vaccine: whole microbe approach but taken DNA out (ex: Johnson-and-Johnson vaccine)

A

viral vector vaccine

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23
Q

type of vaccine: Flu =

A

inactivated virus (whole-microbe)

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24
Q

type of vaccine: MMR (measles) =

A

live-attenuated vaccine (whole-microbe)

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25
Q

type of vaccine: Johnson-&-Johnson

A

viral vector vector

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26
Q

type of APPROACH of vaccine development: only uses the very specific parts of a virus or bacterium that the immune system needs to recognize

A

subunit approach

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27
Q

type of APPROACH of vaccine development: uses the genetic material for specific proteins – the DNA or RNA; sends in pieces; novavax for covid

A

genetic approach (nucleic acid vaccine)

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28
Q

type of approach: novavax for COVID

A

genetic approach

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29
Q

an effective vaccine should do all of the following EXCEPT:
a) cause a primary immune response in the host
b) present antigen to the immune system
c) replace the host’s previous immune memory to the pathogen
d) cause the production of antibodies that will bind to the pathogen

A

c) replace the host’s previous immune memory to the pathogen

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30
Q

virus that causes COVID-19 =

A

SARS-CoV-2

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31
Q

the ____ protein on SARS-CoV-2 is an ANTIGEN.

A

spike

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32
Q

what does the covid vaccine target on the virus?

A

spike protein (antigen)

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33
Q

what does the spike protein do for the COVID virus?

A

helps it attach to cells to cause infection

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34
Q

usually viruses mutate and become more transmissible, but not more ______

A

sever (wouldn’t be advantageous to kill host; no longer could spread)

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35
Q

we look at the _____ of vaccines, not effectiveness bc effectiveness looks at real world impacts (which is too far ahead for us to tell)

A

efficacy

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36
Q

what kind of genome does SARS-CoV-2 have?

A

RNA

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37
Q

what kind of vaccine is Pfizer and Moderna (for covid)?

A

mRNA vaccine

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38
Q

steps of the develop. of mRNA vaccine (Pfizer + Moderna - 6 steps)

A

1) mRNA with instructions for making the spike protein is developed in a lab
2) put mRNA in a lipid particle
3) mRNA enters the human cell and antigen presents itself (flag)
4) COVID-19 virus spike protein created (B cell recognizes it and then differentiates)
5) spike proteins are recognized by the immune system (prod. specific antibodies + memory cells)
6) if infected, antibodies bind to virus and stop it from replicating

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39
Q

when antigens are presented on the surface of the virus; FLAG; says “hey this cell is infected!”

A

antigen presentation

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40
Q

what kind of vaccine is the Johnson-and-Johnson vaccine?

A

viral vector vaccine

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41
Q

steps of the development of a viral vector vaccine (Johnson-&-Johnson - 6):

A

1) genetic material (of spike protein) inserted into inactive (harmless) virus
2) viral vector vaccine (genetic material put in lipid-molecule)
3) phagocytic cell engulfs harmless virus
4) COVID spike protein created on surface
5) spike proteins recognized by the immune system, which produces specific antibodies against the virus
6) if infected with virus, antibodies bind to virus and stop it from replicating

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42
Q

resistance in a population to a pathogen (disease) as a result of the immunity of a large portion of the population

A

herd immunity

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43
Q

herd immunity breaks the chain of ______ ______ from one susceptible host to another

A

pathogen transmission

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44
Q

in herd immunity, the more highly infectious a pathogen, the _____ the proportion of immune individuals needed to prevent disease spread

A

greater

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45
Q

measles, which is very contagious, requires a ____% herd immunity

A

95%

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46
Q

you want ___% herd immunity but this rarely happens

A

80%

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47
Q

compounds used to treat disease by destroying or inhibiting the growth of pathogenic microbes within a host (in vivo)

A

antimicrobial drugs

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48
Q

types of antimicrobial drugs (3):

A
  • synthetics
  • antibiotics
  • semi-synthetics
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49
Q

type of antimicrobial drug: CHEMICAL (ex: sulfur drug)

A

synthetic

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50
Q

type of antimicrobial drug: naturally produced antimicrobial agents (microbial products); produced by bacteria + fungi;

A

antibiotic

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51
Q

less than __% of antibiotics have clinical significance

A

1%

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52
Q

antibiotics are _______ into pills or a liquid — NOT _______

A

purified; NOT modified

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53
Q

type of antimicrobial drug: chemically modified antibiotics (ex: amoxicillin)

A

semi-synthetic

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54
Q

example of semi-synthetic =

A

amoxicillin (chem. modified from penicillen)

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55
Q

antimicrobial drugs are classified based on what 3 things?

