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Microbio > Microbiology of Food (#3) > Flashcards

Microbiology of Food (#3) Flashcards

1
Q

any change in appearance, smell, or taste of a food that makes it unpalatable to the consumer; MAY be safe to eat

A

food spoilage

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2
Q

T/F: food has to have HIGH levels of pathogens to get sick from spoiled food

A

true

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3
Q

2 types of factors that cause susceptibility to microbial spoilage:

A
  • intrinsic factors
  • extrinsic factors
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4
Q

type of susceptibility to microbial spoilage: food composition (chemical) + structure (physical); the food itself!

A

intrinsic factors

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5
Q

type of susceptibility to microbial spoilage: environmental; what you do to the food; easier to control

A

extrinsic factors

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6
Q

which is easier to control – intrinsic or extrinsic factors of susceptibility to microbial spoilage?

A

extrinsic (u control the environment!)

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7
Q

categories of food spoilage (3):

A
  • perishable
  • semi-perishable
  • nonperishable
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8
Q

category of food spoilage: meat

A

perishable

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9
Q

category of food spoilage: fruit and nuts

A

semi-perishable

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10
Q

category of food spoilage: pantry foods (flour, surgar)

A

nonperishable

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11
Q

the categories of food and their spoilage all have to do with their ____ composition

A

water

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12
Q

the more water in a food, the more _______ it is

A

perishable

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13
Q

types of food compositions (2):

A
  • carbohydrates
  • proteins or fats
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14
Q

food composition: mold predominates; degrades food by hydrolysis; little odor; ERGOTISM

A

carbohydrates

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15
Q

disease caused by Claviceps purpurea toxin; produces a HALLUCINOGENIC alkaloid that causes involuntary muscle contractions + hallucinations; grows in wet rain; problem in CARBS

A

ergotism

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16
Q

food composition: bacterial growth predominates; putrefaction occurs

A

proteins or fats

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17
Q

anaerobic breakdown of proteins; foul-smelling amine compounds

A

putrefaction

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18
Q

_______ occurs in the spoilage of carbohydrates and _____ occurs in the spoilage of proteins or fats

A

ergotism; putrefaction

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19
Q

intrinsic factors (food spoilage - 5):

A
  • pH
  • presence and availability of water
  • redox potential (oxidation-reduction)
  • physical structure
  • antimicrobial substances
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20
Q

LOW pH favors ____ and ____ (ex: vinegar, pickles)

A

yeast + mold

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21
Q

in general, _____ water activity inhibits microbial growth

A

lower

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22
Q

lower redox (less oxygen) favors growth of _________ bacteria; releases oxygen

A

anaerobic

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23
Q

intrinsic factor: grinding and mixing promotes microbial growth (ex: ground beef)

A

physical structure

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24
Q

intrinsic factor: coumarins, lysozyme, allicin, etc.

A

antimicrobial structures

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25
Q

allicin, an antimicrobial, is found in _____

A

garlic

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26
Q

extrinsic factors (of food spoilage - 3):

A
  • temperature
  • relative humidity
  • atmosphere
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27
Q

lower temperatures ____ microbial growth

A

retard

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28
Q

_____ levels of relative humidity promotes microbial growth

A

higher

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29
Q

extrinsic factor: oxygen promotes growth; modified atmospheric packaging (MAP)

A

atmosphere

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30
Q

in the atmosphere, _______ promotes growth

A

oxygen

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31
Q

use of shrink wrap and vacuum technologies to package food in controlled atmospheres

A

modified atmosphere packaging (MAP)

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32
Q

MAP =

A

modified atmosphere packaging

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33
Q

when you use shrink wrap (form of MAP), you can increase the shelf life by ___-___ times since it is impermeable to oxygen

A

2-3x

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34
Q

food preservation methods (3):

A
  • removal of microbes
  • low temp.
  • high temp.
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35
Q

to preserve foods, you can remove microbes through ______

A

filtration

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36
Q

to preserve foods, you can refrigerate them at ≤ ____°C degrees and freeze at ≤ _____°C

A

≤ 5 °C
≤ -18°C

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37
Q

your fridge should be preferably at ____ °C

A

4

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38
Q

your freezer should be preferably at _____ °C

A

-20°C

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39
Q

high temp. food preservation methods include (3)…

A
  • cooking and holding at high temp.
  • canning
  • pasteurization
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40
Q

DANGER ZONE temperature for microbes:

A

5 - 60°C

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41
Q

you can leave food out for ____ hours max

A

2

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42
Q

pasteurization does not kill endospores until it reaches what temperatures?

