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Microbio > Microbial Growth (#4) > Flashcards

Microbial Growth (#4) Flashcards

1
Q

often refers to an increase in the # of cells

A

growth

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2
Q

microbiologists usually study _______ growth rather than growth of individual cells

A

population

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3
Q

process of two cells arising from one

A

binary fission

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4
Q

microorganisms (like bacteria) use _____ ______ to “grow”/reproduce unlike eukarya who use ______

A

binary fission; mitosis

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5
Q

steps of binary fission (4):

A

1) cell elongation
2) genome is replicated and segregated
3) cell division
4) increase in cell #

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6
Q

step of binary fission: cellular constituents increase proportionally; gets bigger so each cell is equal in size

A

cell elongation

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7
Q

step of binary fission: septum is formed at midcell; purposely patching holes in cell wall + bits of peptidoglycan (in penicillin is there, amino acids CANT link)

A

cell division

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8
Q

one cell —> two cells = _____ ______

A

one generation

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9
Q

pinching in of cell membrane and wall

A

septum

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10
Q

extra pieces of DNA; not under replication of chromosome (not equally divided in binary fission)

A

plasmids

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11
Q

plasmids have _______ division unless they are incorporated permanently on the chromosomes

A

unequal

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12
Q

when the septum begins to grow, where do the chromosomes move to?

A

opposite ends of the cell (to the membrane)

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13
Q

some species separate completely, while others….

A

remain attached forming chains, doublets, or other cellular arrangments

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14
Q

if penicillin is present during binary fission, _____ _____ CANT link and cells aren’t able to patch holes in their cell wall properly

A

amino acids

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15
Q

time required for the population to double in number of cells

A

generation (doubling time)

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16
Q

generation time = ______ time

A

doubling time

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17
Q

generation time varies depending on what 2 things?

A
  • the species
  • environmental conditions
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18
Q

cell number doubles within a FIXED period of time; doesn’t last forever; maximal rate of division

A

exponential growth

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19
Q

generation (doubling) time is _______ growth

A

exponential

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20
Q

exponential growth shows a ______ line

A

straight

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21
Q

exponential growth tells you where the _______ cells are

A

healthiest

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22
Q

doubling time (best case scenarior) for E. coli =

A

20 minutes

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23
Q

calculating generation time: n =

A

number of generations for t

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24
Q

formula for n:

A

n = 3.3(logNt - logNo)

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25
Q

Nt =

A

final cell #

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26
Q

No =

A

initial cell #

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27
Q

how do you calculate generation time?

A

1) find n using equation
2) find g using t/n

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28
Q

g =

A

generation time

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29
Q

formula for g:

A

g = t/n

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30
Q

In aerobic respiration (for one molecule of glucose), how many ATPs can be made in the Kreb’s cycle (including the bridge step) via the oxidation of NADH?

A

24

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31
Q

there is a lot of _____ in generation time

A

diversity

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32
Q

as cells get LARGER, the generation time ______

A

increases (takes longer to double)

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33
Q

observed when microorganisms are cultivated in batch culture

A

growth curve (microbial growth cycle)

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34
Q

culture incubated in a CLOSED vessel with a single batch of medium; not continuously feeding them

A

batch culture

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35
Q

for the Growth Curve, you are looking at a ______ of cells in a batch culture, not a singular cell

A

population

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36
Q

how is the Growth Curve (microbial growth cycle) usually plotted?

A

logarithm of cell number vs. time

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37
Q

4 distinct phase of microbial Growth Curve:

A
  • lag
  • exponential (log)
  • stationary
  • death
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38
Q

T/F: the lag phase is always flat

A

False; might be a gradual incline

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39
Q

steepest slope on growth curve (maximal rate) =

A

exponential phase

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40
Q

phase can be exponential too but happens slower than exponential phase (less steep)

A

death phase

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41
Q

phase of growth curve: cells synthesizing new compounds to replenish spent materials and to adapt to new medium or other conditions (ex: use a new carbon source, produce new enzymes)

A

lag phase

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42
Q

lag phase varies in ______; in some cases, can be very short or even ABSENT

A

length

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43
Q

why might a lag phase be absent?