A
  • molecular structure
  • mechanism of action
  • spectrum of antimicrobial activity
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56
Q

1st antibiotic ever used; still the most frequently used antibiotic (40% freq)

A

penicillins

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57
Q

general characteristics of antimicrobial drugs (4):

A
  • selective toxicity
  • therapeutic (effective dose)
  • toxic dose
  • therapeutic index
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58
Q

characteristic of antimicrobial drugs: ability of a drug to kill or inhibit a pathogen while damaging the host as LITTLE as possible

A

selective toxicity

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59
Q

penicillin targeting peptidoglycan and amino acid linking in the cell wall demonstrates the its high ______ _______

A

selective toxicity

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60
Q

characteristic of antimicrobial drugs: drug level required for clinical treatment; get to the MIC

A

therapeutic (effective) dose

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61
Q

ED =

A

effective/therapeutic dose

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62
Q

T/F: ED50 means 50% of the trial subjects will be successfully effected with this dose

A

true

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63
Q

characteristic of antimicrobial drugs: drug level at which drug becomes too toxic for patient (produces side effects)

A

toxic dose

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64
Q

TD =

A

toxic dose

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65
Q

T/F: TD50 means 50% of the trial subjects will have toxic side effects

A

true

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66
Q

characteristic of antimicrobial drugs: ratio of toxic dose to therapeutic dose

A

therapeutic index

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67
Q

the _____ the therapeutic index, the better

A

larger

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68
Q

for therapeutic index, we want ED to be _______ TD

A

greater than (ex: morphine is 70:1)

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69
Q

T/F: morphines therapeutic index is 70:1, meaning you have to take 70x more morphine than needed to get toxic side effects

A

true

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70
Q

usually highly ______ _____ drugs have a higher therapeutic index (good!!)

A

selectively toxic

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71
Q

who came up with the general characteristics of antimicrobial drugs (selectively toxic, ED, TD, and therap. index)

A

Paul Irwin

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72
Q

OTHER general characteristics of antimicrobial drugs (5):

A
  • narrow-spectrum drugs
  • broad-spectrum drugs
  • cidal agent
  • static agent
  • side effects
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73
Q

general characteristics of antimicrobial drugs cont: drugs attacks only a FEW different pathogens (ex: only goes after gram-pos pathogens)

A

narrow-spectrum drugs

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74
Q

example of narrow-spectrum drug =

A

penicillin (but some semi-synthetic forms are consid. broad)

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75
Q

general characteristics of antimicrobial drugs cont: drugs attacks MANY different pathogens (ex: gram-pos + neg or bacteria, fungi, AND other microbes)

A

broad-spectrum drugs

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76
Q

general characteristics of antimicrobial drugs cont: KILLS microbes

A

cidal agent

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77
Q

general characteristics of antimicrobial drugs cont: inhibits growth of microbes

A

static agent

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78
Q

general characteristics of antimicrobial drugs cont: undesirable effects of drugs on host cells

A

side effects

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79
Q

types of antimicrobial targets (5):

A
  • cell wall synthesis
  • DNA gyrase
  • protein synthesis (50S inhibitors)
  • protein synthesis (30S inhibitors)
  • lipid biosynthesis
80
Q

type of antimicrobial TARGET by: penicillins

A

cell wall synthesis

81
Q

type of antimicrobial TARGET by: Quinolones (ciprofloxacin)

A

DNA gyrase

82
Q

what type of Quinolone (antimicrobial) targets DNA gyrase ?

A

ciprofloxacin

83
Q

type of antimicrobial TARGET: packages DNA; agent inhibits cell to replicate DNA; works against actively growing cells

A

DNA gyrase

84
Q

you have probably taken ciprofloxacin for ______

A

UTI’s

85
Q

ciprofloxacin goes again’t what type of bacteria?