A

5 - 60°C (danger zone)

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43
Q

60°C = _____°F

A

140°F

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44
Q

you are ____ times more likely to get struck by lightning than to get botulism that was COMMERCIALLY done

A

100x

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45
Q

during canning, food is heated to what temp and for how long?

A

115°C for 25-100 minutes

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46
Q

canning kills ______ microbes

A

spoilage

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47
Q

T/F: spoilage of commercially canned foods is common

A

false (very rare)

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48
Q

endospores don’t like ______ so you don’t have to worry about botulism in fruit

A

acid

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49
Q

at what pH ensures that botulism won’t occur in cans?

A

< 4.6

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50
Q

you need a ______ canner for high pH foods

A

pressure

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51
Q

gas production in can; DEADLY; caused by endospores in an anoxic environment; swollen cans

A

botulism

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52
Q

1 teaspoon of botulism endospores can kill ______ ppl

A

10,000

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53
Q

method of high temp. food preservation; kills pathogens and substantially reduces number of spoilage organisms

A

pasteurization

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54
Q

T/F: different pasteurization procedures heat for different lengths of time

A

true

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55
Q

regarding pasteurization, SHORTER heating times result in improved _______ (have to increase temp then)

A

flavor

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56
Q

different modes of pasteurization (3):

A
  • LTH (low temp holding)
  • HTST (high temp short time)
  • UHT (ultrahigh-temp processing)
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57
Q

mode of pasteurization: 63°C for 30 min

A

low temp holding (LTH)

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58
Q

mode of pasteurization: 72°C for 15 seconds, then rapid cooling

A

high temp short time (HTST)

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59
Q

mode of pasteurization: 138°C for 2 seconds - 20 min

A

ultrahigh-temperature processing (UHT)

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60
Q

which mode of pasteurization STERILIZES the food?

A

UHT (ultrahigh temp processing)

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61
Q

sterilization temp = greater than _____°C

A

> 135°C

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62
Q

suppose you are cleaning out your fridge and find a container of meat-loaf that you made last month. Upon opening the container, you smell a putrid odor and the meat appears to be slimy. Would you get sick if you eat the meat-loaf?

A

maybe – spoilage microorganisms are present which indicates that pathogens MAY be present (or have previously grown in the food)

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63
Q

water activity tolerated by most spoilage bacteria =

A

0.9

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64
Q

chemical agents “generally recognized as safe;” tested by FDA; could save a lot of financial loss; use acids as a method to protect food

A

GRAS

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65
Q

GRAS are a _____-based preservation

A

chemical

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66
Q

GRAS use _____ as a method to protect food

A

acids

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67
Q

GRAS =

A

generally recognized as safe

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68
Q

type of GRAS; could be mutagens and cause damage in DNA of food (not you)

A

propionic acid/oxides

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69
Q

type of GRAS that some ppl are sensitive to

A

parabens

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70
Q

type of GRAS that is a carcinogenic precursor; could be bad if there’s a lot in food

A

nitrite (as in sodium nitrite)

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71
Q

use of ionizing radiation (gamma radiation) to extend shelf life of foods; excellent penetrating power; can be used to sterilize SOME foods

A

radappertization

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72
Q

radappertization uses Cobalt-60 as a source for what process?

A

cold sterilization (doesn’t cook it)

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73
Q

radappertization (and the use of Cobalt-60 for cold sterilization) is approved by WHO for which food?

A

ground beef

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74
Q

symbol that means food was radiated; not seen in stores; only in food for lab animals right now

A

red dura symbol

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75
Q

____ in ____ ppl will get a food borne illness each year

A

1 in 6

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76
Q

about ____ ______ cases of foodborne disease occur every year in the US

A

48 million

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77
Q

____% of foodborne illnesses are attributed to known pathogens

A

18%

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78
Q

at least ______ deaths occur to to foodborne diseases (usually susceptible ppl)

A

3,000

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79
Q

types of transmission
of FOODBORNE DISEASE (3):

A
  • breakdown in hygiene
  • fecal-oral route
  • fomites
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80
Q

type of transmission of foodborne disease: most foodborne pathogens are from HERE

A

fecal-oral route (FECES!)