A

cells were already growing or are already used to the medium

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44
Q

exponential phase is also called the _____ phase

A

log phase

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45
Q

in the exponential phase, rate of growth is _____ and _______

A

constant and maximal

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46
Q

phase of growth curve: population is most uniform in terms of chemical and physical properties; most are same age

A

exponential phase

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47
Q

cells in which part of which phase are considered the healthiest?

A

mid-exponential

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48
Q

phase of growth curve: total number of viable cells remains CONSTANT

A

stationary phase

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49
Q

why is the total number of viable cells constant for stationary phase (2 reasons)?

A
  • metabolically active cells STOP reproducing
  • reproductive rate is balanced by death rate
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50
Q

possible reasons for stationary phase (4):

A
  • nutrient limitation *
  • limited oxygen availability
  • toxic waste accumulation
  • critical population density reached (no room)
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51
Q

critical population density limit is usually _____ cells

A

10^9 cells

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52
Q

important to note that the growth curve phases look at what the ______ of cells are doing — NOT all cells

A

majority

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53
Q

starvation responses (2):

A

1) morphological changes
2) persister cells

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54
Q

what morphological changes can cells do in response to starvation?

A
  • endospore formation
  • decrease in size
  • production of starvation proteins
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55
Q

morphological change (starvation response): do this IF they can; triggered by nutrient limitation mostly

A

endospore formation

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56
Q

morphological change (starvation response): get skinnier; may see inclusion disappear

A

decrease in size

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57
Q

what 3 functions do starvation proteins do?

A
  • increase cross-linking in cell wall
  • protects DNA (Dps protein)
  • prevent protein damage / being denatured (chaperone protein)
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58
Q

types of starvation proteins (2):

A
  • Dps protein
  • chaperone protein
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59
Q

type of starvation protein: protects DNA

A

Dps protein

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60
Q

type of starvation protein: prevent protein damage/being denatured

A

chaperone protein

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61
Q

production of starvation proteins may continue into the _____ phase

A

death

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62
Q

type of starvation response: long-term survival being starved; have increased virulence; sticky, shriveled up, unhealthy cells; almost like a dormant state bc they slow down but are STILL metabolically active

A

persister cells

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63
Q

persister cells are the “_____ and _____ cells”

A

mean and nasty cells

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64
Q

persister cells’ ________ aids in their virulence

A

stickiness

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65
Q

persister cells are not as strong as _______ but they do persist

A

endospores

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66
Q

phase of growth curve: total number of viable cells decreasing

A

death phase

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67
Q

what is occurring during death phase (2)?

A
  • removal of critical nutrients below a threshold level
  • metabolic end-product reaches toxic level
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68
Q

you might get a slight increase in the cells in the death phase due to _____ ______

A

persister cells

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69
Q

how do you know if cells are for sure dead (2)?

A
  • irreversible loss of ability to REPRODUCE
  • cells may lyse
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70
Q

2 types of measurements of cell numbers:

A
  • direct
  • indirect
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71
Q

type of measurement of cell #: total cell counts; count the number of cells that are observed in the medium

A

direct

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72
Q

type of measurement of cell #: gives you a rough estimate of cell numbers; must perform other experiments to get an actual number

A

indirect

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73
Q

methods of DIRECT cell counts (5):

A
  • counting chamber
  • electronic counter
  • viable cell counts
  • plating techniques
  • membrane filter
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74
Q

method of direct cell count: grid put on microscope

A

counting chamber

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75
Q

method of direct cell count: put bacteria through a tiny tube with electric current; counts a cell every time current is blocked

A

electronic ocunter

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76
Q

method of direct cell count: count the number of CFU’s (colony-forming unit)

A

viable cell counts

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77
Q

method of direct cell count: counting colonies

A

plating techniques

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78
Q

types of indirect cell counts (2):

A
  • dry weight
  • turbidity
79
Q

the Petroff-Hausser Counting Chamber is like a ________ where you count WBCs

A

hemocytometer

80
Q

problem with Petroff-Hausser Counting Chamber:

A

unless you’re using a specialized staining kit, you can’t tell the difference between dead and live bacteria (if they don’t lyse, you could be counting dead cells)

81
Q

T/F: with plating methods/techniques, you cannot count dead cells; it’s a VIABLE cell count

A

true

82
Q

plating method steps (3):

A

1) plate dilutions of population on suitable solid medium
2) count # of colonies
3) calculate # of cells in original population

83
Q

population sizes in plating methods are expressed as _____ per _____

A

CFU/mL

84
Q

countable plate = ______ - ______ colonies

A

30 - 300

85
Q

to calculate the number of cells in the original population, you count the # of colonies on a countable plate and then multiply by what?

A

reciprocal of the dilution

86
Q

with the Spread-plate method, colonies are found where?

A

on the surface

87
Q

with the Pour-plate method, colonies are found where?

A

on surface + subsurface (below)

88
Q

type of direct cell count: used for water testing; make dilute water samples into concentrated samples of bacteria

A

membrane filter

89
Q

turbidity is also known as:

A

optical density

90
Q

type of indirect cell count: use a spectrophotometer

A

turbidity

91
Q

problems with plating methods (2):

A
  • counting/plating erros
  • culture medium might not be perfect for bacteria and give inaccurate results of counts
92
Q

in turbidity, more cells = more absorbed (________) light = less transmitted (________) light detected

A

scattered; unscattered

93
Q

to relate a direct cell count to a turbidity value, what first must be established?

A

a standard curve

94
Q

turbidity: more cells = ______ absorbance

A

higher

95
Q

color of light where bacteria absorb the most light; what we used on spectrophotometer

A

green light

96
Q

wavelength range of green light:

A

540-600 nm

97
Q

problems with using turbidity (2):

A
  • doesn’t give an actual # of cells (have to do other experiments like viable cell count + a standard curve)
  • dead bodies ALSO absorb light; could you a potential overestimate
98
Q

since dead bodies also absorb light, you could potentially get an ________ of cell count for turbidity

A

OVERESTIMATE

99
Q

what 4 environmental factors affect microbial growth?

A
  • temperature
  • pH
  • water availability (osmolarity)
  • oxygen
100
Q

can microbes regulate their internal temperature?

A

no

101
Q

microbes exhibit distinct ______ ________ temperatures

A

cardinal growth

102
Q

3 cardinal growth temperatures:

A
  • minimum
  • maximum
  • optimum
103
Q

cardinal growth temp: membrane is so cold that it is gelling; transport processes are SLOW; if you go below this temp, growth STOPS

A

minimum temp

104
Q

cardinal growth temp: protein/enzyme start to denature; growth rate DROPS; collapse of the cytoplasmic membrane; lots of cell lyse; above this temp, growth stops

A

maximum temp

105
Q

cardinal growth temp: best temp for growth; enzymatic reactions occurring at maximal possible rate

A

optimum temp

106
Q

temperature classes of microbes (4):

A
  • psychrophile
  • mesophile
  • thermophile
  • hyperthermophile
107
Q

optimum temp for psychrophile =

A

4 degrees C (temperature of your fridge!!)

108
Q

RANGE of cardinal temperatures for most bacteria:

A

25 - 40 degrees

109
Q

hyperthermophiles have a ______ range (especially compared to mesophiles)

A

narrower

110
Q

what temperature class are MOST bacteria?

A

mesophiles

111
Q

optimum temperature (range) for psychorophiles:

A

< 15°C

112
Q

optimum temperature (range) for psychrotolerant microbes:

A

20-40°C (AND able to grow at 0°C**)

113
Q

optimum temperature (range) for mesophiles:

A

20-40°C (includes room temp (20°C) and body temp (30°C))

114
Q

optimum temperature (range) for thermophiles:

A

45-80°C

115
Q

optimum temperature (range) for hyperthermophiles:

A

> 80°C

116
Q

which temperature class includes room temp (20°C) + body temp (30°C) in its optimum temperature range?