A

gram-NEGATIVE

86
Q

type of antimicrobial TARGET by: Erythromycin (macrolides)

A

protein synthesis (50S inhibitor)

87
Q

classification type of Erythromycin =

A

macrolides

88
Q

type of antimicrobial TARGET: large ribosome subunit; selectively toxic bc agents go after a ribosome subunit

A

protein synthesis (50S inhibitor)

89
Q

large HUMAN ribosomal subunit =

A

60S

90
Q

_________ is a semi-synthetic erythromycin

A

Z-pack

91
Q

type of antimicrobial TARGET by: Tetracyclines

A

protein synthesis (30S)

92
Q

type of antimicrobial TARGET: commonly used for ACNE; small ribosome subunit; long-term use (for now); use a lot for animals

A

protein synthesis (30S)

93
Q

human small ribosomal subunit =

A

40S

94
Q

type of antimicrobial TARGET by: Platensimycin

A

lipid biosynthesis

95
Q

type of antimicrobial TARGET: newly discovered; agents don’t allow for formation of things such as the cell membrane

A

lipid biosynthesis

96
Q

T/F: antimicrobials go after cells, whether they’re dead or alive

A

false (only ACTIVE cells)

97
Q

antimicrobials go after bacterial _______

A

components (ex: cell wall synthesis)

98
Q

gram-_______ are more susceptible to antimicrobial agents

A

gram-POSITIVE *

99
Q

types of SYNTHETIC (chemical) antimicrobial drugs (2):

A
  • growth factor analogs
  • quinolones
100
Q

type of SYNTHETIC antimicrobial drug: structurally similar to an essential growth factor; disrupt cell metabolism

A

growth factor analogs

101
Q

example of growth factor analog =

A

isoniazid

102
Q

growth factor analog; NARROW spectrum; cidal if actively growing + static if dormant

A

isoniazid

103
Q

isoniazid resembles ______ (similar structure) which is needed to produce mycolic acid; cell acidently puts isoniazid in place and build mycolic acid WONG (kills TB cells)

A

nictimomide

104
Q

isoniazid has a ______ spectrum

A

narrow

105
Q

when the cell puts isoniazid instead of nictimomide, it kills ______ cells bc _____ _____ is built wrong

A

TB cells; mycolic acid

106
Q

type of SYNTHETIC antimicrobial drugs: interfere with bacterial DNA gyrase; prevents DNA packaging

A

quinolones

107
Q

example of quinolone; NARROW spectrum (against gram-negative bacteria); cidal

A

ciprofloxacin

108
Q

example of quinolones =

A

ciprofloxacin

109
Q

antibiotics from bacteria re _____ products

A

natural

110
Q

ciprofloxacin has a ______ spectrum against what?

A

narrow; gram-negative (like UTI bacteria)

111
Q

ciprofloxacin is always ____ against cells

A

cidal (KILLS!)

112
Q

types of ANTIBIOTICS from bacteria (3):

A
  • macrolides
  • tetracyclines
  • lipid biosynthesis disruptor
113
Q

type of antibiotic from bacteria: targets the 50S ribosomal subunit

A

macrolides

114
Q

example of macrolides =

A

erythromycin

115
Q

example of macrolide; BROAD spectrum – attacks 50S subunit in a LOT of bacteria; static (only prevents growth)

A

erythromycin

116
Q

erythromycin has a ______ spectrum and is ______

A

broad; static

117
Q

semi-synthetic macrolide

A

azithromycin (Z-pack)

118
Q

type of antibiotic from bacteria; targets the 30S ribosomal subunit

A

tetracyclines

119
Q

tetracyclines have a ______ spectrum and are ______

A

broad; static

120
Q

type of antibiotic from bacteria; targets FATTY ACID biosynthesis

A

lipid biosynthesis disruptor

121
Q

example of lipid biosynthesis disruptor =

A

platensimycin

122
Q

platensimycin has a ______ spectrum and is _____

A

broad; static

123
Q

platensimycin is effective against what 2 very resistant bacteria?

A

MRS and VRE

124
Q

trend of antibiotics from bacteria: have a _____ spectrum and are ______ (at least the examples)

A

broad; static (only prevents growth)

125
Q

Beta-Lactam antibiotics from fungi (2):

A
  • penicillins
  • cephalosporins
126
Q

who discovered penicillin?

A

Alexander Fleming

127
Q

what do Beta-Lactam antibiotics target?

A

cell wall synthesis (prevent amino acids from linking up = transpeptidation)

128
Q

beta-lactam antibiotics are effective primarily against what type of bacterium?