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81
Q

type of transmission of foodborne disease: inanimate object that spreads disease; food is considered this (other ex: blanket, water, door knob)

A

fomites

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82
Q

2 types of foodborne illnesses:

A
  • food intoxication (poisoning)
  • food infection
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83
Q

type of foodborne illness: ingestion of preformed microbial toxins in foods; toxins make you sick, not microbes; growth of the pathogen host is NOT required

A

food intoxication (poisoning)

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84
Q

type of foodborne illness: results from the ingestion of pathogens in food; ingestion followed by colonization and growth in host

A

food infection

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85
Q

T/F: if you your reheat food and kill the microbes, you can still get sick from toxins

A

true

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86
Q

the onset of illness from food intoxication is usually pretty _____

A

rapid (basically just ate poison)

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87
Q

T/F: pathogens may produce toxins IN the host

A

true

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88
Q

when pathogens produce toxins in the host, they are ______-mediated infections but _____ microbes have to be there

A

toxin-mediated; live

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89
Q

when pathogens produce toxins in the host, it is a _____ infection dose level, where a ____ concentration level is needed to make you sick + outcompete microflora

A

high; high

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90
Q

________ cause most foodborne illnesss, NOT ______

A

viruses; NOT bacteria

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91
Q

recovery from viral foodborne illnesses is usually ____

A

rapid

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92
Q

5 top causes of foodborne illnesses IN ORDER:

A

1: norwalk-like viruses

#2: Salmonella spp.
#3: Clostridium perfringens
#4: Campylobacter jejuni
#5: Staphylococcus aureus

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93
Q

s. aureus has a really _____ incubation period

A

short (1-8 hrs)

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94
Q

Salmonella enterica has a really _____ incubation period

A

long (10-14 days)

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95
Q

common skin bacteria

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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96
Q

what kind of foodborne ilness does Staphylococcus aureus cause?

A

food intoxication (poisoning)

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97
Q

is Staphylococcus aureus gram-positive or negative?

A

gram-POS

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98
Q

what kind of oxygen level classification is Staphylococcus aureus?

A

facultative aerobe

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99
Q

Staphylococcus aureus can thrive in ____ salt and ____ water activity levels.

A

high salt; low water activity

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100
Q

sources of Staphylococcus aureus (3):

A
  • human nasal cavity
  • skin
  • skin sores
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101
Q

what kind of toxins do Staphylococcus aureus produce?

A

enterotoxin (intestinal toxin)

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102
Q

what does enterotoxin mean?

A

intestinal toxin

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103
Q

what type of toxin is an enterotoxin?

A

exotoxin

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104
Q

bacteria produce this type of toxin and then RELEASE it into their environment; “super antigen;” activates a STRONGER immune response (violent symptoms) than a normal antigen; don’t even need T cells

A

exotoxins

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105
Q

toxin that is part of the bacteria; never release it until they die

A

endotoxin

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106
Q

enterotoxins made by Staphylococcus aureus are _____ _______ and resistant to what 2 things?

A

heat stable
- digestive protease
- stomach acid

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107
Q

how long does it take Staphylococcus aureus to produce enterotoxins in the danger zone?

A

2-4 hours

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108
Q

what kind of foods does Staphylococcus aureus grow in?

A

high-salt foods

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109
Q

there are around ________ staphylococcal food intoxication cases per year in the US

A

185,000

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110
Q

if you heat foods contaminated by Staphylococcus aureus, can you still get sick?

A

yes! (toxins are heat stable)

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111
Q

is Staphylococcus aureus considered a fecal-contaminate?

A

no (more skin)

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112
Q

food contaminated by Staphylococcus aureus occurs usually during food _______

A

preparation

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113
Q

contaminated foods by Staphylococcus aureus are kept for several hours in the _______

A

danger-zone

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114
Q

symptoms of Staphylococcal Food Intoxication (3):

A
  • EXPLOSIVE vomiting
  • diarrhea
  • subnormal body temp (usually no fever)
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115
Q

onset of Staphylococcal food intoxication is ______

A

rapid

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116
Q

onset of Staphylococcal food intoxication =

A

1-8 hours (bc u ate poison, violent response)

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117
Q

duration of Staphylococcal food intoxication =

A

1-2 days (quick recovery)

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118
Q

food infection results from the ingestion of ______ _____, while food intoxication results from the ingestion of ______ ______.

A

foodborne pathogens; microbial toxins

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119
Q

is Clostridium botulinum gram-positive or negative?

A

gram-POS

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120
Q

does Clostridium botulinum form spores?