A

mesophiles

117
Q

temperature class of microbes: grow in really cold temperatures; found in the depth of the ocean

A

psychrophiles

118
Q

temperature class of microbes: mesophiles but can tolerate growing at 0°C

A

psychrotolerant

119
Q

temperature class of microbes: most microbes

A

mesophiles

120
Q

temperature class of microbes: found in warm water and hot springs

A

thermophiles

121
Q

temperature class of microbes: grow in BOILING hot springs and volcanic vents; a lot of the time are ARCHEONS

A

hyperthermophiles

122
Q

which two temperature classes can grow in your fridge (4 degrees C)?

A

psychrophiles and psychrotolerant

123
Q

T/F: optimum temp ranges of microbes can match

A

True (look at psychrotolerant and mesophiles – they overlap)

124
Q

anything that can survive above 65°C is a ________

A

prokaryote

125
Q

average temp of ocean =

A

5°C

126
Q

which temp classes can live in the ocean?

A

psychrophiles and psychrotolerant

127
Q

adaptation for COLD environments (2):

A
  • more flexible enzymes
  • modified cytoplasmic membranes
128
Q

how are cytoplasmic membranes modified in COLD environments to become more flexible for growth?

A

have high UNSATURATED fatty acid content

129
Q

adaptations for HOT environments (2):

A
  • thermally stable enzymes
  • modified cytoplasmic membranes
130
Q

how are cytoplasmic membranes modified in HOT environments to become more flexible for growth?

A

have high SATURATED fatty acid content (more stability so they’re not falling apart)

131
Q

thermally stable enzymes have _____ bonds so they’re not denatured so easily in heat

A

ionic bonds

132
Q

thermally stable enzyme; used in PCR; comes from a thermophylic bacteria

A

Taq polymerase

133
Q

pH classes of microbes (3):

A
  • acidophiles
  • neutrophiles
  • alkaliphiles
134
Q

optimum pH range for acidophiles:

A

0 - 5.5

135
Q

optimum pH range for neutrophiles:

A

5.5 - 8

136
Q

optimum pH range for alkaliphiles:

A

> or equal to 8

137
Q

most microbes are which pH class?

A

neutrophiles

138
Q

most neutrophiles are found between ____ and ____ pH but prefer ____

A

3 - 9
prefer 7

139
Q

cytoplasm is kept at a pH of ___

A

7

140
Q

pH scale is a ____-fold change between each unit

A

10-fold

141
Q

some microbes like extreme pH’s (like archeons) but they are _____

A

rare

142
Q

pH of seawater =

A

8 (alkaline)

143
Q

T/F: most microbes maintain an internal pH near neutrality

A

true

144
Q

respones to pH (3):

A
  • acid shock proteins
  • use of sodium motive force (instead of PMF)
  • some microbes buffer the pH of their habitat by producing acidic or basic waste products
145
Q

type of response to pH: produced when exposed to acid in their environment; use protein to negate it; FIX enzymes beginning to denature from acid

A

acid shock proteins

146
Q

pH range of microbes is usually between ____ units

A

2 units

147
Q

bacteria that can survive in stomach acid; uses flagella to burrow into the stomach and cause ulcers; breaks down urease into ammonia and uses it as a buffer

A

Helicobacter pylori

148
Q

amount of water available to organisms

A

water activity (aw)

149
Q

water activity values range from ___ to ____

A

0 to 1

150
Q

water associated with solutes is ______ to microorganisms (<1)

A

solutes

151
Q

higher solute concentration = ______ water activity

A

LOWER

152
Q

adaptation to HYPOtonic solution:

A

use mechanosenstive (MS) channels in membrane to allow solutes to leave

153
Q

when cells uses mechanosensative (MS) channels, _____ water comes into the cell

A

LESS

154
Q

release solutes (NOT water) to make environment more hypertonic so less water comes in

A

MS channels

155
Q

adaptation to HYPERtonic solutions:

A

increase internal solute concentration with compatible solutes

156
Q

when cells use compatible solutes, _____ water comes into the cell

A

MORE

157
Q

cells hoard _____ _____ in hypertonic environments to balance the concentration gradient

A

compatible solutes

158
Q

where cells wanna live; bring water INTO the cell; gives them turgid pressure

A

hypotonic environments

159
Q

gram-______ can tolerate a lot lower water activity than gram-_____

A

POS
neg.