A

gram-positive bacteria (bc gram-neg have outer membrane)

129
Q

beta-lactam antibiotics are _____ against actively growing cells

A

cidal

130
Q

beta-lactam antibiotics have a ______ ring

A

Beta-lactam

131
Q

have a different chemical group than normal penicillins; make it BROAD spectrum or less resistant to bacteria

A

semisynthetic penicillins

132
Q

types of semisynthetic penicillins (4):

A
  • methicillin
  • oxacillin
  • ampicillin
  • carbenicillin
133
Q

type of semisynthetic penicillins: TWO; acid-stable (so it can survive stomach acid and still be active after digestion); beta-lactamase RESISTANT

A

methicillin + oxacillin

134
Q

enzyme that some resistant bacteria can make to break the beta-lactam ring

A

beta-lacatamase

135
Q

type of semisynthetic penicillin: broadened spectrum of activity (especially against gram-negative bacteria); acid-stable; Betal-lacatamase SENSITIVE

A

ampicillin

136
Q

type of semisynthetic penicillin: broadened spectrum of activity (especially against Pseudomonas aeruginsoa); acid-stable but ineffective ORALLY; Betal-lacatamase SENSITIVE

A

carbenicillin

137
Q

you’re allergic to penicillin if you produce this PROTEIN; binds to penicillin and makes it into an antigen, causing an allergic rxn

A

Haptin

138
Q

natural penicillin =

A

penicillin G

139
Q

isoniazid is used to treat what?

A

TB

140
Q

the acquired ability of a microorganism to resist the effects of a chemotherapeutic agent to which it is normally sensitive

A

antimicrobial drug resistance

141
Q

T/F: synthetic and semi-synthetic antimicrobials can be drug resistant as well

A

true

142
Q

once resistance originates in a bacterial population, it can be _____ to other bacteria

A

transmitted

143
Q

T/F: resistance mechanisms are NOT confined to a single class of drugs; could be a whole class of drugs

A

true!

144
Q

erroneous practices ______ for the growth of resistant bacteria; makes problems worse (ex: take antibiotics for a virus-causing disease)

A

selects

145
Q

MRSA was transformed to _____

A

VRSA

146
Q

when scientists were trying to determine the “super bug,” they isolated a bacterium from a diabetes patient’s foot and realized it was _____

A

MRSA

147
Q

bacteria conjugated (type of horiz. gene transfer) _________________ to MRSA to become VRSA

A

vancomyosin-resistant interocoxide

148
Q

we can use vancomyosin-resistant interocoxide anymore to treat MRSA anymore so we have to use ______

A

plantosomyosin

149
Q

T/F: drug resistance always occurs very slowly

A

false (can be very quick)

150
Q

penicillin became resistant to ______ bc bacteria of this disease now produce a beta-lactamase enzyme (which breaks down penicillin)

A

gonorrhea

151
Q

T/F: it’s not the antimicrobial that causes the resistance – it SELECTS for those bacteria that are resistant and then they can go on and take over the population (SELECTIVE MECHANISM)

A

true

152
Q

resistance mechanisms (how bacteria make themselves resistant to antibiotics - 5):

A
  • reduced permeability
  • inactivation of antibiotics
  • alteration of target
  • development of resistant biochemical pathway
  • efflux (pumping out of cell)
153
Q

genetic basis of bacterial resistance that is very STABLE

A

chromosomal

154
Q

genetic basis of bacterial resistance that is not very stable but can easily be transformed to other bacteria

A

plasmid

155
Q

if an antimicrobial drug has a high selective toxicity, it means that it will:
a) cause noticeable side effects in the host
b) be bacteriocidal
c) be more active against the pathogen than the host tissues
d) have a narrow spectrum of activity

A

c) be more active against the pathogen than the host tissues

156
Q

mechanisms of bacterial resistance (6):

A

1) target modification
2) preventing entrance
3) inactivation (of antibiotics)
4) efflux pumps
5) alternate pathway
6) impermeability

157
Q

mechanism of bacterial resistance: changes target of drug/antibiotic (ex: mutation ot ribosome; antimicrobial can no longer find it); get a LOT of resistance from this; can be a small mutation (spontaneous usually)

A

target modification

158
Q

target modification usually results from what?

A

small spontaneous mutation

159
Q

mechanism of bacterial resistance: produce an antibiotic degrading enzyme; can never come into the cell; EXOENZYME (outside of the cell)

A

preventing entrance

160
Q

preventing entrance mechanism of bacterial resistance involves what kind of enzyme?