A

yes

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121
Q

what kind of oxygen level classification is Clostridium botulinum?

A

strict anaerobe (needs anoxic conditions)

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122
Q

sources of Clostridium botulinum (2):

A
  • soil
  • water
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123
Q

what kind of botulism implications is Clostridium botulinum involved in (3)?

A

wound, infant, and food BOTULISM

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124
Q

what specific kind of toxin does Clostridium botulinum create?

A

neurotoxin

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125
Q

what type of toxin is a neurotoxin?

A

exotoxin

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126
Q

since Clostridium botulinum produces neurotoxins, it affects ______ ______, which can cause the heart to stop, breathing to cease, and babies to be constipated

A

nervous tissue

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127
Q

neurotoxins are heat ______

A

labile (susceptible to heat, but not worth the risk)

128
Q

Clostridium botulinum is part of the same genus that causes ______

A

tetanus

129
Q

since Clostridium botulinum is found in soil and water, is is considered an “_______ pathogen”

A

accidental

130
Q

neurotoxins by Clostridium botulinum are produced best in ______ protein, ______ acid foods

A

high protein, low acid (hi pH)

131
Q

neurotoxins by Clostridium botulinum can be destroyed by high heat at what conditions (temp + how long)?

A

80°C for 10 min.

132
Q

what kind of foods is Clostridium botulinum found in?

A

nonacid home-canned vegetables (corn, beans, smoked and fresh fish)

133
Q

for any pH below ______, you don’t have to worry about botulism

A

4.6 (likes high pH)

134
Q

1 teaspoon of botulism can kill _________ ppl (**correct)

A

100,0000

134
Q

what 2 things is required for endospores involved in botulism (by Clostridium botulinum) to germinate?

A
  • anoxic conditions
  • high pH (low acid)
135
Q

botulism endospores may contaminate ____ foods before harvest or slaughter

A

raw

136
Q

most foodborne cases of botulism occur from eating foods that are not ______ after processing

A

cooked

137
Q

home-canned foods implicated in greater than ___% of foodborne outbreaks of botulism

A

> 72%

138
Q

less than ____% of foodborne outbreaks of botulism occur from commercially processed cans

A

< 10%

139
Q

infant botulism usually occurs in infants up to 2 months old from what?

A

raw honey

140
Q

in most cases of infant botulism, they are less than ____ _____ old

A

< 6 months

141
Q

onset of botulism from Clostridium botulinum =

A

18-24 hours (quick)

142
Q

is the onset of botulism fast or slow?

A

fast

143
Q

symptoms of botulism (Clostridium botulinum - 3)

A
  • heart paralysis
  • difficulty swallowing, speaking, and breathing
  • constipation (in babies)
144
Q

duration of botulism =

A

1 - 10 days (BUT neurological damage could permanent - ex: stroke)

145
Q

mortality % of botulism:

A

3-5%

146
Q

while the rate of mortality from botulism is 3-5%, the first person who gets it has a mortality rate more like ___%

A

21% (more potent)

147
Q

treatment of botulism =

A

antitoxin

148
Q

absorbs toxins but illness has to be diagnosed quickly to be effective

A

antitoxin

149
Q

outbreak caused by sautéed onions showed what risk about botulism?

A

food in bulk can be anoxic in the middle without stirring

150
Q

outbreak caused by baked potatoes showed what risk about botulism?

A

food wrapped tightly (like in saran wrap) can be anoxic

151
Q

wound botulism occurs from what?

A

drugs + dirty needles

152
Q

3rd leading cause of foodborne illness

A

Clostridium perfringens

153
Q

Clostridium perfringens can be food ________ but here we are talking about _________

A

intoxication; INFECTION

154
Q

around how many cases of Clostridium perfringens food infection occur each year in the US?

A

1 million

155
Q

in FOOD, spores from Clostridium perfringens are activated by _______ and germinate under ______ conditions

A

cooking; anoxic

156
Q

in intestines, a ______ number of Clostridium perfringens cells must be ingested

A

large

157
Q

infectious dose of Clostridium perfringens:

A

> 10^8 cells

158
Q

what specific kind of toxin does Clostridium perfringens produce?

A

enterotoxins

159
Q

enterotoxins affect the ______ and _______

A

stomach + intestines

160
Q

what type of toxins are enterotoxins?

A

exotoxins

161
Q

what triggers the production of enterotoxins from Clostridium perfringens ?