159
Q

gram-______ can tolerate a lot lower water activity than gram-_____

A

POS
neg.

160
Q

classes of NaCL (salt) microbes (4):

A
  • nonhalophile
  • halotolerant
  • halophiles
  • extreme halophiles
161
Q

class of NaCl (salt) microbe: does NOT require NaCL; can grow if environment is <1% of NaCL

A

nonhalophile

162
Q

halotolerant microbes include _____ ______ and _________ bacteria

A

staph aureus and gram-POS

163
Q

class of NaCl (salt) microbe: doesnt love NaCL but can tolerate it

A

halotolerant

164
Q

class of NaCl (salt) microbe: requires NaCL for growth; grow optimally at 1-15% NaCl

A

halophiles

165
Q

class of NaCl (salt) microbe: require 15-30% NaCl

A

extreme halophiles

166
Q

NaCl range for nonhalophile growth:

A

<1%

167
Q

NaCl range for halophile growth:

A

1 - 15%

168
Q

NaCl range for extreme halophile growth:

A

15 - 30%

169
Q

example of extreme halophile; archeon that makes a pink pigment; contributes to pink color of the dead sea

A

Halobacterium salinarum

170
Q

classes of oxygen microbes:

A
  • aerobe
  • obligate (strict) aerobe
  • anaerobe
  • obligate (strict) anaerobe
  • microaerophile
  • facultative aerobe/anaerobe
  • aerotolerant anaerobe
171
Q

class of oxygen microbe: grows in presence of atmospheric oxygen, which is 21% O2

A

aerobe

172
Q

class of oxygen microbe: requires oxygen

A

obligate aerobe

173
Q

class of oxygen microbe: grows in the absence of oxygen

A

anaerobe

174
Q

class of oxygen microbe: usually KILLED in presence of oxygen

A

obligate (strict) anaerobe

175
Q

class of oxygen microbe: requires 2-10% oxygen; lives down in water columns

A

microaerophile

176
Q

atmospheric oxygen = _____% oxygen

A

21% oxygen

177
Q

narrow range of % oxygen that microaerophiles require to grow

A

2-10% oxygen

178
Q

class of oxygen microbe: does not require oxygen, but grows BETTER in its presence; if there is O2, it will use it for aerobic respiration

A

facultative aerobe/anaerobe

179
Q

class of oxygen microbe: grows with or without oxygen; does not affect growth

A

aerotolerant anaerobe

180
Q

type of metabolism obligate aerobes use:

A

aerobic respiration

181
Q

type of metabolism facultative aerobes use:

A

aerobic or anaerobic respiration + fermentation

182
Q

type of metabolism microaerophilic microbes use:

A

aerobic respiration

183
Q

type of metabolism aerotolerant microbes use:

A

fermentation **

184
Q

type of metabolism obligate anaerobes use:

A

fermentation or anaerobic respiration

185
Q

oxic zone is found at the _____ of the tube and the anoxic zone is found at the _____ of the tube

A

top; bottom (majority of tube)

186
Q

oxygen is easily reduced to ______ reactive oxygen species (ROS)

A

toxic

187
Q

toxic reactive oxygen species (ROS) are ____ ______

A

free radicals

188
Q

types of toxic reactive oxygen species (ROS - 3):

A
  • O2⁻
  • H2O2
  • OH*
189
Q

ROS =

A

reactive oxygen species

190
Q

protective enzymes from ROS (3):

A
  • superoxide dismutase
  • catalase
  • peroxidase
191
Q

most dangerous ROS =

A

OH* (hydroxyl radical)

192
Q

superoxide dismutase, catalase, and peroxidase transform ROS into _____

A

oxygen

193
Q

the ocean has a an average pH of 8.3, an average salt concentration of 3%, and an average temperature of 5 degrees Celcius. If a bacterium lives in these conditions, it could be described as an:

A

Microbio (21 decks)

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