A

exoenzyme

161
Q

mechanism of bacterial resistance: antimicrobial gets INSIDE the cell, but then enzymes inside inactivate it

A

inactivation

162
Q

mechanism of bacterial resistance: revolving door; pumps antimicrobials back outside

A

efflux pumps

163
Q

mechanism of bacterial resistance: antimicrobials can’t get in (ex: outer membrane or peptidoglycan layer doesn’t let it thru)

A

impermeability

164
Q

ORIGINS of drug resistance (3):

A
  • natural immunity genes
  • spontaneous mutations
  • location of resistance genes
165
Q

origin of drug resistance: resistance to certain antibiotics so it won’t kill them

A

natural immunity genes

166
Q

origin of drug resistance: MOST of resistance

A

spontaneous mutations

167
Q

3 locations of resistance genes:

A
  • chromosome
  • plasmids (R factors)
  • mobile genetic elements such as TRANSPOSONS
168
Q

location of resistance genes: via horizontal gene transfer; more stable bc plasmids can be lost

A

chromosome

169
Q

location of resistance genes: can carry more than one resistance; can be lost

A

plasmids (R factors)

170
Q

why are plasmids called “R factors”?

A

R for resistance

171
Q

location of resistance genes: copy genes; gene hops from one chromosome to another

A

mobile genetic elements such as transposons

172
Q

copy genes =

A

transposons

173
Q

made by bacteria and fungi to kill other bacteria and fungi

A

antibiotics

174
Q

why would bacteria want to kill other bacteria?

A

to steal it’s food + outcompete it; great advantage for survival (some even take their DNA)

175
Q

transmission of drug resistance is thru what process?

A

horizontal gene transfer

176
Q

types of drug resistance TRANSMISSION (horiz. gene transfer - 3):

A
  • transformation
  • conjugation
  • transduction
177
Q

T/F: resistance comes from using antimicrobials

A

false (comes from us “selecting” these bacteria that are resistant to drugs)

178
Q

Suppose you have been suffering from a terrible cold for 10 days and it’s getting worse. What would the doctor say to assure you that you have found a Dr. who is concerned about antibiotic resistance?

A

“I will call you tomorrow, after I have looked at the bacterial culture results.”

179
Q

type of horizontal gene transfer/transmission: transfer of free DNA; occurs when a cell dies and another cell takes up their DNA; comes thru cell wall + membrane; “competent cells” do this

A

transformation

180
Q

cells able to take up “naked” DNA up from their environment

A

competent cells

181
Q

type of horizontal gene transfer/transmission: plasmid transfer; use a pilus to send a plasmid over to another cell; pilus can also carry resistance genes as well

A

conjugation

182
Q

type of horizontal gene transfer/transmission: transfer by viral delivery; occurs via a bacteriophage (virus that infects bacteria); mistake for virus – injects resistance bacterial genes instead of viral DNA; gene has to be transferred thru plasmid or chromosomes

A

transduction

183
Q

virus that infects bacteria

A

bacteriophage

184
Q

sources of antibiotic resistance (5):

A
  • inappropriate prescribing practices
  • unregulated sale of antibiotics
  • failure to complete courses of antibiotics
  • use of suboptimal antibiotic dosages
  • use of antibiotics as animal growth enhancers
185
Q

source of antibiotic resistance: can get antibiotics online

A

unregulated sale of antibiotics

186
Q

source of antibiotic resistance: mutant survivors begin to multiply and propagate bc you didn’t kill them ALL

A

failure to complete courses of antibiotics + suboptimal antibiotic dose

187
Q

source of antibiotic resistance: most times when you first get sick, it’s a viral infection; ppl take antibiotics for viral infections and don’t take them long enough

A

inappropriate prescribing practices

188
Q

____% of sinus infections start as viral

A

98%

189
Q

source of antibiotic resistance: giving livestock antibiotics “proactively” to prevent them from getting sick; causes them to get bigger; started to give them antibiotics all the time; resistant bacteria get into the environment when handling raw meat and contaminating veggies (no illegal to treat them proactively)

A

use of antibiotics as animal growth enhancers

190
Q

___ out of 1 or 2 million sources of antibiotic resistance will be a spontaneous mutant

A

1

191
Q

preventing emergence of drug resistance: give drug in ______ concentrations to destroy susceptible; takes away wall of protection and gets rid of mutants

A

high

192
Q

preventing emergence of drug resistance: use antimicrobials only when ________; make sure it’s not viral

A

necessary

193
Q

preventing emergence of drug resistance: take full ______ of antimicrobial; not taking suboptimal dose

A

course

194
Q

preventing emergence of drug resistance: use ____ spectrum antimicrobials; doesn’t occur as often bc Dr’s don’t culture it; prevents natural flora from becoming resistant to drugs

A

narrow

195
Q

preventing emergence of drug resistance: give a _____ of unrelated drugs (controversal)

A

combination

196
Q

possible future solutions to preventing drug resistance (2):

A

1) continued development of new antimicrobials
2) use of BACTERIOPHAGES to treat bacterial disease (attacks bacterial cells, not human cells)

Microbio (21 decks)

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