A

sporulation of vegetative cells in the intestine ***

162
Q

since enterotoxins are exotoxins, when are they secreted from the bacteria, Clostridium perfringens?

A

when they sporulate

163
Q

Clostridium perfringens produces toxins when they _______ and Clostridum botulinum produces toxins when they _________

A

sporulate; germinate (botulism)

164
Q

cells sporulate when they are in _____ conditions

A

harsh

165
Q

vegetative cells of Clostridium perfringens are killed by _______, extended _______, and ______

A

cooking, extended refrigeration, and freezing

166
Q

T/F: Clostridium perfringens cells in food can be killed if brought up to a high enough temp with stirring

A

true

167
Q

onset of Clostridium perfringens food infection =

A

7-15 hours (fast!)

168
Q

symptoms of Clostridium perfringens food infection (2):

A
  • diarrhea (mostly)
  • cramps

*fever and vomiting are rare!!

169
Q

duration of Clostridium perfringens food infection =

A

12 -24 hours (short lived)

170
Q

since the duration of Clostridium perfringens is very short lived, it resembles what?

A

viral infection

171
Q

what kind of food is Clostridium perfringens is found in?

A

foods cooked in BULK and then left out

172
Q

Clostridium perfringens is commonly found in foods cooked in bulk and then left out at what temp. range + for how long?

A

20-40°C for short time periods

173
Q

2nd leading cause of foodborne illnesses

A

Salmonella enterica

174
Q

Salmonella serovars reacts differently to ___________ than Salmonella enterica

A

antibiotics

175
Q

Salmonella enterica are considered all the same SPECIES, so they are all _____________

A

pathogens

176
Q

is Salmonella enterica gram-positive or negative?

A

gram-NEG (bacillus)

177
Q

source of Salmonella enterica =

A

sewage (GI of birds and other animals)

178
Q

T/F: Salmonella enterica is NOT considered a fecal contaminant

A

false (it is)

179
Q

what kind of foods/sources is Salmonella enterica found in (5):

A
  • meat (poultry, beef, pork)
  • fruits + beg
  • EGGS (custards, cakes, pies, eggnog)
  • dairy products
  • handling ANIMALS
180
Q

what type of foodborne illness is caused by Salmonella enterica?

A

food infection

181
Q

of cases of Salmonella enterica food infection per year

A

1 million

182
Q

less than ___% of Salmonella enterica cases are reported

A

< 4%

183
Q

we see more Salmonella enterica cases during the _____

A

summertime

184
Q

which Salmonella enterica cause food infection (accord. to class)?

A

serovars Typhimurium and Enteritidis

185
Q

where do Salmonella enterica colonize in your body?

A

small and large intestine

186
Q

what does Salmonella enterica invade and grow in after colonizing the intestines?

A

phagocytic cells

187
Q

infectious dose range of Salmonella enterica:

A

10^7 - 10^9 viable cells

188
Q

virulence factors of Salmonella enterica (3):

A
  • endotoxins
  • enterotoxins
  • cytotoxins
189
Q

virulence factor of Salmonella enterica: part of Lipid A of LPS (only in gram-neg); are absorbed and contribute to symptoms

A

endotoxins

190
Q

virulence factor of Salmonella enterica: kill intestinal cells

A

cytotoxins

191
Q

since Salmonella enterica cells can take over phagocytic immune cells to prevent them from being destoryed (acting like a virus), they are considered ______ pathogens

A

invasive pathogens

192
Q

food infection from Salmonella enterica can occur from _____ ________ of food via handler, lifestock or cross-contamination in the kitchen

A

fecal contamination

193
Q

food infection from Salmonella enterica comes from contaminated foods not _______ before consumption

A

heated (kills it)

194
Q

onset of Salmonellosis:

A

8 - 48 hours

195
Q

T/F: there isn’t a distinguishing symptom of Salmonellosis

A

true

196
Q

symptoms of Salmonellosis (6)

A
  • headache
  • chills
  • vomiting
  • diarrhea
  • fever
  • enterocolitis***
197
Q

are antibiotics usually given to treat Salmonellosis?

A

no (doesn’t rlly shorten illness)

198
Q

duration of Salmonellosis:

A

2 - 5 days (little longer)

199
Q

_____-____% of victims of Salmonellosis continues to be carriers of the bacteria for 4-8 weeks in their feces

A

10-20%

200
Q

is Escherichia coli gram-positive or negative?

A

gram-NEG

201
Q

what shape is Escherichia coli?

A

coccobacillus (short rods – NOT BACILLUS)

202
Q

what oxygen level classification is Escherichia coli?

A

facultative aerobe

203
Q

source of Escherichia coli =

A

sewage (GI tracts of animals)

204
Q

strains of Escherichia coli (4):

A
  • Enterotoxigenic (ETEC)
  • Enteropathogenic (EPEC)
  • Enteroinvasive (EIEC)
  • Shiga Toxin-Producing/enterohemorrhagic (STEC or EHEC)
205
Q

strain of E. coli: “traveler’s diarrhea;” common in water sources (ex: Mexico); can also produce toxins

A

Enterotoxigenic (ETEC)

206
Q

strain of E. coli: infantile diarrhea

A

Enteropathogenic (EPEC)

207
Q

strain of E. coli: watery diarrhea; invades phagocytes

A

Enteroinvasive (EIEC)

208
Q

strain of E. coli: BLOODY diarrhea; extremely deadly; causes bleeding in GI tract + kidney failure

A

Shiga Toxin-Producing/enterohemorrhagic (STEC or EHEC)

209
Q

the Shiga ______ in STEC got it;s name because it is similar to the one made by Shigella dysenteriae

A

toxin

210
Q

food that ETEC (Enterotoxigenic) is found in

A

contaminated drinking water (and foods grown in it)

211
Q

foods that STEC) is founded in (5):

A
  • undercooked ground beef
  • unpasteurized dairy products
  • fruit juices
  • spinach
  • water
212
Q

T/F: ppl don’t cook raw veggies like lettuce so ppl can get STEC more easily; washing it is not protective

A

true

213
Q

Enterohemmorrhagic E. coli (O157:H7) is the leading cause of _______ ______ in CHILDREN :(

A

kidney failure

214
Q

what type of foodborne illness is caused by Enterohemmorrhagic E. coli?

A

food infection

215
Q

infectious dowse of Enterohemmorrhagic E. coli is unknown, but may be as low as _____ bacterial cells

A

10

216
Q

what specific type of toxic does Enterohemmorrhagic E. coli produce?

A

verotoxin (the Shiga-toxin)

217
Q

kidney toxin; attaches to the kidney and causes an immune response to attack your own kidneys

A

verotoxin

218
Q

what 2 things can verotoxins cause in the human body?

A
  • hemorrhagic colitis
  • hemolytic uremic syndrome
219
Q

bloody diarrhea caused by verotoxins

A

hemorrhagic colitis

220
Q

kidney failure caused by verotxins; mortility rate is 50%

A

hemolytic uremic syndrome

221
Q

mortality rate of hemolytic uremic syndrome = _____%

A

50%

222
Q

Enterohemmorrhagic E. coli has an extremely _______ infectious dose

A

low

223
Q

Enterohemmorrhagic E. coli bacteria are destroyed by proper _____ treatment

A

heat

224
Q

onset of Enterohemmorrhagic E. coli food infection:

A

3-5 days (several days)

225
Q

symptoms of Enterohemmorrhagic E. coli (4):

A
  • bloody stool
  • kidney failure
  • brain damage
  • death

*fever + vomiting are rare

226
Q

duration of Enterohemmorrhagic E. coli food infection =

A

5-10 days

227
Q

___________ cases of Enterohemmorrhagic E. coli food infection occur in the US per year, with ______ resulting in death

A

73,000
60

228
Q

4th leading cause of foodborne illness

A

Campylobacter

229
Q

____% of chicken and turkey carcasses are contaminated with Campylobacter

A

90%

230
Q

are Campylobacter gram-positive or negative?

A

gram-NEG

231
Q

what shape is Campylobacter?

A

spiral shaped rods*

232
Q

what oxygen level classification is Campylobacter?

A

microaerophilic (like less than atm. oxygen)

233
Q

T/F: Campylobacter is not motile

A

false (it is!)

234
Q

source of Campylobacter:

A

GI track of animals (chickens, turkeys, hogs, household dogs)

235
Q

how can Campylocbacter be destroyed (4)?

A
  • pasteurization
  • sensitive to air
  • freezing
  • gastric acid
236
Q

T/F: Campylocbacter is heat-tolerant

A

true

237
Q

Campylobacter is termed heat toleratn bc they grow at ____°C, not at _____°C

A

42°C (like warm temp.), not 25°C

238
Q

what type of foodborne illness does Campylobacter cause?

A

food infection

239
Q

more than ____ _______ cases of Campylobacter food infection occurs every year in the US

A

2 million

240
Q

which two species of Campylobacter are most commonly linked to foodborne illness?

A

C. jejuni + C. fetus

241
Q

foods involved in Campylobacter food infection (4):

A
  • poultry
  • pork
  • raw clams *
  • dairy
242
Q

Campylobacter multiplies in the _______________ and then invades the _________

A

small intestine; epithelium (of the instestine)

243
Q

since Campylobacter colonizes the small intestines and then invades the epithelium, it is termed “_________”

A

enterovasive

244
Q

what kind of toxins does Campylobacter produce?

A
  • enterotoxin
  • cytotoxin
245
Q

Campylobacter toxins: _________ causes intestinal distress and __________ kills epithelial cells

A

enterotoxin; cytotoxin

246
Q

infectious dose of Campylobacter:

A

500 - 10^4 bacteria (pretty low)

247
Q

ppl who are take _______ are more susceptible to Campylobacter food infection

A

anti-acids (raises pH of stomach)

248
Q

onset of Campylobacter =

A

2-10 days

249
Q

symptom of Campylobacter (2)

A
  • *****HIGH fever (>104°F)
  • ulceration of ileum (occasionally) and some bloody feces

*vomiting uncommon

250
Q

duration of Campylobacter:

A

1-10 days (can be a long time)

251
Q

is Listeria monocytogenes gram-positive or negative?

A

gram-POS

252
Q

what shape is Listeria monocytogenes?

A

coccobacillus

253
Q

what oxygen level classification is Listeria monocytogenes?

A

facultative anaerobe

254
Q

what kind of tolerances is Listeria monocytogenes (3)?

A
  • psychotolerant (grow in fridge!)
  • acid-tolerant
  • salt-tolerant
255
Q

sources of Listeria monocytogenes (4):

A
  • soil
  • water
  • vegatation
  • silage (grass)

or any food tbh

256
Q

foods that Listeria monocytogenes is found in:

A
  • uncooked meat
  • fruit + veg
  • processed foods
  • unpasteurized milk + milk products
257
Q

T/F: we eat Listeria monocytogenes all the time

A

true (only the immunocompromised get it)

258
Q

who are the most VULNERABLE to Listeriosis (4)?

A
  • very old
  • very young
  • immunocompromised
  • PREGNANT
259
Q

will you get antibiotics for Listeria monocytogenes?

A

no

260
Q

Listeria monocytogenes proliferates in ___________ so it is termed a ______ pathogen

A

phagocytes; invasive

261
Q

infectious dose of Listeria monocytogenes:

A

<1000 in susceptible individuals** (low dose for them)

262
Q

Listeria monocytogenes is known for causing what in certain individuals?

A

miscarriages

263
Q

there are fewer than ______ cases of Listeria monocytogenes food infection per year

A

100

264
Q

while there are few cases, Listeria monocytogenes is said to cause ____% of all the DEATHS from foodborne illnesses

A

20%

265
Q

onset of Listeria monocytogenes:

A

few days - 2 months

266
Q

how long does it take for gastrointestinal symptoms from Listeria monocytogenes to occur?

A

> 12 hours

267
Q

since it could be a few days to MONTHS for Listeiosis to appear, it is said to have. a long _______ period

A

incubation

268
Q

symptoms of Listeria monocytogenes

A
  • bacteremia (bacteria in blood)
  • meningitis
  • miscarriage**
269
Q

duation of Listeriosis:

A

usually 5-10 days

270
Q

responsible for the largest meat recall in the US (2002)

A

Listeriosis

271
Q

along with the largest meat recall, Listeriosis also called a ________ recall in 2011

A

cantaloupe (didn’t wash em before selling)

272
Q

what should at-risk people not eat to avoid Listeriosis (4)?

A
  • soft cheeses
  • refrigerated smoked meats
  • deli meats
  • undercooked hot dogs
273
Q

how many ppl died from the Listeriosis cantaloupe recall?

A

33 ppl

274
Q

most foodborne infections are thought to be caused by ______

A

viruses

275
Q

symptoms of viral food infections (3):

A

gastroenteritis charactertized by:
- diarrhea
- nausea
- vomiting

276
Q

incubation period of viral food infections:

A

12-24 hours

277
Q

recovery of viral food infections is _____ and _______

A

spontaneous + rapid (usually within 24-48 hours)

278
Q

how long is recovery typically for viral food infections?

A

24-48 hours (quick! = 24 hr flu)

279
Q

______ viruses are responsible for most mild foodborne infections in the US

A

Noro

280
Q

Noro viruses cause ___ _______ out of the ___ ______ foodborne illnesses in the US

A

9 million out of 13 million

281
Q

which viruses collectively cause 100,000 cases in the US (3)?

A
  • rotavirus
  • astrovirus
  • hepatitis A
282
Q

“diarrhea virus”

A

rotavirus

283
Q

how are Noro viruses spread?

A

food + fecal contamination

284
Q

Noro viruse is related to the ______ virus

A

polio

285
Q

cell-associated __________________ are responsible for the symptoms of salmonellosis

A

enterotoxins + endotoxins

286
Q

what 2 protozoans are known for causing foodborne diseases?

A

1) Giardia intestinalis
2) Cryptosporidium parvum

287
Q

Giardia intestinalis + Cryptosporidium parvum are known for causing “________ / _______ diarrhea”

A

back-packers / wilderness

288
Q

Giardia intestinalis + Cryptosporidium parvum can be spread via food (contaminated by ______ matter in untreated water that is used to wash, irrigate, or spray crops, and via drinking water (+ fruits/veg grown in water)

A

fecal

289
Q

what kind of foods are involved in Giardia intestinalis and Cryptosporidium parvum growth?

A
  • fresh foods such as fruit, often IMPORTED from other countries
290
Q

a protozoan spread through CAT FECES or undercooked meat (espeically pork) or mice

A

Toxoplasma gondii

291
Q

T/F: if youre not treated for Giardia intestinalis, it can REOCCUR

A

true

292
Q

the life cycle of Toxoplasma gondii is through a _____ gut to reproduce

A

cat’s

293
Q

Toxoplasma gondii can cause ____ like symptoms

A

flu

294
Q

prenatal infection from Toxoplasma gondii can cause _____ and _____

A

blindness + stillbirth

295
Q

who is most at risk for Toxoplasma gondii infection?

A

pregnant women

296
Q

there is a hypothesis that Toxoplasma gondii causes something mentally in _____ where they are attracted to cats

A

mice

297
Q

cryptosporidium protozoa make ______ that are resistant to ______

A

cysts; chlorine

298
Q

in 1993, there was a outbreak of cryptosporidium protozoa in the water source in _________

A

Milwaukee

299
Q

aside from water sources, cryptosporidium protozoa can also occur in ______

A

animals

300
Q

infectious agent made of PROTEINS that cause disruption in neural tissue; mechanism is unclear; GENETIC link; misfolded protein that causes other proteins to misfold

A

prion

301
Q

prions are very STRONG, where you have to put them at _____°F for several hours to denature it

A

900°F (no way to kill it logistically before consuming so just don’t eat it)

302
Q

symptoms of prion disease (4):

A
  • depression
  • loss of motor coordination
  • dementia
  • death
303
Q

linked to consumption of meat products (BEEF) from cattle afflicted with BSE (prion)

A

vCJD (Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease)

304
Q

vCJD =

A

mad cow disease

305
Q

it is believed that mad cow disease came from feeding cow _____

A

cow (cannabolism)

306
Q

if there is one “mad cow” in the herd, what do you have to do?

A

kill the whole herd

307
Q

vCJD (mad cow disease) causes _____ in brain tissue + symptoms that resemble _____

A

holes; dementia

308
Q

there is now a ban on feeding cattle _____ and ____ meal to stop the development of new cases of BSE in Europe

A

meat + bone

309
Q

there have been no case of vCJD in the US, only where?

A

Great-Britain

310
Q

food safety measures (4):

A
  • clean (wash hands + surfaces often and fuits/veg)
  • separate (don’t cross contaminate)
  • cook (to proper temp)
  • chill (refrigerate promptly)
311
Q

ways refrigerate perishable food within ______ hours

A

2 hrs

312
Q

if temp is above ____°F, you should refrigerate food within 1 hour

A

90°F

313
Q

use cooked leftovers within _____ days

A

4

314
Q

should you wash meat?

A

no, creates microscopic tears in meat + and aerosal in the air

315
Q

does container size matter for leftovers?

A

yes, smaller is better (large containers can go anoxic with endospore prod. and it takes longer to get to 4°C)

Microbio (21 decks)

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